Practice Questions - Large Doc 2 (819-end) Flashcards

1
Q

What is insulin?
- Polypeptide
- Hormone carbohydrate
- Hormone nucleotide

A

Polypeptide

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2
Q

Half-life of HPL after CD?

A

15-30min

Not found after 1st PPD

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3
Q

Patient with class F and R diabetes with creatinine clearance of 90 and 24’ urine of 0.8 g baseline. If no preE later, what would her 24’ urine look like at 30 weeks?

A

Will increase but back to baseline after pregnancy

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4
Q

What is TRH?
- Polypeptide
- Hormone carbohydrate
- Hormone nucleotide

A

Polypeptide

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5
Q

Which CVS result has highest risk of uniparental disomy?

A

46XX/47XX+15

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6
Q

Failure of closure of which has the worst outcome?
- DV
- Sinus venosus
- Ductus arteriosus
- Foramen ovale

A

Ductus arteriosus

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7
Q

What is fiduciary responsibility?
- Practicing according to evidence based guidelines
- Patient responsibility to doctor
- Financial gain
- Time management

A

Practicing according to evidence based guidelines

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8
Q

What is most important in clinical research?
- Informed consent
- Confidentiality
- Lack of conflict of interest

A

Informed consent

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9
Q

Which is most associated with HIE?
- In utero demise of mono-di co-twin
- Infection

A

Infection

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10
Q

Which is the source of fetal DNA in maternal serum?
- Fetal nucleated RBCs
- Fetal leukocytes
- Trophoblasts
- Fetal epithelial cells

A

Fetal nucleated RBCs (wrong?)

I think cfDNA comes from placental trophoblasts

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11
Q

Which is least associated with long term sequelae in the neonate?
- Oliguria
- Elevated LFTs
- Hypotonia
- pH >7.05

A

Hypotonia

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12
Q

What % of results are greater than 2 SDs above the mean in a 2 tailed test?

A

2.5%

68/95/99.7

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13
Q

Which is least important in determining sample size?
- Desired alpha
- Desired beta
- Desired chi square result
- Prevalence in controls
- Desired prevalence in treatment group

A

Desired chi square result

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14
Q

When to use one tailed test?

A

Results can only go in one direction

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15
Q

Best way to minimize confounding factors?
- Randomize
- ANOVA
- Prospective study

A

Randomize

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16
Q

Which is least likely to affect baseline FHR variability?
- Terbutaline
- Demerol
- Magnesium

A

Magnesium

Don’t know if this is right

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17
Q

Who needs pneumovax?
- Epidemic conditions
- Immunosuppressed
- Post exposure

A

Immunosuppressed

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18
Q

Recurrent infection of which has the highest fetal risk?
- CMV
- Varicella
- HSV
- Toxo

A

HSV

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19
Q

Patient at 11 weeks with N/V, low TSH, normal T3 and T4. Most likely?

A

Normal

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20
Q

Least likely with preE?
- Increased BUN
- Increased creatinine
- Decreased tubular secretion
- Decreased renal plasma flow
- Decreased GFR

A

Decreased tubular secretion

PEC - compromise of proximal tubular reabsorption, so secretion is INCREASED

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21
Q

What is associated with preE?

A

Cellular fibronectin

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22
Q

Highest chance of autism?
- Fragile X
- Prior child w/ autism
- Male gender

A

Prior child w/ autism

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23
Q

Least likely with paternal age >50
- NF
- Daughter w/ hemophilia
- Marfan’s

A

Daughter w/ hemophilia

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24
Q

Which is least likely to delivery vaginally if term, 6 cm and 0 station?
- Brow
- Mentum anterior
- Footling breech
- OP
- OT

A

Footling breech

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25
Q

What is most likely with epidural for term labor?
- Endometritis
- Prolonged 1st stage
- Prolonged 2nd stage
- Cesarean
- Malpresentation

A

Prolonged 2nd stage

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26
Q

Oxidative stress is important in the pathophys of which?
- GDM
- PPROM
- PTL
- Abruption
- PEC

A

Preeclampsia

Oxidative stress leads to inadequate placental perfusion

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27
Q

Most likely cause of delayed meconium passage in neonate?
- T21
- Hirschsprung’s
- CF
- TE fistula

A

CF
Meconium plug is common

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28
Q

Neonate has apnea lasting >30s
- Intubate
- Positive pressure O2
- Chest compressions

A

Positive pressure O2

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29
Q

Least likely to see w/ ICP?
- Oligo
- Non-reactive NST

A

Oligo

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30
Q

Best way to monitor acute asthma attack?

A

Peak expiratory flow

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31
Q

Worst prognosis for subsequent pregnancy after peripartum cardiomyopathy?

A

Low EF after 12 weeks

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32
Q

Most important in counseling after teratogen exposure?

A

Timing of exposure

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33
Q

Which has the fastest onset when given intrathecally?
- Lidocaine
- Tetracaine
- Bupivicaine
- Ropivicaine

A

Lidocaine

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34
Q

Which has the highest O2 content?
- Spiral artery
- Intervillous space
- Umbilical artery
- Umbilical vein

A

Spiral artery

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35
Q

Umbilical vein:
- Lower O2 than uterine vein
- Higher pH than umbilical artery
- Higher CO2 than umbilical artery

A

Lower O2 than uterine vein

Umb artery w/ have higher CO2 bc it is returning it to mom for excretion

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36
Q

Which is not dependent on placental blood flow?
- DHEAS
- Estriol
- Estrone
- Estradiol

A

DHEAS

Made in fetal adrenals

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37
Q

Where is fetal leptin produced?

A

Fetal adipose

Also in syncytiotrophoblast

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38
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for placental metabolism of glucocorticoids?

