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practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Side effects of azathrioprine

A
  • pancreatitis
  • GI upset
  • hepatotoxicity
  • BM suppression

NOT nephrotoxic (“aza not AZO”)

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2
Q

Screening test for HAC sometimes useful for differentiation

A

LDDS

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3
Q

What is the most common agent of canine pyoderma?

A

Staph pseud

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4
Q

Why are dogs more prone to pyoderma than other species?

A

Their follicles lack ostial plugs, allowing bacteria to gain entry easier

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5
Q

C1-C5 effects

A

UMN x4
(Increased tone and reflexes)

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6
Q

C6 - T2 effects

A

LMN forelimbs (decreased reflexes and tone)
UMN hindlimbs (increased reflexes and tone)

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7
Q

T3 - L3 effects

A

Normal forelimbs
UMN hindlimbs (increased reflexes and tone)

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8
Q

L4 - CD effects

A

Normal forelimbs
LMN hindlimbs (decreased reflexes and tone)

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9
Q

Principles of articular fracture repair

A

1) rigid fixation
2) anatomic realignment (100%)
3) early return to function – rest would promote fibrosis of the joint

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10
Q

Organ of toxicity of azoles? (Ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole)

A

Hepatic

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11
Q

Thyroid testing

A

Dogs - free T4
Cats - T4

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12
Q

“gull-shaped” gram negative rod causing mucous diarrhea

A

Campylobacter

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13
Q

internal inguinal ring borders

A
  • internal abdominal oblique
  • rectus abdominis
  • inguinal ligament
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14
Q

what toxins are activated charcoal helpful for?

A

idk

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15
Q

normal # of teats on different species

A

pig - 14
dog - 10
cat - 8
cow - 4
sheep - 2
goat - 2
horse - 2

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16
Q

possible symptoms of OPP in sheep

A
  • respiratory distress with meaty non-collapsing lungs on post
  • neuro signs
  • hard bag / mastitis
  • weight loss/muscle wasting, mild fever
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17
Q

dx and management of OPP in sheep

A
  • agar gel immunodiffusion or ELISA
  • no vaccine or treatment
  • test and cull positives yearly in affected herds
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18
Q

what does PLR evaluate? (6)

A
  • ability of light to get to retina (ie. no complete cataract)
  • retina
  • optic nerve (CN II)
  • ciliary ganglia (CN III)
  • ciliary nerve
  • pupillary constrictor muscle
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19
Q

Info on Histophilus somni = TEME (thromboembolic meningoencephalitis) in cattle

A
  • shipping disease - young, stressed cattle
  • usually starts as resp, than can go anywhere (neuro, GI, ocular)
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20
Q

a lesion in what part of the brain causes pacing? (pacing as in walking around a lot)

A

forebrain (prosencephalon)

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21
Q

cattle post finds lungs fail to collapse, and have interstitial emphysema and a rubbery consistency. what disease is this and how do you manage it?

A

Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus; isolate and vaccinate calves; treat individuals with abx and NSAIDs

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22
Q

what are “splints” in horses?

A

periostitis of the interosseous ligament between the third and second metacarpal (or metatarsal) bones

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23
Q

what virus family is canine distemper?

A

paramyxoviridae

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24
Q

what are the trio of systems affected by canine distemper virus?

A

neuro, respiratory, GI

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25
Q

what virus family is rabies?

A

Rhabdoviridae

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26
Q

salmon poisoning agents & treatments in dogs?

A
  1. Fluke - nanophyetus salmincola, treat with praziquantel
  2. Bacteria - Neorickettsia helminthoeca, causes clinical signs associated with salmon poisoning, treat with a tetracycline
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27
Q

predisposing factors of choke in horses? (4, one is diet-related)

A
  • poor mastication
  • rapid eating
  • esophageal stricture
  • grass clippings, dry beet pulp, pellets, and hay cubes
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28
Q

what pig disease disrupts the pulmonary mucociliary apparatus?

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

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29
Q

how long can a dog normally be in labor before giving birth to the first puppy?

A

6 - 36 hours

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30
Q

what is an acceptable birthing interval between puppies?

A

30 mins - 4 hours

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31
Q

what does sheets of epithelial cells from a LN aspirate indicate?

