Practice Questions - Large Doc (397- Flashcards

1
Q

Most frequent fetal tracing in women performing moderate exercise:

A

Modest increase in HR
Maximal exercise can cause bradycardia

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2
Q

AFP synthesis

A

AFP = Glycoprotein, made by fetal yolk sac, later by GI tract and liver

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3
Q

Abnormalities w/ T13

A

Brain (hydrocephalus)
Facial
Polydactyly
Renal
Omphalocele
Clubfeet
Most common chromosome anomaly a/w holoprosencephaly

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4
Q

Why is general anesthesia more rapid in pregnant women?

A

Concentration increases due to decreased FRC and RV.

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5
Q

Local anesthetic w/ greatest cardiotoxicity

A

Bupivicaine
95% protein bound, hard to reverse

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6
Q

Dx and treatment of CAH

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency, CYP21A2 gene (chrom 6)
Lack 11 deoxycortisol and cortisol
Excess ACTH stimulates adrenal precursors like 17OHP
Dx made by CVS, DNA probes, deletions detected w/ genomic blot hybridization
Female fetus at risk for virilization
- Decrease risk w/ dexamethasone 20mcg/kg, need to start prior to 9wks b/c it can happen very early (4-9wks)
- 2/3 treated females need postnatal reconstruction

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7
Q

Ppx in HIV based on CD4

A

<200 - PCP ppx w/ bactrim
<100 - Toxo ppx w/ bactrim
<50 - MAC ppx w/ azithro

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8
Q

How much does 1 unit of FFP increase fibrinogen?
What factors is it exclusively a source of?

A

Increases fib by 10mg/dl/unit
Only source of factors V, XI, and XII

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9
Q

Terbutaline mech of action

A

Acts through adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP, which inhibits MLCK by phosphorylation
- Key process in contraction (actin-myosin interaction)
Increased cAMP decreases intracellular free calcium

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10
Q

Uterine contraction - cell signaling

A

Increased intracellular calcium activates calcium-calmodulin dependent myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)
MLCK phosphorylates myosin, initiating contraction in smooth muscle

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11
Q

Effect on Apgar by anesthesia

A

1min affected, 5min not

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12
Q

Timing of PVL

A

2wks to develop, as long as 104 days after initial insult

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13
Q

FSH/LH levels in pregnancy

A

Decreased/undetectable - due to feedback inhibition from estrogen/inhibin

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14
Q

Proper US transducer

A

Standard - 3.5MHz
Higher frequency, better resolution, shallower depth of penetration
- TVUS 5MHz
Use higher frequency earlier in pregnancy
If obese or term, may need lower frequency transducer

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15
Q

Vitamin K in neonates - why is it needed

A

Vit K doesn’t cross placenta well
IM better than oral (doesn’t prevent later hemorrhage 4-6wks)
Babies born to moms on anticonvulsants at highest risk of hemorhage

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16
Q

Eisenmenger’s

A

Most common cause - large VSD
Labor, delivery, PP - most dangerous
Any significant fall in venous return impairs ability of R heart to pump blood through high, fixed pulm resistance

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17
Q

Mycoplasma hominis - what can it cause?

A

Endometritis, BV

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18
Q

Teratogenicity of dilantin is a/w what enzyme?

A

Epoxide hydrolase
- Fetal enzyme activity weak, so they accumulate

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19
Q

Most common cause of cancer following in utero exposure

A

Hepatitis B

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20
Q

Most rapid method for uterine relaxation following uterine inversion

A

Terb
Mag
Then general anesthesia

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21
Q

What infection in pregnancy can be diagnosed with serologic markers?

Toxo
CMV
Chlamydia
HSV
Mycoplasma

A

Toxo - IgM positive after 7d and lasts 1 yr

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22
Q

Omphalocele associations

A

Associated malformations in 2/3
25% have aneuploidy or syndrome
T18 - most common aneuploidy
Cardiac defects common
Beckwith Wiedemann

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23
Q

Amino acid concentrations in fetus

A

Higher than maternal (decrease)
Acidic AA (aspartate and glutamate) don’t cross placenta - fetus makes them