A

11-beta steroid dehydrogenase type 2

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39
Q

Ambiguous genitalia on US least likely to be:
- Cloacal exstrophy
- Hypospadias
- CAH
- Exogenous androgens

A

Hypospadias

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40
Q

Valium during Cesarean most likely to cause:

A

Hypoxia

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41
Q

Which is most likely to result in prolonged neonatal withdrawal?
- Methadone
- Heroin
- SSRI
- Valium

A

Methadone

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42
Q

Which is most likely to need bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis?
- Afib
- IHSS
- Prosthetic valve
- Pacemaker
- Asymptomatic MVP

A

Prosthetic valve

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43
Q

Which changes the least in pregnancy?
- CO
- SVR
- PVR
- COP
- CVP

A

CVP

CVP and PWCP do not change significantly in preg

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44
Q

D/B+D =

A

Specificity

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45
Q

Which is least important for power analysis?
- Sample size
- Standard deviation
- Variance
- Coefficient of variance
- Desired chi-squared result

A

Desired chi-squared result

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46
Q

Which is most sensitive to detect fetal CMV infection if mom was exposed at 10 wks?

A

Amnio for CMV PCR at 21wks

  • Should be done at least 7wks after maternal infection and after 21wks GA
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47
Q

Which is usual cause of hemodynamic decompensation with mitral stenosis?

A

Increased preload

Causes backup into pulmonary

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48
Q

Which is least likely to be transmitted to fetus before 20 weeks?
- CMV
- Parvo
- HSV
- Toxo
- Syphilis

A

HSV - usually transmitted intrapartum

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49
Q

Which decreases the likelihood of alpha thal?
- SE Asian
- African American
- Hgb A2 <2%
- 125 mc/dL

A

African American

MCV usually <80
Hgb A2 low

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50
Q

What should you see in the plane when measuring AC?

A

Stomach

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51
Q

What is the sensitivity of a quad in detecting T21 in a patient <35?

A

75%

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52
Q

Most common sign of uterine rupture?

A

FHR abnormalities

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53
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be caused by transplacental antibodies?
- ITP
- Congenital myasthenia gravis
- GVHD
- Heart block

A

Congenital myasthenia gravis (different than neonatal)
- Inherited, not from maternal antibodies

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54
Q

The most common complication from insulin pump is:
- Hypoglycemia
- Preprandial hyperglycemia
- Anti-insulin antibodies

A

Preprandial hyperglycemia

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55
Q

CVS cannot diagnose which?
- Thalassemia
- NTD

A

NTD

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56
Q

IUGR is most associated with which disease later in life?

A

HTN

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57
Q

What is the risk of transmission in the first trimester with primary CMV?

A

40%

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58
Q

Drugs in the highest concentration in breast milk are more likely to be:

A

Lipid soluble

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59
Q

Management of patient with MI who is 35 weeks pregnant

A

Await spontaneous labor

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60
Q

What is the first to change in a growth restricted fetus?
- AFI
- NST
- Breathing
- Gross movements
- Doppler changes

A

Doppler changes

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61
Q

Term fetus becomes cyanotic 2 hours after birth. Preductal O2 90%, postductal O2 70%. What is the malformation?
- PDA
- TGA
- Mitral insufficiency

A

TGA

  • I don’t think this is right - I think it’s PDA
  • TGA causes reverse of this (higher sats in lower half of body)
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62
Q

What pO2 = sat of 90%?

A

60mmHg

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63
Q

Down syndrome most likely:
- Absent nasal bone
- Cardiac defect

A

Absent nasal bone (60%)

Cardiac = 50%

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64
Q

Components and drug class of combivir

A

Lamivudine and zidovudine = NRTIs

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65
Q

What gives immunotolerance in the placenta?

A

Variable expression of paternal HLA in the syncytiotrophoblast

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66
Q

What is not normal in pregnancy for EKG?
- Prolonged PR interval
- Mild ST segment changes
- Left axis deviation
- Q waves in leads…

A

Prolonged PR interval

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67
Q

What is most likely a/w aneuploidy?
- Pelviectasis
- Short humerus
- EIF
- Echogenic bowel

A

Echogenic bowel (LR 5.5)

Highest LR = increased nuchal fold >5mm (LR 18)
Then echogenic bowel, short humerus (2.5), short femur (2.2), EIF (2), UTD (1.6)

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68
Q

What is least transmitted in banked breastmilk?
- HIV 1&2
- HepB
- HepC
- CMV

A

CMV? Killed in pasteurization process

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69
Q

Most likely finding in neonatal lupus
- Complete heart block
- Another heart block
- Thrombocytopenia
- (Rash not a choice)

A

Thrombocytopenia

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70
Q

How do you differentiate b/w lupus flare and preE?
- Thromboxane
- Increased LFTs
- Increased dsDNA
- ANA elevated

A

Increased dsDNA

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71
Q

OCPs are most likely to be given to a patient with
- Heterozygous FVL
- Homozygous MTHFR

A

Homozygous MTHFR

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72
Q

How do you diagnose primary adrenal insufficiency?
- CRH stimulation test
- Basal cortisol test
- ACTH stim

A

ACTH stim

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73
Q

Fragile X is not associated with:
- Gonadal cancer
- Ataxia
- Premature ovarian failure
- Autism

A

Gonadal cancer

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74
Q

What’s the biggest barrier to drugs crossing the placenta?
- Placenta metabolizes the drug
- Lipid solubility
- Ion trapping

A

Lipid solubility

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75
Q

Single left pulmonary effusion in otherwise normal infant most likely the result of:
- Hydrothorax
- CPAM
- BPS
- CDH
- High bronchial lesion: non-communicating

A

Hydrothorax

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76
Q

In TTTS, which has no improvement in neonatal outcome?

