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more practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Ich (“white spot disease”) in fish –
1. full name of agent
2. type of agent
3. treatment
4. what environmental factor needs to be correlated with treatment frequency?

A
  1. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis
  2. large, rolling ciliates
  3. formalin
  4. higher temps => more frequent treatments necessary
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2
Q

What are the viruses of sheep and pigs that mirror BVDV in cows?

A

sheep - border virus
pigs - classical swine fever

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3
Q

what fundic changes are seen in cats with taurine deficiency?

A

feline central retinal degeneration; elliptical area(s) of tapetal hyperreflectivity centrally

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4
Q

what block is specific and provides full relief for laminitis?

A

abaxial sesamoid

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5
Q

what are the 4 main leg blocks used for horses, in ascending order?

A
  • palmar digital
  • abaxial sesamoid
  • low 4 point
  • high 4 point
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6
Q

what cat breeds tend to be blood Type B (rather than Type A like most cats)?

A

the extra fancy ones = british shorthair, devon & cornish rex, Ragdolls, Scottish Folds, Persians, and Himalayans

(NOT tonkingese, siamese, oriental shorthairs)

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7
Q

what is the protocol for an unvaccinated dog bitten by a suspected rabid animal?

A

1) euth and test
OR
2) vaccinate immediately and quarantine for 4 months

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8
Q

what animals get urate uroliths?

A

dalmations & PSS/liver disease patients

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9
Q

what is the classic population presentation for equine herpesvirus?

A

URI foals with copious nasal discharge; followed by an abortion storm of late-term pregnancies several months later

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10
Q

what kinds of drugs cannot be administered into the caudal half of reptiles and why?

A

nephrotoxic drugs (ie. aminoglycosides like gentamicin) because they have a renal-portal system and blood from the caudal half first goes to the kidneys

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11
Q

what clinical sign(s) does fusobacterium necophorum cause in each of the following species:
cow
pig
ruminant

A

cow - metritis, hepatic abscess, necrotic laryngitis
pig - necrotic rhinitis (young pigs) or foot rot
ruminant - foot rot or gastroenteritis

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12
Q

what is candidiasis and a common etiologic factor for it?

A
  • yeast infection with normal flora
  • overgrowth occurs due to long-term systemic antibiotic therapy altering the natural microbiome
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13
Q

what is necrotic laryngitis (cows) and how to treat it?

A

= calf diphtheria
caused by Histophilus somni –> fusobacterium necrophorum
treat aggressively with abx (ie. tetracycline IV then subq) and NSAIDs

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14
Q

What does papple shape in cows indicate?

A

vagal indigestion, ie. failure of omasal transport

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15
Q

what is the purpose of feeding a DCAD (dietary cation-anion difference) diet to cows?

A

prevent milk fever by enhancing parathyroid function which allows increased Ca absorption

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16
Q

what are the ferret “big three”?

A
  • insulinoma
  • adrenal gland tumor
  • lymphoma
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17
Q

what does fescue toxicosis (Neotyphodium coenophialum ingestion) cause in pregnant mares?

A

prolonged gestation and agalactia

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18
Q

What agent can cause severe abdominal pain and fever in humans after eating pork?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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19
Q

what is the incubation period for Clostridium tetani?

A

~2 weeks

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20
Q

what is Tyzzer’s disease and who does it affect?

A

Clostridium piliformis infection, which causes an acute necrotizing hepatitis in neonatal foals

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21
Q

what are the signs of fowl/avian pox and how is it spread?

A

wart-like nodules and scabs on the comb, waddles, feet, and vent. spread by mosquitoes

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22
Q

what can cause hypothyroidism in foals?

A

inappropriate dietary iodine by mare or foal

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23
Q

list some symptoms of traumatic reticuloperitonitis in cattle

A
  • muffled heart sounds or heart murmur
  • fever
  • stiff, arched gait
  • distended jugular veins
  • positive grunt test (pain when pressing on xiphoid)
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24
Q

What are the signs of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis?

A
  • white plaques on conjunctiva & nasal epithelium
  • hacking cough
  • fever
  • abortions
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25
Q

What predisposes for right dorsal colitis in horses?

A

NSAID admin

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26
Q

Describe grass tetany (who, why, what)

A
  • lactating ewes/cows/goats on lush pasture
  • hypomagnesemia (and often concurrent hypocalcemia)
  • weakness, hyporexia, collapse, convulsions, tetany, death
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27
Q

What parasite makes young puppies cough?

A

toxocara canis

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28
Q

what management strategy is employed for reducing caseous lymphadenitis in sheep herds?

A

vaccination

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29
Q

how do you treat heartworm in cats?

A

prednisolone and heartgard!
adulticidals can be fatal to cats

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30
Q

how long do you treat deep pyoderma in a dog?