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24
Q

HPV treatment

A

TCA (trichloroacetic acid)
Laser/cryoablation

5FU, imiquimod, interferon contraindicated in pregnancy

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25
SVT most common mechanism
Reentry
26
Fetal bradycardia
Not ominous if response to movement, if structurally normal
27
Complete heart block
Bad prognosis if hydrops, malformation, or ventricular escape rates <55
28
Adverse maternal effects of steroids
Multiple fluid and lyte abn Osteoporosis Peptic ulcer Mental disturbances
29
Things a/w low AFP
Obesity, GDM, T21, T18 Smoking increases levels Black race - 10-15% higher
30
Most common complication of polycystic kidney disease
BP increase Then PTD
31
Hepatitis B serology - 1st element elevated - Can remain elevated after infection - Elevated during clinical sx
HBsAg HBeAg, also anti-core IgG Anti-core IgM
32
A1c rate of malformation
22% if >8.5
33
AEDF risk of perinatal mortality
Absent - 10% Reversed - 30% If a/w IUGR, can be due to aneuploidy Normal <15wks
34
Increased Doppler S/D
Closer to placenta is decreased - lower impedance - Dopplers are worse on the fetal end Increased FHR - can shorten or lengthen diastole resulting in less or more time for runoff affecting both S and D velocities
35
Mechanism of prostaglandin E2
Histologic changes involving dissolution of collagen bundles and increase in submucosal water content
36
What is associated with increased transmission to the fetus in HIV positive women? CD4 count Viral load CD HAART tx
Viral load
37
What is a complication of combivir?
Anemia
38
Which syndrome is associated with macrosomia? BW Meckel gruber Trisomy 21 Polyploidy
Beckwith Wiedemann
39
Heart defect with increased transmission to the fetus ASD Tetralogy IHSS (Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis) Coarctation
IHSS - autosomal dominant Recurrence of: AS - 13-18% VSD - 6-10% TOF - 3-4% Coarc - 4% AVSD - 2-6%
40
Maternal heart defect with lowest incidence of mortality? Corrected tetralogy Artificial heart valve Eisenmenger’s
Corrected tetralogy
41
Which B cell disease gets worse in pregnancy? Graves Myasthenia gravis SLE
SLE
42
Which chromosomal abnormality is not increased in offspring of AMA women? Down syndrome Kleinfelter’s Turner’s syndrome Edward’s syndrome
Turners
43
Risk of disease in population is 1/6400. What is carrier state? 1/20 1/40 1/80 1/100
p2 = 1/6400 p = 1/80 q = 79/80 2pq = 79/6400x2 = 158/6400 = 79/3200 ~1/40
44
GnRH is made where?
Cytotrophoblast of chorion
45
Which test should be used if one compares outcome before and after treatment? Paired t test Chi square Mann Whitney U ROC curve
Paired t test Ex - pre-test and post-test score w/ intervention administered in between Compares means of 2 measurements taken from same individual, object, or related units
46
Insulin affects growth in all tissues except: Brain Fat Liver Muscle
Brain
47
In patient with known parvo exposure (+ IgM), what is the best management if a small pericardial effusion is noted in the fetus? Cordocentesis with transfusion Amniocentesis for delta OD Ultrasound observation Repeat maternal IgM levels
Ultrasound observation
48
What is the precursor of fetal adrenal steroids? LDL Amino acids Glutathione Vitamin D
LDL
49
What is the effect of the mini pill on the endometrial lining? Increased stroma and glands Decidualization Increased blood loss during menses Thin cervical mucous
Decidualization
50
The rapid GBS test is not used in practice because of: Poor sensitivity Low prevalence of GBS Null hypothesis Racial differences
Poor sensitivity
51
What best describes the physician patient relationship? Autonomy Fiduciary Beneficence Non malfeasance
Fiduciary Patients, implicitly or explicitly, allocate on clinicians discretion to act on patients' behalf with respect to their health
52
These drugs should not be used in patients with myasthenia except: Curare (alkaloid arrow poison from plants, causes weakness of muscles) Mestinon Magnesium Gentamicin
Mestinon (pyridostigmine) - Used to treat myasthenia - inhibits acetylcholinesterase and increases conc of ACh at the NMJ Curare (alkaloid arrow poison from plants, causes weakness of muscles)