Septostomy
Amnioreduction
Selective laser
Cord ligation

A

Septostomy

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77
Q

Morbidly obese patient has CD. Postop has hypoxia. Most likely due to?

PE
Sleep apnea

A

Sleep apnea

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78
Q

What doesn’t improve after fetal surgery?
- Sacrococcygeal teratoma
- TRAP
- TTTS
- BOO

A

??BOO

Improves the outcome (shunt from bladder to AFI, helps w/ lung development) but doesn’t relieve the obstruction

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79
Q

Infant with dermatomal rash, chorioretinitis, microcephaly. Most likely infection?

HSV
Congenital varicella

A

Varicella

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80
Q

What is different in breast milk than colostrum?

A

Fat - higher
Glucose - higher
Protein - lower
Immunoglobulins - lower
Lactose - higher

Colostrum has more protein, immunoglobulins; mature milk has more fat, glucose, lactose

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81
Q

Terb side effects

A

Maternal - hyperglycemia, hypokalemia
Neonatal - hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, ileus

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82
Q

Triploidy - most common composition

A

Diploid egg, 1 sperm

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83
Q

Beta blocker mechanism

A

B1 - side effects, acts on heart
B2 - smooth muscle relaxation

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84
Q

Acrocentric chromosomes

A

13
14
15
21
22

Can be involved in Roberstonian translocation

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85
Q

Myotonic dystrophy - phenotype w/ parental origin

A

If inherited from mom - risk of congenital disease w/ contractures, respiratory distress
If inherited from dad - onset at 3-5yrs

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86
Q

B cell function in pregnancy

A

Decreased

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87
Q

What effect does iodine have on maternal thyroid function and why?

A

Suppresses function. Competitive inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis/organification

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88
Q

What is most strongly associated with aneuploidy?

Cystic hygroma
Short femur
EIF
Echogenic bowel
Omphalocele

A

Cystic hygroma (50%)

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89
Q

Transmission rate of CMV in pregnancy

A

30-40% (2nd tri)

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90
Q

What is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Influenza vaccine
Intranasal flu vaccine
Amantadine

A

Intranasal flu vaccine (live virus)

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91
Q

The umbilical vein:

Has a lower O2 than the uterine vein
Lower pH than UA
Higher CO2 than UA

A

Has a lower O2 than the uterine vein

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92
Q

What hormone is responsible for hyperpigmentation in pregnancy?

Estrogen
Progesterone
Cortisol

A

Estrogen

Or melanocyte stimulating hormone

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93
Q

Severe IUGR at 21wks most likely:

T18
T13
T21
Triploidy

A

Triploidy

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94
Q

Which increases with advanced paternal age

Neurofibromatosis
T21
T18
T13
CF

A

Neurofibromatosis

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95
Q

When is CVS contraindicated?

Kell isoimmunization
Rh disease

A

Rh disease
- relative contraindication, may cause more severe hemolytic disease

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96
Q

In a patient with autonomic dysreflexia, how high do you want to titrate your epidural?

T4
T10
C4

A

T10

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97
Q

What drug would you start in a patient with Marfans with aortic root of 4.1 cm?

Beta blocker
Alpha blocker
CCB
Hydralazine

A

Beta blocker

During pregnancy goals of treatment are to decrease the pulsatile forces on the aorta with the use of a β-blocker

Highest risk >40mm, >50mm should undergo repair prior to pregnancy

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98
Q

What is most likely contributing to increased perinatal M&M with diabetes?

Congenital anomalies
Growth discrepancies
Poor glycemic control
Stillbirth

A

Poor glycemic control

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99
Q

In a hypoxic fetus, what physiologically is occurring?

Shunting of blood to adrenals
Shunting of blood to the brain

A

Shunting of blood to the brain

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100
Q

What is true of the fetal hemoglobin oxygenation curve?

A

Higher sats per PaO2 always

L shift

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101
Q

What is appropriate for HIV prophylaxis as a single dose at delivery?

AZT
Nevirapine
Kaletra

A

Nevirapine

In resource-limited settings

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102
Q

Most common side effect of Combivir?

Bone marrow suppression
Nausea
Anorexia

A

Nausea (most common)

Bone marrow suppression also major side effect

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103
Q

What is most likely to be persistently absent or abnormal in an acidotic fetus?

Tone
Breathing
Movement
AFI

A

Breathing

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104
Q

What decreases efficacy of OCPs?

A

Anything that increases liver microsomal activity (phenobarb, Dilantin, rifampin, Griseofulvin)

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105
Q

What is least likely to occur in 24 hours?

Closure of the DA
Closure of the DV
Closure of the foramen ovale
Increase in pulmonary arterial pressure
Constriction of umbilical vessels

A

Increase in pulmonary arterial pressure

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106
Q

What product is used to replace factors V, IX and fibrinogen?

Cryo
FFP
Whole blood

A

FFP

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107
Q

How would use of a nonparametric test or use of an odds ratio with CI affect your calculated sample size?

A

Add 15% for nonparametric test (not normally distributed)

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108
Q

When studying association between PNV and ovarian cancer, what is the best initial form of study?

Case control
Cohort
RCT
Retrospective chart review

A

Case control

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109
Q

Depo provera has which effects?

Increased triglycerides
Decreased depression
Decreased urinary calcium excretion

A

Increased triglycerides

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110
Q

Beta agonist mechanism of action

A

Bind to beta-2 adrenergic receptors (a G protein coupled R) on smooth muscle of bronchial tissue, activates adenylyl cyclase, causes release of cAMP, causes smooth muscle relaxation

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111
Q

Which organ system is affected by teratogens the earliest in gestation and for the longest period of time?