A

metastasis

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32
Q

Sympathetic innervation of bladder

A

Hypogastric nerve – fills bladder, prevents emptying

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33
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder

A

Pelvic nerve – empties bladder

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34
Q

Bacteria suffix -ella

A

Gram negative bacilli

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35
Q

Gram positive bacilli (MACDONALDS)

A

Mycobacterium
Anthrax
Clostridium
Diphtherial corynebacteria
NOcardia
Actinomyces
Listeria
Diphtheroids

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36
Q

What parasite microfilariae can be found in blood, and looks like heartworm but is not pathogenic?

A

Acanthocheilonema reconditum

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37
Q

List the Salter-Harris fracture classifications

A

Type I - physis
Type II - physis + metaphysis
Type III - physis + epiphysis
Type IV - physis + metaphysis + epiphysis
Type V - physis compression

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38
Q

What is ocular pannus?

A

chronic superficial keratitis, predisposed in GSDs, related to UV exposure

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39
Q

What is the other name and causative agent of Red Water Disease in cattle?

A
  • bacillary hemoglobinuria
  • clostridium haemolyticum
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40
Q

What does a “blackberry jam” spleen suggest on necropsy?

A

Anthrax

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41
Q

Food animals with star-gazing, blindness, and aimless wandering…

A

polioencephalomalacia

42
Q

Food animals with polioencephalomalacia signs (star-gazing, blindness) PLUS absent PLRs

A

Vitamin A deficiency
(PLR is lost due to retinal degeneration without vitamin A)

43
Q

Food animals (esp pigs) with star-gazing, blindness, seizures, ataxia, and head pressing

A

Salt poisoning

44
Q

signs of listeriosis

A

vestibular signs + one or more CN affected

45
Q

3 main causes of flea treatment failure

A
  1. incorrect application (ie. on hair, not skin)
  2. not treating the environment
  3. not treating other pets in the house
46
Q

In a horse, history of recent trauma (ie. rearing over backwards) and epistaxis suggests what?

A

ruptured longus capitis

47
Q

what kitten disease is associated with severe chemosis?

A

Chlamydophila felis

48
Q

treatment of calf diphtheria (necrotizing laryngitis)?

A

IV tetracycline –> SQ tetracycline, plus NSAIDs

49
Q

What disease process in young cats is suggested by necropsy with 1) fibrosis associated with portal triads, 2) bile duct proliferation, and 3) centrilobular accumulation of bile with casts in canalicular areas?

A

Acute cholangiohepatitis

50
Q

History and causative agent for acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema (ABPEE) = Fog Fever

A

Cattle recently switched to lush grass with soft cough. Related to 3-methylindole

51
Q

What lesions are seen on necropsy from a pic with Ascaris suum?

A

milk spots on the liver

52
Q

Cause and presentation of Equine Motor Neuron Disease

A

Low Vitamin E (often dry lot housing); trembling, muscle atrophy, recumbency

53
Q

Explain polioencephalomalacia

A

Thiamine deficiency (usually functional from grain overload) causes necrosis of cerebral grey matter, leading to neuro signs (cortical blindness, opisthotonia, hypertonia, hyperreflexia, tetraplegia)

54
Q

what parasite of cats is zoonotic and causes visceral larval migrans?

A

toxocara cati

55
Q

what causes white muscle disease?

A

low selenium AND low vitamin E

56
Q

most common cause of bacterial keratitis in the horse?

A

pseudomonas

57
Q

excess molybdenum intake causes what, and is treated how? (cows)

A
  • secondary copper deficiency
  • increase dietary copper or inject Copper glycinate
58
Q

mare estrus length

A

2-10 days (average 6 days)
“you lose a mare for a week”

59
Q

What are the types and causes of photosensitization in cows?

A
  1. primary photosensitization - from Hypericum (st johns wort), buckwheat, or ryegrass
  2. hepatogenous photosensitization - phylloerythrin accumulation in the skin due to any cause of liver failure
60
Q

swelling of the supraorbital fossa in horses is characteristic of what exotic disease?

A

African horse sickness

61
Q

who gets silicate uroliths?

A

western U.S. range cattle grazing mature pasture

62
Q

who gets calcium carbonate uroliths?

A

sheep grazing pastures high in calcium and oxalate

63
Q

How is Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae in pigs treated/managed?

A

vaccination

64
Q

what is the best way to rehab a down cow?