53
How does magnesium affect myasthenia gravis?
Inhibits release of acetylcholine
54
Myasthenia gravis mechanism
Autoimmune Antibodies form against nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) postsynaptic receptors at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) of the skeletal muscles, causing muscle weakness and rapid muscle fatigue
55
Which derm condition is associated with bullae on external surfaces of arms, pruritis with deposition of compliment on the basement membrane? Herpes gestationis Hereditary angioedema Erythema multiforme PUPPS
Herpes gestationis - AKA pemphigoid gestationis
56
What drug causes hypothermia in the newborn?
Valium
57
Which organism is most associated with preterm birth? Ureaplasma BV GBS Chlamydia
Ureaplasma
58
What drug should be used to treat resistant/refractory V tach in the mother? Adenosine Quinidine Capsaicin Lidocaine
Lidocaine Can also use amiodarone
59
Which is not a sign of BV? positive whiff test pH <4.5 Thin, homogenous discharge >20% clue cells
pH <4.5 - pH GREATER than 4.5 in BV
60
GBS is most resistant to: PCN Clinda Erythromycin Bactrim
Bactrim? not used for GBS Next would be erythromycin
61
Which enzyme is theoretically deficient in fetuses who manifest birth defects d/t antiepileptic drugs?
Epoxide hydrolase
62
What complication is associated with exteriorization of the uterus? Air embolism Uterine atony Patent foramen ovale
Air embolism
63
What are the risks in the mother who gave birth to a 22 week stillbirth and has positive ACA and LA? Hyperemesis B-12 deficiency Thrombosis Berry aneurysm
Thrombosis
64
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy? Influenza Rabies Varicella Cholera
Varicella
65
What is associated with fetal abdominal calcifications? EBV CMV Parvo Turner
CMV
66
Which syndrome is a/w fetal thrombocytopenia? Absent radii syndrome Gestational thrombocytopenia Erythroblastosis fetalis Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Absent radii syndrome - Called thrombocytopenia-absent radius syndrome (TAR) Bernard- Soulier - AR, giant platelets and bleeding, can cause mild TCP but in children
67
What is the precursor of deoxycorticosterone? Aldosterone DHEAS Progesterone
Progesterone
68
What is the #1 cause of malformations? Radiation Infection Genetics Medication
Genetics
69
What is the treatment of 21 OH deficiency in the female fetus? Cortisone acetate Diestryl acetate Dexamethasone Aldosterone
Dexamethasone Maternal CAH does not lead to virilization of fetus (due to powerful aromatization capabilities of placenta) Fetal inheritance of CAH can cause virilization of a female fetus
70
What causes virilization of a female fetus? Luteoma of pregnancy Cystadenoma Prolactinoma Oral contraceptives
Luteoma of pregnancy - Benign neoplasm of ovary - Can present w/ virilization of mother or infant - 1/3 of women affected, 3/4 of these w/ female fetuses will be affected - Spontaneously regress PP - Causes increased progesterone, testosterone
71
PO2 in the umbilical vein approaches that of the: Middle cerebral artery Uterine vein Uterine artery Radial artery
Uterine vein
72
In which disorder is IgG contraindicated? Recurrent pregnancy loss Myasthenia gravis ITP Rheumatoid arthritis
Unknown - can be used in all RPL - recent studies
73
Risk of neonatal infection with SVD in a woman with recurrent vulvar herpes lesion 50% 1% 100% 0%
1%
74
Gaucher’s disease is a disorder of: Aspartoacylase Hexose aminidase A Glucocerebrosidase
Glucocerebrosidase
75
What lab value is seen with preeclampsia? Decreased urine calcium Decreased cellular fibronectin Decreased thromboxane
Decreased urine calcium
76
What type of inheritance is associated with Leber’s optic atrophy? AR AD X-linked Mitochondrial
Mitochondrial Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON) is the most common inherited mitochondrial disorder and typically affects young males - Progressive visual loss due to optic neuropathy
77
Which disorder is associated with uniparental disomy? William’s syndrome Cri du chat Hydantoin syndrome Prader-Willi
Prader-Willi
78