CNS
GI
Spine
Limbs

A

CNS

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112
Q

Level for regional anesthesia block for C/S?

A

T5

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113
Q

Most common skeletal dysplasia?

A

Thanatophoric

No fractures

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114
Q

A woman had a baby die of CAH. Most likely cause of death?

Hypoglycemia
Salt wasting dehydration
Hyperkalemia

A

Salt wasting dehydration

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115
Q

Drug most commonly associated w/ microtia?

A

Accutane

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116
Q

Majority of increased prolactin comes from:

A

Placenta

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117
Q

CGH best used to detect:

Aneuploidy
Balanced translocations
Microdeletions

A

Microdeletions

Comparative genomic hybridization - looks at copy number variants

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118
Q

Which most highly correlates with impending fetal death in IUGR?

BPP of 2
UA Dopplers with AEDF

A

BPP of 2

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119
Q

Least likely finding for T21 at 18 weeks on US

Short humerus
Short femur
Double bubble
Increased nuchal fold
Pyelectasis

A

Double bubble

Usually found >24wks

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120
Q

Ductal dependent fetal lesions

A

TGA, TOF, Coarc, HLHS, Ebstein’s, AS, PS/PA, tricuspid atresia

NOT ductal dependent - VSD, balanced AV canal, ASD

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121
Q

What bacterial enzyme is responsible for preterm labor?

Prostaglandin synthase
Prostaglandin dehydrogenase
MMP
Phospholipase (or lipoxygenase) A2

A

Phospholipase (or lipoxygenase) A2

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122
Q

Child w/ DiGeorge most likely has decreased:

T cells
B cells

A

T cells

(hypoplastic thymus)

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123
Q

What are the borders of the pelvic inlet?

A

Sacral promontory, arcuate line, superior aspect of pubis

124
Q

Main pelvic floor support

A

Levator ani

125
Q

Statistical test to measure difference in variation between survival curves?

Cox regression
Kaplan Meier

A

Cox regression

126
Q

Treacher Collins affects which facial feature

Mandible
Maxilla

A

Mandible

127
Q

Lab findings in primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Elevated ACTH

128
Q

Normal EKG changes in pregnancy:

A

Increased HR, left axis deviation, inverted T in lead III, Q in III and AVF, non-specific ST changes

129
Q

In which lesion is spinal most contraindicated?

Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary hypertension
Mitral stenosis
Pulmonic stenosis

A

PHTN

130
Q

Which mode of inheritance affected by penetrance, expressivity?

AR
AD
X

A

AD

131
Q

Which antibiotic has big salt load?

A

Zosyn

132
Q

When is cardiac output the greatest?

Immediately postpartum
Third trimester
Early labor
Second stage labor
Second trimester

A

Immediately postpartum

133
Q

Which class of anti-depressants has the least maternal/fetal adverse profile?

MAOI
Dopamine reuptake inhibitors
TCAs
SSRIs

A

SSRIs

134
Q

Patient presents with fever, joint pain, tenosynovitis and pustular rash on hands

Syphilis
Gonorrhea

A

Gonorrhea

135
Q

Metformin mechanism

A

AMP activated protein kinase

136
Q

Which changes the least in pregnancy?

Heart rate
CO
SVR
Mean arterial pressure

A

MAP

137
Q

30 weeks with proteinuria, hematuria and edema. Most likely:

Minimal change dz
PreE
Glomerulonephritis

A

Glomerulonephritis?

138
Q

Which allows you to see the contribution of each variable to the outcome?

T-test
Logistic regression
Chi sqaure
ANOVA

A

Logistic regression

139
Q

Best immediate tx for thyroid storm?

Iodine
Methimazole
Propranolol
Radioablation

A

Methimazole

140
Q

Worst thrombophilia?

FVL
ATIII
Prothrombin
MTHFR

A

ATIII

141
Q

Mom had prior kid with severe thrombocytopenia. Next best step?

Paternal platelet antigen
Maternal IVIG
Prednisone
CVS for fetal platelet type

A

Paternal platelet antigen

142
Q

Protective anastamosis in monochorionic twins

AV
VV
AA

A

AA

143
Q

Treatment for steroid resistant lupus

Azathioprine
Cyclosporine
Hydroxychloroquine
Cyclophosphamide

A

Hydroxychloroquine

144
Q

Most common finding in non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Normal PCWP

145
Q

Most common reason for Prader Willi?

Maternal uniparental disomy
Paternal deletion

A

Paternal deletion (70%)

But can be caused by maternal UPD

146
Q

Low estriol most a/w:

Placental sulfatase deficiency
Fetal death

A

Placental sulfatase deficiency (ichthyosis)

147
Q

Mechanism of LMWH

A

Binds to antithrombin to form complex to inhibit factor Xa

148
Q

Fetal myotonic dystrophy a/w all except

Talipes
Polyhydramnios
Hypotonia
IUGR

A

IUGR

149
Q

Most likely side effect of local anesthetic toxicity?

Seizures
Tinnitus
Hypotension

A

Tinnitus

150
Q

Injection of local anesthesia 🡪 seizure. First step:

Magnesium
Succinylcholine
Diazepam
Nifedipine

A

Diazepam

151
Q

How is IHSS inherited?

A

AD

152
Q

Most likely maternal complication of malaria?

A

Anemia

153
Q

Roux en Y least likely to have what deficiency?

Folate
B12
Vitamin K
Vitamin D

A

Vitamin K

154
Q

What is not a presentation of AFE?

Hypotension
Dyspnea
Seizures

A

Seizures

155
Q

Which HIV med would you not give to somebody with hepatitis toxicity?

Kaletra
Nevirapine

A

Nevirapine
- Don’t give to patients at higher risk for developing liver problems

156
Q

Best predictor for preE recurrence in patient with prior early onset preE?

