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My NAVLE cards > ICVA form 2 > Flashcards

ICVA form 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is erythema multiforme? (dogs)

A

acute onset of erythematous skin lesions which may be bulls-eye shaped. most commonly drug-induced, especially by TMS

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2
Q

what is the most common type of IBD in cats?

A

lymphocytic-plasmacytic enterocolitis

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3
Q

what is the best tx for a cow with pyelonephritis?

A

IM PPG

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4
Q

what signs does renal neoplasm cause in birds?

A

coelomic distention, (unilateral) paralysis

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5
Q

who are the susceptible populations and what are the signs of vesicular stomatitis?

A

pretty much all species! including humans.
vesicular lesions / circular erosions can be seen esp at mucous membranes

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6
Q

rotavirus in pigs

A

watery to pasty diarrhea in very young piglets

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7
Q

what does clinical toxoplasmosis look like in a cat?

A

almost any organ can be affected… fever, diarrhea, cough, dyspnea, icterus, seizures, and death

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8
Q

what is the tx for spirocerca lupi?

A

ivermectin

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9
Q

neuro lesions at which localizations would give you contralateral gait abnormalities?

A

cerebrum (diencephalon)
sometimes midbrain
that’s it

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10
Q

what type of organisms usually cause pyothorax in cats?

A

obligate anaerobes

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11
Q

how does polycystic kidney dz present in cats?

A

AKI with enlarged irregular kidneys

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12
Q

what do you feel first when preg checking a mare?

A

the chorionic vesicle

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13
Q

what does sulfadimethoxine treat?

A

coccidia

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14
Q

what is the first-line treatment for feline chin acne?

A

shave the area and apply benzoyl peroxide

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15
Q

what bacteria is the common culprit if RODS are seen on dog ear cytology?

A

pseuomonas aeruginosa

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16
Q

what % of mammary tumors are cancerous in cats? dogs?

A

90% in cats. 50% in dogs

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17
Q

what are you listening to at a horse’s right paralumbar fossa?

A

the cecum

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18
Q

what is the current management strategy for brucellosis in cattle?

A

test and cull

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19
Q

what is seen in piglets with Haemophilus parasuis AND in piglets with Strep suis?

A
  • young piglets
  • pleuritis, pericarditis, peritonitis
  • polyarthritis / lameness
  • fever, lethargy, dyspnea
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20
Q

who is affected by orf disease (contagious ecthyema), what are the signs, and what is the tx?

A
  • goats and sheep
  • crusted proliferative lesions on the lips
  • self-limiting disease; monitor only
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21
Q

what does eimeria cause in young broiler chickens?

A

acute D+, intestinal dilation/inflammation, and bloody GI contents

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22
Q

what gait abnormality is seen in horses with stringhalt?

A

jerky hyperflexion of the hock, most obvious at the walk or when backing. (horse snaps hind leg up toward abdomen involuntarily)

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23
Q

what antibiotics are prohibited for use in food animals?

A
  • chloramphenicol
  • fluoroquinolones (EXCEPT enrofloxacin)
  • DES
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24
Q

how long is the meat withdrawal period for gentamicin in cattle?

A

18 months

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25
Q

is diazepam safe for cats?

A

oral form - no, risk of acute fulminant hepatic necrosis (if want to use, check liver values in 5 days)
IV form - yes

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26
Q

what is habronemiasis in horses?

A

worms infiltrate cutaneous tissue via a small wound or mucous membrane, migrate locally and cause a chronic proliferative granulomatous lesion

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27
Q

where do dogs get Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) infections from?

A

people!

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28
Q

What happens to horses with a large number of Anoplocephala perfoliata worms?

A

ileocecal intussusception

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29
Q

describe the appearance of each yeast
malassezia -
blastomyces -
cryptococcus -
histoplasma -
coccidioides -
aspergillus -

A

malassezia - footprints
blastomyces - broad-based budding
cryptococcus - large clear capsules
histoplasma - small with narrow-based budding
coccidioides - spherules with multiple endospores
aspergillus - branching fungal hyphae

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30
Q

what “toxo” causes visceral larval migrans and ocular larval migrans in people?

A

toxoCARA canis

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31
Q

what do brodifacoum and bromadiolone cause?

A

fatal coagulopathy due to Vit K antagonism (“superwarfarin”)

32
Q

what medication is used to treat myasthenia gravis in dogs?

A

pyridostigmine

33
Q

what can be seen with chlamydophilosis (= psittacosis = parrot fever) in birds?

A

anorexia, nasal discharge, dyspnea, lime green droppings, organomegaly

34
Q

what is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the dog?

A

lymphoma

35
Q

what causes infectious foot rot in sheep and how do you treat it?

A

Dichelobacter nodosus
foot baths with zinc sulfate for entire herd

36
Q

what organism is most likely to cause anal sac infection?