Diseases associated with DNA repeats include all except: Fragile X Huntington’s Myotonic dystrophy CF
CF Fragile X - CGG - 55-200 premutation, >200 symptomatic Huntingtons - CAG - Autosomal dominant - >40 will be affected, risk to offspring 50% MD - CTG - AD - 38-49 premutation, >50 symptomatic
79
HIV is… DNA virus Prion RNA retrovirus Mad cow disease
RNA retrovirus
80
An Apgar of < 3 is associated with this risk of CP: 5% 15% 50% 100%
15% I think
81
NTDs are usually: Due to single gene defects Caused by teratogens Multifactorial in nature Associated with aneuploidy
Multifactorial in nature
82
A normal appearing woman has a homozygous 21/21 translocation. What % of her offspring will have Down syndrome?
50% of conceptuses 100% of live births Monosomy 21 incompatible with life
83
A normal appearing woman has a homozygous 21/21 translocation. What % of her conceptuses will be monosomy 21?
50% Lethal diagnosis
84
The most important predisposing risk factor for macrosomia is: GA >40w Previous macrosomia Maternal smoking Male fetus
Previous macrosomia
85
The byproduct of carbohydrate metabolism is: CO2 H20 NH3 Lactic acid
Lactic acid
86
What decreases in pregnancy? Factor VI Factor V Factor XIII
Factor XIII
87
Which local anesthetic causes neurologic toxicity?
Chloroprocaine
88
Which local anesthetic causes psychiatric side effects?
Lidocaine
89
Which alk phos is produced by the placenta? Heat labile Heat stable
Heat stable
90
What hepatitis is associated with the greatest amount of chronic disease? Hep B Hep A Hep E Hep C
Hep B - More people worldwide living with HepB - 5-10% of adults develop chronic infection - 90% of infants infected at birth develop chronic infection Hep C more likely to develop into chronic (75-80%)
91
Which fetal urine electrolyte predicts a good response after bladder shunt placement in a fetus with PUV? Na >100 Chloride >90 Osmolality <210 Urine output <2cc/hr
Osmolality <210 Poor renal function is indicated if urine sodium >100, osmolality >200
92
Which drugs should not be used in women who could get pregnant?
Acitrefin or etretinate (psoriasis drugs): last forever; don’t get pregnant for 3 years
93
Scalp pH represents pH of fetal: Arterial blood Venous blood Amniotic fluid
Arterial blood
94
Normal amount of amniotic fluid at 12 weeks 10 cc 50 cc 400 cc 1000 cc
50cc
95
Compared to fetal plasma, the amniotic fluid in the latter part of pregnancy is: Hypertonic Hypotonic Isotonic
Hypotonic
96
What is not present on the trophoblast?
Class I major histocompatibility antigens
97
What is the first sign of folate deficiency? NTDs Hypersegmented polymorphonuclear leukocytes Low MCHC
Hypersegmented polymorphonuclear leukocytes
98
What is associated with a normal ristocetin test? Von Willebrands Bernard Soulier Glanzmann’s thromobasthena
Glanzmann’s thromobasthena - bleeding disorder - bleeding time abnormal, but ristocetin normal BS - no platelet aggregation in response to ristocetin
99
Which does not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn? Kell Duffy Lewis D
Lewis
100
Neonatal resuscitation - indications for interventions
When to give O2? - Labored breathing or persistent cyanosis (but normal HR and no apnea/gasping) Bag and mask - PPV indicated if apnea, gasping, or HR <100 Intubation - HR <60 Epi - Intubated, chest compressions, O2 at 100% and HR remains <60
101
The mother has type O+ blood and baby is A+. The baby has been breast feeding and 2 days post partum is jaundiced. The mom has no antibodies but there is a + direct Coombs. What is the most likely cause? Breast feeding ABO incompatibility Rh disease Immature fetal liver enzymes
ABO incompatibility + Direct Coombs means there is maternal antibody on neonate's RBC, consistent w/ HDN
102
What is not covered by cephalosporins? Enterococcus Group A strep Group B strep
Enterococcus
103
What causes toxic shock syndrome? Group A strep Group B strep Clostridium Anaerobic strep
Group A strep
104
What decreases OCP efficacy? Rifampin Flagyl Nitrofurantoin
Rifampin
105
What measure on vesicocentesis was predictive of poor renal function/outcome? Na <20 Ca <8 Osmolality >200 Beta 2 microglobulin <4 Total protein <20
Osmolality >200
106