APLAS
FVL
GA at recurrence

A

GA at recurrence

157
Q

Don’t give OCPs to:

A

ATIII

Hepatic adenoma

158
Q

MAI (mycobacterium avium) prophylaxis

A

Azithromycin

159
Q

PCP pneumonia treatment

A

Bactrim
- Also use for ppx

160
Q

Anti-inflammatory cytokine

IL-10
IL-1
TNF alpha

A

IL-10

161
Q

Mom with pulmonic stenosis. Most common problem?

RV hypertrophy
Arrhythmias

A

RV hypertrophy

162
Q

What is the most common problem with MVP?

Arrhythmia
LV hypertrophy

A

Arrhythmia

163
Q

What makes mitral stenosis worse?

Increased preload
Increased SVR
Increased afterload

A

Increased preload

164
Q

How to treat VSD w/ R->L shunt?

A

Sildenafil

165
Q

Aortic stenosis – what is worst for this condition?

Caval compression
Increased afterload
Bradycardia

A

Caval compression (decreased preload/hypovolemia)

166
Q

Which lesion is worst for fetal oxygenation?

ASD
VSD
Pulmonary hypertension

A

PHTN

167
Q

What is not associated with IUFD?

Toxo
Listeria
Syphilis
CMV

A

CMV?

Listeria - 50%
Syphilis - 21%

168
Q

Plasmapheresis for which maternal disease?

TTP
Guillain Barre

A

TTP

169
Q

Neonatal circumcision bleeding

XIII
XI
V
Prothrombin
MTHFR

A

XIII

Factor XIII deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive congenital deficiency. Factor XIII plays an important role in the cross-linking of polymerized fibrin. Patients present with bleeding and delayed wound healing usually first noted at the umbilical stump or after circumcision.

170
Q

Neonatal circumcision bleeding

Factor VII
Factor IX
Factor XI
Factor XII

A

Factor IX

171
Q

Which is least likely to cause hyperbilirubinemia in infant?

AB-
B-
A-
O-

A

If fetal = O-
If maternal = AB-

172
Q

Most important function of IRB?

A

Protect best interest of patient

173
Q

Ethical principles in clinical research

A

Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice

174
Q

Odds ratio calculation

A

(#exposed cases x #unexposed non-cases) / (#exposed non-cases x # unexposed cases)

Assume exposure leads to cases - situation you expect goes in numerator

OR >1 suggests exposure a/w higher odds of outcome

175
Q

Inhaled anesthetics like halothane for:

Amnesia
Analgesia
Uterine relaxation
Maintain normotension

A

Amnesia

176
Q

Which ethical principle is behind insurance companies not covering first trimester screening?

A

Justice

177
Q

Which principle is behind a patient requesting an elective CD?

A

Autonomy

178
Q

Which ethical principle is behind health care reform?

A

Justice

179
Q

Best product to replace factors V, VII, XII?

Factor V concentrate
FFP
PRBCs
vWF

A

FFP

180
Q

What can be calculated in a case-control study?

A

OR

181
Q

Major problem w/ RCTs

A

Generalizability

182
Q

Major problem with cohort study?

Confounders
Selection bias
Recall bias

A

Confounders

183
Q

Metabolic deficiency in Fanconi Anemia

A

Chromosome defect in cluster of proteins needed for DNA repair. Most AR. Some X. Hematologic components don’t develop. Cancer risk. Also can be deficient in GH, thyroid hormone, can have abn glucose metabolism, dyslipidemia and metabolic synd.

184
Q

ROC best shows:

Further to upper left, poorer the test
Compares false negative rate and specificity
Relationship between sensitivity and specificity

A

Relationship between sensitivity and specificity

185
Q

How to treat pheochromocytoma:

B blocker
A blocker
Hydralazine

A

A blocker

186
Q

Highest O2 sat in the following vessels

Ductus – which one?
LA
Umbilical artery

A

DV

Then LA, then DA, then umb art

187
Q

Increasing at the end of gestation:

Ventricular compliance
SVR

A

SVR

188
Q

46 (15)/47 XX + 15 on CVS. Most likely outcome

A

Normal

Mosaic - most likely confined placental mosaicism

189
Q

45 XX der (14:21)(q10;q10)

A

Balanced translocation of 14/21

190
Q

Depo provera a/w the most

Elevated lipids/triglycerides
Depression
VTE
Decreased breast milk

A

Elevated lipids/triglycerides

191
Q

Best med for flu

A

Oseltamivir

192
Q

Least associated with adaptive immunity

T cell
B cell
Cytokine
Monocyte

A

Cytokine

193
Q

Innate immunity least associated with

Neutrophils
Monocytes
Macrophages
T cells

A

T cells

194
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma in pregnancy at 18 weeks

Radiation
Chemo
Chemo/rads
No treatment

A

Chemo

195
Q

Most teratogenic

Cyclosporine
Carbemazepine
Azathioprine

A

Carbemazepine

196
Q

Kaplan Meier only can do single binary predictor - what test do you use for more?

A

Cox regression

197
Q

What increases sample size to maintain power?

Log transformation
Nonparametric test
Alpha level
Beta level

A

Nonparametric test

198
Q

Normal size parents with recurrent achondroplastic kid

Reduced penetrance
Reduced expressivity
Gonadal mosaicism
New mutation

A

Gonadal mosaicism

199
Q

Most common associated with cystic hygroma:

Cardiac
T21
T18
T13
Triploidy
XXY

A

T21 (more common than 45 XO)

200
Q

Which is most likely with 4 mm NT and normal karyotype?

Normal
Cardiac defect

A

Normal

201
Q

Which is least likely to be transmitted?