A

1-3 weeks past clinical resolution of signs (usually 6-8 weeks total)

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31
Q

what etiologic agent often causes pulmonary abscesses to form in horses?

A

rhodococcus equi

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32
Q

what does the % in X% mannitol mean?

A

add a 0 to the number and that is the mg/mL concentration
(ie. 25% mannitol = 250 mg/mL mannitol)

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33
Q

what is the PRIMARY agent of infectious footrot in small ruminants? (fusobacterium necrophorum is secondary)

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

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34
Q

what is American Foulbrood in bees?

A

the worst!!! spore-forming bacteria called Paenibacillus; spores can last 70 years!!!

brood turns brown and desiccates, easily diagnosed by match stick test where desiccated brood can be pulled up in a 2 cm rope (stringy).

management is burning all bees and equipment. reportable in some states; always need to alert nearby beekeepers

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35
Q

what is European Foulbrood in bees?

A

Melisococcus pluton, disease of stressed bees, brood turns brown and desiccated, treatment is stress reduction and oxytetracycline (mix with powdered sugar or sugar water) but honey withdrawal time is 6 weeks

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36
Q

what are varroa mites in bees?

A

blood-sucking red mites that live on the dorsum of bees, low level is normal, higher level is a problem – should not be able to see them normally. integrated pest management (check counts, rotate treatment with mite-specific pesticides)

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37
Q

what is colony collapse disorder in bees?

A

all adult bees (workers and drones) disappear, and no dead bodies seen – the queen, brood, and honey are all fine

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38
Q

what causes bacillary hemoglobinuria (redwater) in cattle?

A

liver fluke migration causing damage –> clostridium novyi type D (AKA clostridium hemolyticum) infection

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39
Q

what can cause vulvar and rectal edema (+/- prolapse) in pigs?

A

mycotoxin zearalenone

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40
Q

what is treatment for listeria in ruminants?

A

penicillin

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41
Q

what is chorioptes equi?

A

mange mite usually located at the foot/fetlock, esp in feathered hair

42
Q

what are osselets in horses?

A

inflammation of the periosteum of the front canon bone & fetlock joint, causing a short choppy gait and progressive lameness

43
Q

what pathogen causes SCUD in turtles?

A

citrobacter freundii

44
Q

how is AFRICAN swine fever transmitted?

A

soft ticks or direct contact

45
Q

what does organophosphate exposure cause in bird embryos?

A

skeletal developmental abnormalities and subq emphysema

46
Q

if a cat presents with rapid shallow breathing, quiet lung sounds, and normal heart sounds, where is the disease and what should be done?

A

pleural space (effusion or pneumothorax); thoracocentesis

47
Q

what are signs of chlamydia psittaci (ornithosis) in turkeys?

A

multi-system disease and basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions of infected organs

48
Q

what are signs of HGE and what is the most important component of treatment?

A

vomiting, bloody diarrhea, discordantly HIGH PCV;
aggressive IVF therapy

49
Q

what type of “normal” GI parasite usually causes the most severe illness across various species of various ages, and can even be deadly?

A

whipworms - trichuris spp.

50
Q

what is the most common side effect of KBr?

A

sedation

51
Q

what are the signs seen with acute ileitis in pigs?

A

sudden death of multiple adult pigs; large amounts of red, clotted blood in SI and spiral colon with NO gross mucosal thickening

52
Q

what is the causative agent of acute ileitis in pigs?

A

lawsonia intraccellularis

53
Q

what is administered in the case of sand colic in horses?

A

psyllium

54
Q

why can neuro signs sometimes be seen with colic in horses?

A

intestinal disease –> hyperammonemia –> encephalopathy and neuro signs

55
Q

what is seen with milkweed ingestion?

A

acute death

56
Q

what is seen with bracken fern ingestion in ruminants?

A

BM suppression after a long period

57
Q

what is seen with ragwort ingestion?

A

liver disease after several months

58
Q

what is seen with moldy sweet clover ingestion?

A

vit K antagonism coagulopathy after a long period

59
Q

what volume of fluids should you give to an extremely dehydrated cow/calf?

A

10% of body weight in kg = amount of fluids in liters

60
Q

what pig disease causes stillborns/mummies but NOT abortions?

A

parvovirus

61
Q

what treatment is used for ARVC?

A

sotalol

62
Q

what is seen with Salmonella dublin in cattle?

A

septicemia in calves 4-8 weeks; petchiae; heavy wet red lungs on post

63
Q

what is seen with onchocerca cervicalis in horses?

A

patchy alopecia and scaling around the face and neck +/- ventral midline dermatitis

64
Q

what forelimb injury is commonly seen in cats with high-rise syndrome, and what is the treatment?

A

carpal hyperextension; carpal arthrodesis

65
Q

what does choline deficiency cause in turkeys (ad sometimes chicks)?

A

growth stunting, poor feathering, short/thick bowed legs, chondrodysplasia

66
Q

how often do neonatal rabbits need to nurse?