After a meal, what is most likely to be seen to increase in the BPP? Breathing Movement Tone Reactive NST AFI
Breathing
107
What is the most common cause of maternal mortality in the US? Thromboembolism Hemorrhage Hypertension Infection
Hemorrhage (14%) Then cardiac conditions, then infection, then VTE, then HTN New data - mental health conditions are highest (23%)
108
What is the most likely risk from regional anesthesia Allergic reaction to local Toxicity from local Epidural bleeding Brain herniation
Toxicity from local
109
What is the most common side effect with combivir and lamivudine? Anemia Hepatotoxicity Rash
Anemia
110
PVL is associated with which maternal infection? Pyelo Pneumonia Chorio
Chorio
111
What is the most predictive of HIV transmission? Ruptured membranes CD4 count Viral load/HIV RNA
Viral load/HIV RNA
112
What is associated with reversible hearing loss in the fetus? ASA Streptomycin Cisplatin
ASA
113
What is the most common trisomy of abortuses? 16 18 13 21
16
114
Which is seen with holoprosencephaly and midline facial defects? Trisomy 13 Trisomy 21 Trisomy 18
Trisomy 13
115
What is used in the treatment of IHSS? Nifedipine Hydralazine Magnesium Propranolol
Propranolol - Reduces myocardial O2 requirements
116
How do you treat refractory SVT in the mother? Adenosine Lidocaine Digoxin
Adenosine
117
The best test to compare means between three groups is? Student t-test Chi square Wilcoxan rank sum test ANOVA
ANOVA
118
What is not good in monitoring Kell sensitization? Delta OD450 MCA
Delta OD450 - Not a hemolytic anemia - affects bone marrow
119
What does oral contraception decrease the least? Breast cancer Uterine Cancer Anemia PIH Toxic shock syndrome
Increases risk for breast cancer and preeclampsia
120
What situation can override a patient’s decision?
Competency
121
How does IgG cross the placenta? Pinocytosis Simple diffusion Active transport Facilitated diffusion
Pinocytosis
122
Ion trapping
Ion trapping of basic drugs occurs in an acidotic fetus Fetal pH is usually less than maternal pH, which can lead to ion trapping and greater drug concentration in fetus Non-ionized drugs cross more easily Local anesthetic - increased protein binding in mother means less medication that will diffuse across placenta - Bupivicaine, ropivicaine will have lower fetal blood levels than lidocaine (less protein bound) Chloroprocaine has least amt of placental transfer bc it is rapidly eliminated/short half-life)
123
A patient has CHTN with superimposed preE with a BP of 160/120 on nifedipine at 35 weeks. She was given magnesium and her BP drops to 60/40. How do you treat? Calcium gluconate Ephedrine IV fluids Methergine
Calcium gluconate - Mag reversal?
124
What is the most common cause of neonatal hyperthyroidism? Hashimoto’s Graves Toxic adenoma Exogenous T3 or T4
Graves
125
What causes chronic active hepatitis and cirrhosis? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D Hepatitis E
Hepatitis C
126
Most drugs can cross the placenta by which mechanism? Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Active transport Pinocytosis
Simple diffusion
127
A normal pregnant patient in the third trimester has what fasting and postprandial glucose? Low fasting, high PP Low fasting, low PP High fasting, high PP High fasting, low PP
Low fasting, high PP
128
What dictates mode of delivery in patients with ITP? Obstetrical indications Maternal platelet count Fetal scalp platelet count
Obstetrical indications
129
What is the least likely risk to the fetus from a vacuum assisted delivery? Tentorial tearing Scalp lac Facial nerve palsy Brachial plexus injury Subgaleal
Facial nerve palsy
130
Patient has a vulvar hematoma s/p exploration and packing and transfusion. Now the patient is experiencing bright red vaginal bleeding through the packing. Next step? Explore Repack Embolize Exploratory laparotomy
Embolize
131
What is not associated with calcifications in the fetal abdomen? Toxo CMV Parvo Meconium CF
Parvo
132
What is the most common finding with an increased NT at 10 weeks? Normal Turner Downs
Normal
133
What is the most common finding on a term infant with Down syndrome? Simian crease Hypotonia LBW <2500g