A

Varicella

Parvo: 50% seroconv, 33% vert transmission of mat infxn
CMV: 30-40% 3rd T
Rubella: 80% FT
Varicella: 2%
Toxo: 10% FT, 60% 3T

202
Q

Which is least likely to be associated with IUGR?

Parvo
CMV
Rubella
Varicella
Toxo

A

Parvo

203
Q

Most common cause of hep B in the world?

Blood transfusion
Sexual contact
Vertical transmission
Needles

A

Vertical transmission

204
Q

LCHAD homozygous associated with:

Fatty liver
PreE

A

Fatty liver

LCHAD deficiency - inability to metabolize long-chain fatty acids

Fetal LCHAD homozygotes highly a/w maternal AFLP

205
Q

What is maternal blood directly exposed to?

Maternal endothelial cell
Placental endothelial cell
Syncytiotrophoblast
Cytotrophoblast

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

206
Q

ACEi teratology

A

Cardiac

207
Q

What least likely decreases placental transport?

Ionization
Lipid solubility
Protein binding
Placental degradation

A

Lipid solubility

208
Q

What is associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Thymus aplasia

209
Q

Maternal mortality highest with:

Varicella
H1N1
Seasonal flu
Leptospirosis

A

Varicella

210
Q

When is asthma likely exacerbated?

1st trimester
2nd trimester
36-40 weeks
Intrapartum
Postpartum

A

2nd trimester

211
Q

CVP 5; PCWP3; SVR 600; CO 12; Etiology

A

Early sepsis
- Low SVR, high CO

212
Q

Ashkenazi Jewish

Gaucher
Familial dysautonomia
CF
Huntingtons

A

Familial dysautonomia

213
Q

Maternal PKU a/w fetal:

Epiphyseal abnormalities/limb reduction
V shape brow
Cardiac
Renal agenesis

A

Cardiac

214
Q

S/D ratio decreases with fetal:

Age
Bradycardia
IUGR
Hypoplastic L heart

A

Age

215
Q

Stages of TTTS

A

I - poly/oli
II - absent bladder
III - abnormal Dopplers
IV - hydrops
V - fetal death

216
Q

Medication contraindicated in breast feeding:

Cyclosporine
PTU
Warfarin
Dilantin

A

Cyclosporine

217
Q

Leading cause of PVL

A

Chorioamnionitis

218
Q

Leading cause of neonatal chorioretinitis?

CMV
Rubella
Syphilis

A

CMV

219
Q

Highest pO2 in fetus?

IVC
Ductus arteriosus
Right ventricle
Descending aorta

A

IVC

220
Q

Highest failure rate of glyburide

Obesity
Fasting Glucose >115

A

Fasting Glucose >115

221
Q

A1C of 12.5%

NTD
Caudal regression
Transposition
Gastroschisis

A

Transposition

222
Q

Moderate pulm stenosis in pregnancy most a/w:

RVH
Normal pregnancy and delivery
Syncope

A

Normal pregnancy and delivery

223
Q

In DKA, the anion gap shows acid from acetoacetate and:

Lactic acid
Beta hydroxybuterate

A

Beta hydroxybuterate

224
Q

Calculate A-a gradient with ABG given. Alveolar-arteriole gradient.

A

A-a gradient = PAO2(alveolar) – PaO2 (arteriole)
5-10 is normal and increases 1 with each decade
Approximated as A-a = (150 – 5/4 PCO2) – PaO2
Increased means problem with diffusion, VQ mismatch or R🡪L shunt

225
Q

Medication used for primary pulmonary hypertension

A

Sildenafil (Viagra)

226
Q

Mechanism of action of iodine in hyperthyroidism/storm:

Decrease uptake of iodine into thyroid
Decreased release of thyroxine
Decreased peripheral conversion
Decreased action of thyroid hormone in periphery

A

Decreased release of thyroxine

227
Q

Most likely outcome with AFP 1.01; hCG 1.23; uE3 0.11

T21
NTD
X-linked ichthiosis
T18

A

X-linked ichthyosis

Very low estriol - defect in steroid sulfatase, unable to make estrogens

228
Q

Duration of action of lantus in non-preggo

0-4h
4-8
8-12
18-24

A

18-24h

229
Q

Fetal regulation of LH

A

In male fetuses, LH detected at 8-10wks. At 15-20wks, T regulation shifts to fetal pituitary as LH takes over from placental hCG to drive testosterone. Neg feedback w/ testosterone and inhibin B. Peak LH higher in females. At term, LH undetectable.

Rises after delivery due to estrogen withdrawal from mother; then decreases again until puberty

230
Q

In asthmatic with respiratory rate of 30, what is worst predictor of her condition?

pH 7.4
HCO3 22
pO2 100
pCO2 40

A

pCO2 40 worst prognosis

231
Q

Worst prognosis for CPAM lesion

Size
Solid
Dextrocardia
Hydrops

A

Hydrops

232
Q

Worst prognosis for CDH:

Liver up
Size of defect
Contralateral lung tissue
Ipsilateral lung tissue

A

Liver up

233
Q

Most common cause of death from regional anesthesia in CD

A

Local anesthetic toxicity

234
Q

Most likely reason for false positive KB?

A

Answer unclear but likely sickle cell anemia due to HgbF

235
Q

Which bug is least affected by cephalosporins?

E. coli
Enterococcus
GAS
GBS

A

Enterococcus

236
Q

MS exacerbation most common:

1st trimester
2nd trimester
3rd trimester
Intrapartum
Postpartum

A

Postpartum

237
Q

Which of the following would require a larger sample size for a given power?

Using log of data
Looking at one group versus three
Using nonparametric data

A

Using nonparametric data (need 15% more)

238
Q

What do you not need to calculate power?