A

e coli

37
Q

what are the cytological factors of malignancy?

A
  • prominent nucleoli
  • increased nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio
  • increased mitotic figures
  • high cellularity (depending on type)
  • cellular enlargement / anisocytosis
  • anisokaryocytosis
38
Q

why are cardiac and masseter muscles routinely inspected in slaughtered cattle?

A

to look for Taenia saginata infection (bovine cysticercosis)

39
Q

at what gestation day can mineralized skeletons be seen radiographically in dogs?

A

day 42-45

40
Q

what is the holding layer of the small intestine?

A

submucosa

41
Q

what cestode causes hydatid cysts in people if eggs are eaten?

A

echinococcus granulosus

42
Q

what is seen with UMN vs LMN bladder?

A

UMN is distended and difficult to express; LMN is distended and easy to express

43
Q

what can cause an LMN bladder

A

Damage to the sacral spinal cord, pelvic nerve, and detrusor atony

44
Q

what can cause an UMN bladder

A

Damage to the thoracolumbar spinal cord or disease of the cerebrum, cerebellum, or brain stem

45
Q

what type of classification are horse and cat estrous cycles?

A

seasonally polyestrous

46
Q

what antibiotic is often used in dairy cattle because there is NO milk withdrawal time?

A

ceftiofur

47
Q

what signs are seen in a horse with navicular syndrome?

A

chronic bilateral forelimb lameness that worsens when circling toward the direction of the leg in question; mild reaction to hoof testers across the heels

48
Q

what pattern of wear is usually seen in horse teeth?

A

sharper at the buccal surface of the upper teeth and lingual surface of the bottom teeth

49
Q

what is the treatment for cows that have ingested organophosphate?

A

atropine

50
Q

how long is the horse estrous cycle

A

21-22 days

51
Q

what is the biggest predisposing factor for ATE in cats?

A

HCM

52
Q

what pathogens are most associated with contagious mastitis and spread cow to cow by milking?

A

Strep agalactiae, Staph aureus, Mycoplasma

53
Q

what does amprolium treat?

A

coccidia

54
Q

what dewormers are currently used to treat H contortus?

A

ivermectin and levamisole

55
Q

what medication is used to treat scaly leg mites in birds?

A

ivermectin

56
Q

What % of cattle with BLV develop lymphoma?

A

0-5%

57
Q

what growth plate is mostly likely to be affected, causing which type of angular limb deformity, when a growing puppy fractures its radius + ulna?

A

distal ulnar; carpal valgus

58
Q

what is the treatment for Psoroptes cuniculi (rabbit ear mites)?

A

ivermectin or selamectin

59
Q

when is purpura hemorrhagica seen and what are the signs?

A

after infection with or vaccination for strangles
vasculitis –> distal limb edema, petechiae

60
Q

what dewormer can you NOT give to chelonians and crocodilians?

A

ivermectin

61
Q

what breeding strategy helps reduce calf dystocias?

A

breed heifers to bulls with lower expected progeny differences (EPD) for birth weight

62
Q

what condition in cats causes increased resonance on percussion of the chest?

A

pneumothorax

63
Q

what is the most common clinical sign in horses with guttural pouch mycosis?

A

epistaxis

64
Q

where does the suspensory ligament insert in horses?

A

the sesamoid bones behind the fetlock

65
Q

what e-lyte derangements / acid-base disturbance are seen in the rupture of a foal’s urinary bladder?

A

hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia, acidosis

because the kidneys save sodium and pass potassium, so urine is high in K+ and low in Na+/Cl-
when bladder rupture occurs that fluid equilibrates with the serum

66
Q

what clinical sign in horses do these 4 conditions have in common: vasculitis, liver disease, heart failure, kidney disease?

A

ventral edema

67
Q

what is seen with clostridium perfringens type C in pigs?

A

distention of the jejunum with bloody contents and hemorrhagic wall

68
Q

what paraneoplastic condition is associated with mastocytosis in the dog?

A

gastric hyperacidity

69
Q

what enema should not be used in cats due to risk of e-lyte imbalance?

A

NaPO3 (sodium phosphate)

70
Q

what organism is the most common agent of SQ abscesses in cats?

A

Pasteurella multocida

71
Q

when in doubt for horse antibiotic treatment, what is your answer

A

penicillin

72
Q

what is the best chemical for sterilizing surgical instruments?

A

ethylene oxide

73
Q

what type of stabilization is used for fractures of the femur or humerus, for immobilization until surgery?

A

spica splint

74
Q

why are cats with Type B blood harder to transfuse?

A

they are a small minority and they have naturally occurring anti-A antibodies so will have a reaction if given type A blood

75
Q

what is dermatophilosis?

A

rain rot

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