Hypotonia
134
What condition with cystic fibrosis carries a poor prognosis Cor pulmonale Recurrent pneumonia Pancreatitis
Cor pulmonale = R heart failure due to lung pathology
135
Hemoglobin and O2 differences between mom and fetus
Fetal hgb - higher O2 affinity (basis of transfer of O2 to fetal RBCs across placenta) Fetal pO2 always lower Fetal % hgb saturation (O2 sat) always higher HgbF (gamma) has decreased affinity for 2,3 DPG - shifts curve to L
136
Effect of acidosis on fetal O2
Shifts to R - acidosis decreases O2 affinity - Tissues acidotic to improve O2 release, lungs alkalotic to increase O2 uptake Maternal hypoventilation leads to fetal respiratory acidosis - fetal pH influenced by maternal pH
137
Which vessel has the highest fetal oxygenation? Carotid Aorta Pulmonary artery Umbilical artery Femoral vein
Carotid L atrium highest chamber
138
During stress, what organ gets preferential shunting in the fetus? Adrenal Liver Lung
Adrenal Brain, heart, adrenals most important
139
What time of day does the fetus move the most? 6-8 AM 10-12 PM 14-1600 18-2000 22-2400
22-2400
140
Medroxyprogesterone has which effect postpartum? Decrease lactation Decrease triglycerides Increased thromboembolism Decreases depression Increases calcium
Decrease lactation
141
What levels are increased in the fasting state of pregnancy?
Cholesterol
142
Postpartum thyroiditis has all of the following symptoms except Depression Tachycardia HTN Diarrhea
HTN Thyrotoxicosis followed by hypothyroidism
143
Which autosomal dominant disorder has telangiectasia, epistaxis and AV malformations?
Osler-Weber-Rendu Also called hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia - blood vessel malformations
144
What increases fibrinogen the most?
Cryo
145
Which fetal syndrome has absent radius, polyhydramnios and hydronephrosis?
VACTERL
146
VACTERL
costo-Vertebral abnormalities Anal atresia Cardiac Trachea/esophageal abnormalities Renal Limbs
147
All are associated with increased AFP except? Chorioangioma Velamentous cord insertion Subchorionic cyst Umbilical cord cyst
Velamentous cord insertion
148
What is not related to poor fetal outcome? Circumvallate placenta 2 vessel cord Velamentous insertion Battledore placenta
Battledore placenta
149
What has the highest risk of PTD in an asymptomatic patient with no risk factors? Increased WBC in amniotic fluid Increased vaginal MMP Increased FFN
Increased WBC in amniotic fluid
150
What is most commonly seen with APLAS? IUGR Fetal death PTD
PTD
151
A patient has a PE. What is the most likely thrombophilia? Factor V leiden AT III APLAS
Factor V leiden (most common inherited thrombophilia)
152
What is the most appropriate to give a patient for long-term anticoagulation and breast feeding? LMWH Full dose heparin Coumadin Mini-heparin ASA
Coumadin
153
What is not associated with placental thickening? Syphilis Rh isoimmunization Non-immune hydrops Listeria
Listeria
154
Lyme disease treatment
Not pregnant - doxy Pregnant - PCN
155
What is least useful with SC disease? Iron Folic acid Pneumovac Antibiotics for suppression
Iron
156
Folic acid lowers the plasma level of what medication?
Dilantin
157
What fetal anomalies are seen with maternal ingestion of a folic acid antagonist? Cardiac Amniotic band GI NTD
NTD Also cardiac, cleft, urinary tract
158
What other anomaly is most commonly seen with CDH? Cardiac Renal Neuro
Cardiac
159
What nerve is affected if the mother’s legs are hyperflexed during delivery? Femoral Obturator Peroneal
Femoral
160
A mother is s/p forceps and can’t dorsiflex her foot. What nerve has been affected?
Common peroneal
161
What is a measure of prevalence? Morbidity Mortality Attack rate Autopsy rate
Morbidity - presence of disease in a population - How many are ill at a given time
162
A patient was diagnosed with IUFD. After delivery, there appeared to be no gross anomalies, placenta appeared normal and the fetus was macerated and weighed 2500g. What would most likely give you the diagnosis? Autopsy Karyotype KB TORCH
Autopsy
163
A mom has DM. Which is the least likely complication to fetus? Hypoglycemia Hypocalcemia Hypothermia Polycythemia