Coefficient of variance
SD
Alpha
Beta

A

Coefficient of variance

239
Q

Which one is always less than the standard deviation?

Coefficient of variance
Standard error of the mean
Variance (SD squared)

A

Standard error of the mean

240
Q

Patient can’t stand after delivery:

Obturator
Sciatic
Peroneal
Femoral

A

Femoral

241
Q

Patient unable to adduct leg after labor:

Obturator
Sciatic
Peroneal
Femoral

A

Obturator

242
Q

Which is in the innate immune system?

T cells
B cells
Monocyte
Macrophage

A

Macrophage

243
Q

Best contraception for PE:

Micronor
Mirena
OCPs
Male condom
Female condom

A

Mirena

244
Q

Patient presents at 36 weeks with history of T6 spinal lesion. Contractions, hypertension and flushing. What is best treatment?

Spinal
Epidural
Parenteral

A

Epidural

245
Q

Which is the preferred method of diagnosing PE

VQ
Spiral CT
MR of chest
Echo

A

Spiral CT

246
Q

Reason for increased DVT on left

Crossing of left iliac vein by left iliac artery
Crossing of left iliac vein by right iliac artery

A

Crossing of left iliac vein by right iliac artery

247
Q

Worst prognostic factor with acute asthma exacerbation?

Decreased pO2
Increased pCO2
Decreased peak flow
Wheezing

A

Increased pCO2

248
Q

What is the most actively produced hormone during pregnancy?

Progesterone
Estriol
DHEAS

A

Progesterone

249
Q

What is the most important in determining fetal hydantoin syndrome?

Dose
Genetic heterogeneity
Other medications

A

Genetic heterogeneity

250
Q

Microtia is most associated with:

Fetal alcohol syndrome
Warfarin
Isotretinoin
Hydantoin

A

Isotretinoin

251
Q

Most associated with IUGR:

Propranolol
Nifedipine
Metoprolol
Lasix

A

Propranolol

252
Q

Best medicine for intermittent angina in patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:

Nifedipine
Lasix
Propranolol
Nitroglycerin

A

Propranolol

253
Q

Spinal anesthesia is worst with:

Mitral regurg
Mitral stenosis
Pulmonary hypertension
Coarctation
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

PHTN

254
Q

Least helpful in treating vWF:

DDAVP
Humate-P
Platelets
Recombinant vWF
Cryo

A

Platelets

255
Q

Most appropriate candidate for combined OCPs:

ATIII
Protein C
Protein S
Factor V Leiden
Anticardiolipin

A

FVL

256
Q

Least likely to pick up IUGR on ultrasound in a patient with:

Hyperthyroidism
Hemoglobin SC
HIV
Elevated AFP

A

Hemoglobin SC

257
Q

Who is most likely to need 1 mg folic acid during pregnancy

Sickle cell anemia
2nd pregnancy in 1 year

A

Sickle cell

258
Q

Effects of betamethasone

Decreased movement
Decreased breathing
Decreased variability

A

Decreased breathing

259
Q

Most correlated with fetal acidosis

Decreased heart rate reactivity
Fetal breathing
Fetal movement
Fetal tone
Decreased AFI

A

Fetal tone

  • True lack of tone a/w highest perinatal death rate
260
Q

Patient presents with seizure 10 days out from delivery complicated by hypertension and regional anesthesia. Most likely reason?

Eclampsia
Cerebral venous thrombosis

A

Eclampsia

261
Q

Mechanism of spinal headache?

Maternal hypovolemia
Cerebral Vasoconstriction
Tension of pain sensing neural fibers
Early ambulation

A

Tension of pain sensing neural fibers

262
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate postpartum most associated with?

Elevated triglycerides/LDL
Thromboembolism
Decreased milk production
Depression

A

Elevated triglycerides/LDL

263
Q

Maternal hyperparathyroidism. Least associated?

Hypercalcemia
HTN
Fetal intracranial calcification
Neonatal hypocalcemia

A

Fetal intracranial calcification

264
Q

Mom is carrier of delta F508. Dad tested for 25 mutations and none were detected. What is risk of affected infant with carrier rate of 1/25?

A

Greater than the general population (residual risk 10% in dad)

265
Q

Source of maternal GnRH

Decidua
Chorion
Amnion
Endometrium
Maternal pituitary

A

Chorion (placenta produces GnRH as well as pituitary)

266
Q

Best test to follow patient on PTU

Total T4
TSH
TRH
Total T3
Free T4

A

Free T4

267
Q

Which diabetic med has least transfer across placenta?

Glyburide
Glypizide
Metformin
Tobua—

A

Glyburide

268
Q

Which antibiotic has minimal transfer across placenta secondary to albumin binding?

Erythromycin
Sulfa
Gentamicin
Ancef
Ampicillin

A

Erythromycin

269
Q

Hormone most affected by uterine blood flow?

Estriol
Estrone
Estradiol
Progesterone
DHEAS

A

Estradiol - increases uterine blood flow

270
Q

Fetal enzyme most responsible for the breakdown of maternal glucocorticoids

A

Placental 11 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
- Breaks down cortisol

271
Q

Most sensitive for CMV infection documented by serology at 10 weeks

CVS for CMV
Amnio with PCR at 16 weeks
Amnio with culture at 20 weeks
Amnio with PCR at 23 weeks

A

Amnio with PCR at 23 weeks

272
Q

Appropriate f/u for bilateral renal pelvis of 9 mm at 30 weeks

Weekly AFI
Amniocentesis
Repeat US in 4 weeks
Neonatal renal ultrasound

A

Repeat US in 4 weeks

273
Q

Highest sensitivity at 20 week ultrasound for Down Syndrome?