A

float tank

65
Q

what is bog spavin? (horse)

A

idiopathic and inconsequential swelling of the tibiotarsal joints

66
Q

epizootic bovine abortion (EBA) = foothill abortion

signs & prevention

A
  • causes 3rd-trimester abortions where fetuses have lymphoid tissue lesions
  • prevention involves exposing heifers to endemic areas before breeding age
67
Q

what is the single most important factor in maintaining healthy calves?

A

ensuring adequate colostrum intake

68
Q

what medicine is used to treat frothy bloat in cows?

A

Oral Poloxalene

69
Q

what bacteria are acid-fast?

A

mycobacteria & nocardia
(remember Ajax <3)

70
Q

What is the diagnostic lesion for rabies, seen in 50% of cases?

A

Negri bodies

71
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Maple syrup urine disease in cattle?

A

Branched-chain ketoacid decarboxylase

72
Q

What sign is commonly seen with guttural pouch mycosis?

A

epistaxis

73
Q

Tell me about equine sarcoids

A

thought to be papilloma-virus related, these gross tumors do not regress. metastasis is virtually impossible, but a 50% recurrence rate is seen after surgery, so they are often benignly neglected

74
Q

what broad classification of bacteria are usually in cat abscesses?

A

anaerobes

75
Q

which antibiotics are safer to use in small mammals? (GPs, rodents)

A
  • baytril
  • chloramphenicol
  • TMS
76
Q

what endocrine disease predisposes to SARDS?

A

cushings

77
Q

what agent often causes guttural pouch mycosis?

A

aspergillus

78
Q

at what point in a cat’s pregnancy can you see fetal skeletons on rads?

A

36-45 days

79
Q

why do an auriculopalpebral block in a horse with a corneal ulcer?

A

it disrupts motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi, so the horse does not blink and cause additional pain during examination

80
Q

what is familial dermatomyositis? (Breeds, signs, treatment)

A

a familial disease causing sensitive but non-pruritic facial lesions. seen in collies and shelties. no concrete treatment - spontaneous regression and return often seen

81
Q

what is the virus responsible for FIP and how is it spread?

A

feline coronavirus
fecal-oral transmission

82
Q

what is the usual causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye)?

A

moraxella bovis

83
Q

what medication can be useful in restoring digital blood flow to horses with laminitis?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

84
Q

what is the best treatment for aortic stenosis?

A

beta blockers

85
Q

what genus of nematodes is eyeworms?

A

thelazia

86
Q

what is used to treat toxoplasma in cats?

A

clindamycin

87
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Actinobacillus Lignieresii?

A

IV sodium iodide

88
Q

What kind of penicillin should never been given IV in horses?

A

Procaine penicillin! It’s the procaine that causes the issue. At NBC this is PenG

89
Q

what parameters of ascites are suggestive of septic abdomen? (re: glucose, lactate, cells)

A

lower glucose than BG
higher lactate than BG
neutrophils (+/- bacteria)

90
Q

what organism most often causes bacterial keratitis in the horse?

A

pseudomonas

91
Q

what is HYPP in horses and how to treat?

A
  • hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
  • causes stiffness, difficulty walking, and prolapse of the third eyelid, followed by recumbency
  • treat by shifting K+ back into cells (non-K+ fluids plus 5% dextrose)
92
Q

signs of copper deficiency in a cow

A

achromotrichia (loss of hair pigment due to Tyrosinase dysfunction), diarrhea, poor body condition, lameness, anemia, and infertility

93
Q

what type of urolith occurs in cattle eating large amounts of grain?

A

struvite

94
Q

what does bracken fern cause in cattle?

A

Chronic intermittent hematuria AND BM suppression after chronic ingestion

95
Q

match the ringworm species to their common source point for infection

  • Microsporum gypseum = ?
  • Microsporum canis = ?
  • Trichophyton mentagrophytes = ?
A
  • Microsporum gypseum = soil
  • Microsporum canis = cats
  • Trichophyton mentagrophytes = rodents
96
Q

what is the most common cause of urate urolithiasis in small dogs?

A

portosystemic shunts

97
Q

what disease can occur in cattle due to sheep being housed nearby?

A

malignant catarrhal fever

98
Q

what agent causes Johne’s disease and at what age is it usually diagnosed in cattle?

A

Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis; 2-5 years of age

99
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for hemorrhage secondary to guttural pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of involved arteries under GA

100
Q

what is the treatment for ferret insulinoma?

A

prednisone and diazoxide

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