Hypothermia
164
What drug would you see opiate withdrawal if given in labor? Stadol Toradol Valium Morphine
Stadol
165
A fetus is born with IUGR. What is the most likely complication in the first 24 hours? Hypoglycemia Hyperbilirubinemia RDS
Hypoglycemia
166
What is the least useful sonographic measurement to differentiate b/t IUGR and wrong dates? AC BPD Cerebellum Foot
AC
167
What is the most useful measurement in diagnosing IUGR? Transcerebellar AC BPD Foot
AC
168
What is given for decreased maternal cardiac output? Hydralazine Labetalol Lasix
Hydralazine
169
What is the mechanism for a beta agonist? Increased cAMP Decreased cAMP
Increased cAMP
170
Which drug inhibits conversion of T4 to T3? Propranolol Iodine Lithium Cimetidine
Propranolol
171
A patient presents at 20 weeks with h/o RH isoimmunization in which the baby needed only phototherapy. This pregnancy is with the same partner. What is the next step in management? MCA Amnio Fetal blood sampling Maternal antibody titer
Subsequent pregnancy after child already affected - don't need to measure titers - Test fetus first - can use cfDNA or amnio - If Rh+, do MCAs
172
What is least useful for PCR diagnosis in amniotic fluid? ITP NAIT Rh disease Kell
PCR of fetal cells can detect fetal antigen status
173
Acute pyelo is least associated with: Anemia HTN Renal dysfunction Respiratory distress
HTN
174
What is avascular? Chorion laeve Chorion frondosum Decidua capsularis Decidua basalis Decidual
Chorion laeve (smooth chorion)
175
What amino acid is associated with NTD? Phenylalanine Homocysteine Glutamic acid
Homocysteine
176
What is an obligate precursor for NO?
L-arginine
177
What is the mechanism of glyburide?
Increases insulin secretion
178
What drug is concentrated in breastfeeding? Cyclophosphamide Cyclosporine PTU
Cyclophosphamide
179
What is the best way to analyze studies on apgar scores? Chi square T test Mann-Whitney
Mann-Whitney Non-parametric, ordinal
180
What is used to measure intraobserver variability?
Kappa score
181
Which is the best test to determine which variable is related to survival? Chi square Kaplan meier Student t test Wilcoxin rank sum
Kaplan meier
182
A mom presents with ptyalism. Most likely dx? Parotitis Caloric deficiency Electrolyte imbalance
Caloric deficiency
183
Which maternal cardiac lesion is a/w the greatest fetal risk? Uncorrected TOF Aortic stenosis VSD Mitral stenosis
Uncorrected TOF
184
What test has the least radiation? Lumbar myelogram CT with contrast CT pelvimetry Abdominal flat and lateral IVP
Abdominal flat and lateral
185
Prostaglandin dehydrogenase is found where?
Chorion - 15 hydroxy prostaglandin dehydrogenase These enzymes upregulate placental oxytocin expression and interfere with progesterone signaling.
186
Which is not part of innate immunity? Toll like receptors NK cells Monocytes Macrophages
Monocytes macrophages, neutrophils, NK cells, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, dendritic cells, toll like receptors. monocytes can differentiate into macrophages Adaptive immune response is carried out by lymphocytes: B cells and T cells Apparently monocytes can influence adaptive immune responses.
187
Which decreases in pregnancy? IgM B cells NK cells
NK cells
188
Which maternal cardiac lesion affects fetal O2 the most? VSD PHTN AS MI
PHTN
189
Which does not express MHC class I? Syncytiotrophoblasts Cytotrophoblasts Epithelial cells Stroma
Syncytiotrophoblasts By not displaying the MHC-1, it avoids a chance of attack by maternal immune system’s T cells.
190
What is associated with graft vs host dz Psoriasis Eczema Erythema multiforme PUPPS
PUPPS
191
Preload and afterload fixed. What increases CO? Alpha adrenergic Beta adrenergic Hydralazine Lasix
Beta adrenergic
192
Least helpful for pseudotumor? Aminophylline Lasix Steroids Lumbar puncture
Aminophylline
193
Most common cause of death from epidural toxicity?
Marcaine cardiotoxicity
194
What affects fetal growth the most? IGF Insulin Glucagon
Insulin
195
TTP first line of therapy? Steroids IVIG Plasmapheresis
Plasmapheresis
196
How does recurrent antenatal steroids affect fetal growth?
Decreased HC
197