Short 5th digit
Short humerus
Echogenic bowel
Short femur
Pyelectasis

A

Echogenic bowel

274
Q

HIE is most associated with:

Chorio
Demise of one monochorionic twin
Prematurity <28 weeks
pH=7.0

A

Chorio

275
Q

Which is most associated with preterm birth?

Cervical index >50 (funnel length/cervical length)
CL <15 mm
Sludge
Funneling

A

CL <15 mm

276
Q

If you have a high spinal, the effect on the cervical branches is:

Paresthesia of the chest
Dyspnea

A

Dyspnea

277
Q

In which disease is amniotic PCR least helpful?

ITP
Alloimmune thrombocytopenia
Rh disease
Toxo
CMV

A

ITP

278
Q

Most likely complication with C hyst

Cystotomy
Fistula
Ureteral injury
Pelvic abscess

A

Cystotomy

279
Q

Which is most predictive of TTTS?

Fluid
Weight
Dopplers
MCA

A

Fluid

280
Q

Least likely seen with A1C >12?

Skeletal
Cardiac
Renal
Gastroschisis
Sacral agenesis

A

Gastroschisis

281
Q

Single umbilical artery is most commonly associated with?

VSD
Omphalocele
Hydrocephalus

A

VSD

282
Q

How to differentiate HELLP from acute fatty liver?

Thrombocytopenia
LDH
Glucose

A

Glucose

283
Q

Non-closure of what fetal shunt causes the most neonatal complications?
- Ductus arteriosus
- Foramen ovale
- Ductus venosus

A

PDA

284
Q

What fetal vessel has the highest pO2?

Umbilical artery
Fetal femoral vein
Fetal pulmonary artery
Fetal pulmonary vein
Right carotid artery

A

Right carotid artery

285
Q

At 4 weeks, most likely adverse outcome of >5 rads exposure

Childhood leukemia
Microcephaly
IUGR
SAB

A

SAB

286
Q

In genetic counseling for teratogen risk, which is most important?

Drug dose
Other drugs
Timing of drug

A

Timing of drug

287
Q

Which is the worst malaria to get?

Plasmodia malariae
Plasmodia ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax

A

Plasmodium falciparum

288
Q

If person gets allograft, what does she most likely acquire?

CMV
Hep B

A

CMV

289
Q

On ultrasound, micromelia and hypocalcification of skull is noted. Which is least likely?

OI
Achondroplasia
Hypophosphatasia
Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

Achondroplasia

290
Q

How do you follow woman with SSA and prior affected infant?

Auscultation each visit
Repeat echo for type 2 block
Serial US for pericardial effusion
Follow maternal titers

A

Auscultation each visit

291
Q

Most common complication from pyelo

Anemia
Gram neg sepsis
ARDS
PTL
Increased creatinine

A

Anemia

292
Q

In term preE, what is the reason for decreased plasma volume?

Increased total peripheral resistance
Increased mean arterial pressure
Decreased colloid oncotic pressure
Capillary leak
Hypertension

A

Increased total peripheral resistance
(vasoconstriction)

293
Q

In a term preeclamptic, what is the least likely?

Elevated BUN
Elevated Creatinine
Decreased GFR
Decreased tubular secretion
Decreased renal plasma flow

A

Decreased tubular secretion

294
Q

Where is prostaglandin dehydrogenase found?

Amnion
Chorion
Fetal pituitary
Cervix

A

Chorion

295
Q

Which is likely to become clinically apparent for the first time in pregnancy?

Sickle cell anemia
Alpha thal
Beta thal
Hemoglobin SC

A

Hgb SC

296
Q

What is the most reliable ultrasound criteria for dating?

HC
BPD
AC
FL

A

HC

297
Q

What is the main function of fetal luteinizing hormone?

Stimulating fetal pituitary growth
Stimulating fetal spinal development
Stimulating fetal genital development
Stimulating placental estrogen synthesis

A

Stimulating fetal genital development

298
Q

What is the most common reason to seek to override a maternal refusal of treatment?

Maternal incompetence
Maternal poor judgement
Risk of harm to fetus
Maternal drug abuse

A

Maternal incompetence

299
Q

Which of the following karyotypes obtained on CVS is most likely d/t uniparental disomy?

45 Xo
47 XXX
47 XY, +15
47 XX +21

A

47 XY, +15

(6, 7, 11, 14, 15, 20)

300
Q

Calculate the gene frequency if the homozygous state of the gene is 1/6400

1/20
1/40
1/80
1/160

A

p2 + q2 + 2pq = 1
p+q=1

p = allele frequency
2pq = heterozygotes

p2 = 1/6400
p = 1/80

301
Q

Which of these lab values changes in pregnancy?

Protein C
Protein S
APC resistance
PTT

A

Protein S

302
Q

Which test is not suggestive of APLAS?

Prolonged PT
Positive dRVVT
Kaolin clotting time
Abnormal aPTT

A

Prolonged PT

303
Q

Which blood product is best for replacement of factors IX and X?

Whole blood
Cryo
Platelets
FFP

A

FFP

304
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of RLL pneumonia in pregnancy?

H. flu
M. pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae
Varicella

A

S. pneumoniae

305
Q

Which is not associated with Meckel-Gruber?

Polyhydramnios
Encephalocele
Cystic dysplasia of kidneys
Polydactyly

A

Polyhydramnios

306
Q

A patient is sent at 22 weeks with absent radii bilaterally, hydronephrosis and severe IUGR. Most likely dx?

TAR
Carbamazepine exposure
VACTERL
Holt-Oram

A

VACTERL

(V) = (costo-) vertebral abnormalities. (A) = anal atresia. (C) = cardiac (heart) defects. (TE) = tracheal-esophageal abnormalities, including atresia, stenosis and fistula. (R) = renal anomalies. (L) = limb defects