A

1-2 times per day!!

67
Q

what disease should be suspected in a dog with progressive tetraparesis and a thymoma?

A

myasthenia gravis

68
Q

what is the musculature of the dog, cow, cat, and horse esophagus?

A

dog, cow - 100% striated
cat, horse - cranial 2/3 is striated, caudal 1/3 is smooth

69
Q

what # arch is implicated in PRAA in dogs?

A

the 4th

70
Q

what signs are seen with RMSF?

A

vasculitis –> edema, hyperemia, petechiation, and ecchymoses

71
Q

list the species of salmonella within each serotype (B, C1, C2, D)

A

B - typhiurium
C1 - cholerasuis
C2 - newport
D - dublin, enteritidis

72
Q

what is the prognosis for EPM?

A

most horses (70%) improve with treatment but relatively few (25%) recover fully, and a small subset (10%) improve with treatment but relapse without it

73
Q

what topical treatment options can be used to treat ringworm?

A

lime sulfur dip or miconazole shampoo

74
Q

what is the ear mite of horses?

A

psoroptes

75
Q

what are the signs of hog cholera = classical swine fever?

A

immunosuppression, reproductive failure, GI signs, paresis/paralysis, conjunctivitis, oral ulcers, petechiation. NOT coughing/sneezing

76
Q

what is the classic situation for a fish with ammonia toxicity?

A

new tank; fish is showing neurological behaviors like swimming in circles

77
Q

what is the treatment for a cow with a retained placenta who is systemically doing well?

A

leave her be, in a clean area, and monitor her closely

78
Q

what are the signs of “upward patellar fixation” in horses?

A

pelvic limb locks in rigid extension, and a delay in flexion of the stifle causes dragging of the toe

79
Q

tell me about coccidia

A

= isospora infection
very environmentally resistant and difficult to disinfect BUT species-specific

80
Q

what are the signs of tetanus in a horse?

A

bilaterally prolapsed 3rd eyelids, sawhorse stance, stiff gait, stiff tail, sensitivity to stimuli

81
Q

what vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?

A

vitamin A

82
Q

what are the signs of bordetella avium in turkeys?

A

nasal discharge, “snick” cough, swollen eyelids, “raccoon eye”, exudate, collapsed trachea on necropsy

83
Q

what type of valvular regurgitation do elderly horses get?

A

aortic regurg

84
Q

what can amprolium, bracken fern, and excess grain all cause in ruminants?

A

thiamine deficiency / polioencephalomalacia

85
Q

what zoonotic fungus grows in pigeon feces?

A

cryptococcus

86
Q

what vein(s) normally enter the vena cava between the renal and hepatic veins?

A

the phrenicoabdominal veins

87
Q

why is a positive windsucker test bad for the mare?

A

it heavily predisposes to vaginitis and endometritis

88
Q

what type of pathogen should be suspected when mastitis includes a serum-like secretion with clots and systemic illness of the cow?

A

coliform

89
Q

what genetic condition causes colic in newborn white foals bred from Overo parents?

A

Ileocolonic agangliosis

90
Q

what anesthetic drug is contraindicated in epileptic dogs?

A

ketamine

91
Q

what is the method of choice for diagnosing rabies?

A

direct fluorescent antibody test

92
Q

what is strep equi ssp equi?

A

the agent of strangles in horses

93
Q

what is strep equi ssp zooepidemicus?

A

a normal inhabitant of the equine upper respiratory tract that can cause opportunistic infections in horses and in other species

94
Q

what drug combo can be used in a surgery that requires periods of complete stillness of the animal, including respiratory?

A

a neuromuscular blocking agent (succinylcholine) and an anesthetic (inhalant isoflurane for example)

95
Q

what is the biggest predisposing factor of metritis in cows?

A

dystocia

96
Q

what is the management for an actinobacillus pleuorpneumoniae (APP) outbreak in pigs?

A

immediately treat ALL pigs with an injectable antibiotic (ie. enrofloxacin) bc the toxins produced by APP can cause death within hours

97
Q

what is the treatment for “choke” in horses?

A

sedate the horse and gently pass an NG tube
OR
restrict the horse to an empty stall and monitor until resolution (12-24 hours)

98
Q

what is the treatment for EPM?

A

ponazuril

99
Q

match the plant with its toxic effects (horses):
Fescue -
St john’s wort -
Pyrrolizidine alkaloids -
Red maple -
Cantharidin -

A

Fescue - repro failure
St john’s wort - primary photosensitization
Pyrrolizidine alkaloids - secondary photosensitization
Red maple - heinz body anemia
Cantharidin - colic

100
Q

what happens with GGT in cats with cholangiohepatitis vs hepatic lipidosis?

A

cholangiohepatitis - markedly elevated
hepatic lipidosis - usually normal

My NAVLE cards (5 decks)

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