Least likely associated with intellectual disability? 1st trimester varicella 1st trimester rubella CMV
1st trimester varicella
198
At term, fetal CO in mL/min/kg 100 350 250 500
500
199
Where is the largest % of fetal cardiac output?
Placenta
200
Dose for renal dopamine? 4 8 12 20
4
201
PPV increases with _____ prevalence
Increasing
202
AF acetylcholinesterase least helpful with? Omphalocele Gastroschisis Congenital nephrosis Anencephaly
Congenital nephrosis
203
A woman has a h/o recurrent SAB. She has 45, XX (t21,22) karyotype. Her husband is 46, XY. Chance next offspring will have down syndrome? <1% 10% 33% 50% 100%
10% if mother is carrier 2.5% if father
204
Which is the most necessary in a vegan? Vit B6 Vit B12 Iron Folate
Vit B12
205
Location where HIE occurs Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Frontal lobe Periventricular area Cerebellum
Periventricular area
206
PGF2a vs PGE2 causes which side effect?
Bronchoconstriction
207
When is malaria more common?
Pregnancy increases infection High parity decreases More often seen in pregnant women, younger women, first/second pregnancy, HIV+, first and second trimesters
208
Which is the least likely side effect of aldomet?
Neuro
209
Medicine associated with fetal hearing loss Cisplatinum Carboplatin Streptomycin
Streptomycin
210
Differences between early amnio (11-12wks) and normal time
Early amnio (10-13w) has rates of pregnancy loss of 2.5% (vs 0.7% with usual time) This would be a 3.57-fold difference Membrane rupture is more likely Clubfoot is 1.3% (early) vs 0.1% (usual time) - this is a 13 fold difference More amniotic fluid culture failure
211
Which is most likely a teratogen? Cyclosporine Carbamazepime Azathioprine
Carbamazepime
212
Which of the following is not a possible side effect of halothane given for CD? Hemorrhage Malignant hyperthermia Hepatotoxicity Rash
Hemorrhage
213
Which one of the following is not a mechanism of action of glyburide? Increased insulin release from alpha cell of pancreas Increase insulin mediated glucose transport Increasing number of insulin receptors
Increased insulin release from alpha cell of pancreas
214
A 36 year old G3P2 patient presents to you at 23 weeks of EGA with a fever and rash. Exam reveals a target shaped lesion. Upon questioning, you find out that the patient just returned from visiting relatives in Connecticut. What is the appropriate therapy? Oral doxy x 5-7 days Oral amox x 5-7 days Oral doxy x 14-28 days Oral amox x 14-28 days
Oral amox x 14-28 days
215
Which medication potentiates the neuromuscular blockade of magnesium sulfate? Nifedipine Terbutaline Indomethacin Gentamicin
Gentamicin
216
Hemabate
PGE F2a analogue
217
Misoprostol
PGE E1 analogue
218
Dinoprostone
PGE E2 analogue
219
ITP - Risk of fetal plt <50? - Should you do CD?
10-15% of fetuses in ITP will have plt <50 CD doesn't decrease risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenic infants
220
Lanugo
More common in premature babies
221
Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis in a pregnancy in which the triple screen shows a high msAFP, normal hcG and normal estriol? Fetal death Subchorionic hemorrhage Gestational trophoblastic disease Cystic hygroma
Gestational trophoblastic disease - would have high hcg - AFP low
222
All of the following can cause elevated amniotic fluid AFP except? Chorioangioma Umbilical cord cyst Fetal hydrops Cleft lip
Cleft lip
223
Prevalence of a disease is the biggest influence on sample size in power calculations: True False
True
224
Depo provera is best for which situation? Patients with undiagnosed irregular bleeding Moms with high cholesterol Nursing mothers Patients with pseudotumor cerebri
Nursing mothers Pseudotumor - depo can make HA worse
225
What are swan ganz findings in the initial phase of amniotic fluid embolism? Decreased PA pressure Increased PA pressure Increased CO Systemic HTN
Increased PA pressure Two phases - First with intense pulm vasospasm and RHF. Then LV failure and elevated PCWP and more modest increase in PA pressures. Coagulopathy develops if they survive the cardiovascular collapse
226
Risk of early-onset GBS sepsis in untreated GBS+ moms
1/100