Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Patho Exam 1 > Practice Q's > Flashcards

Practice Q's Flashcards

1
Q

A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student?

a. a single circular chromosome
b. a nucleus
c. free-floating nuclear material
d. no organelles

A

b. a nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?

a. metabolic absorption
b. communication
c. secretion
d. respiration

A

d. respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained?

a. mitochondria
b. ribosome
c. nucleolus
d. nucleus cytoplasm

A

c. nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the layer itself.

a. peripheral membrane proteins
b. integral membrane proteins
c. glycoproteins
d. cell adhesion molecules

A

b. integral membrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?

a. oxygen
b. ribosomes
c. amphipathic lipids
d. ligands

A

d. ligands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?

a. decreased fibronectin
b. increased collagen
c. decreased elastin
d. increased glycoproteins

A

a. decreased fibronectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact?

a. cell junction
b. gap junction
c. desmosome
d. tight junction

A

a. cell junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?

a. paracrine
b. autocrine
c. neurohormonal
d. hormonal

A

a. paracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:

a. solute
b. substrate
c. receptor
d. ribosome

A

b. substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that the problem is a result of a deficiency of:

a. GTP
b. AMP
c. ATP
d. GMP

A

c. ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?

a. digestion
b. glycolysis
c. oxidation
d. citric acid cycle

A

d. citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the nurse include?

a. digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion

A

a. digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continue muscle performance?

a. electron-transport chain
b. aerobic glycolysis
c. anaerobic glycolysis
d. oxidative phosphorylation

A

c. aerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching?

a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. hydrostatic pressure
d. ative transport

A

b. diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which description accurately describes electrolytes?

a. small lipid-soluble molecules
b. large protein molecules
c. micronutrients used to produce ATP
d. electrically charged molecules

A

d. electrically charged molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:

a. the concentration of sodium
b. plasma proteins
c. hydrostatic pressure
d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins

A

b. plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:

a. osmolality
b. osmolarity
c. osmotic pressure
d. oncotic pressure

A

a. osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing?

a. hydrostatic pressure
b. osmosis
c. diffusion
d. active transport

A

a. hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?

a. by passive electrolyte channels
b. by coupled channels
c. by adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
d. by diffusion

A

c. by adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPhase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport?

a. biport
b. uniport
c. antiport
d. symport

A

d. symport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion?

a. endocytosis
b. pinocytosis
c. phagocytosis
d. exocytosis

A

c. phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell cycle phase called?

a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2

A

c. M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?

a. potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive
b. sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive
c. sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative
d. potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative

A

b. sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is -70mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?

a. K+ rushing into the cell
b. Na+ rushing into the cell
c. Na+ rushing out of the cell
c. K+ rushing out of the cell

A

a. K+ rushing into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:

a. platelets
b. epidermal cells
c. connective tissue cells
d. fibroblast cells

A

c. connective tissue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as:

a. anaphase
b. telophase
c. prophase
d. metaphase

A

a. anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?

a. provide growth factor for tissue growth and development
b. block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle
c. restrain cell growth and development
d. provide nutrients for cell growth and development

A

a. provide growth factor for tissue growth and development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are call _____ columnar epithelium.

a. simple
b. ciliated simple
c. stratified
d. pseudo stratified ciliated

A

b. ciliated simple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying a chief function of the nerve cell as:

a. sensory interpretation
b. conductivity
c. maintenance of homeostasis
d. communication

A

b. conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A nurse recalls that the basic types of tissues are? (SATA)

a. nerve
b. epithelial
c. mucosal
d. connective
e. skeletal
f. muscle

A

a. nerve
b. epithelial
d. connective
f. muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (SATA)

a. they contain no organelles
b. their nuclear material is not erased by a nuclear membrane
c. they contain a distinct nucleus
d. they contain no histones
e. they contain a cellular membrane

A

a. they contain no organelles
b. their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell:

a. number
b. size
c. vacuoles
d. lipofuscin

A

b. size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as what type of atrophy?

a. physiologic
b. pathologic
c. disuse
d. neurogenic

A

a. physiologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will experience hypertrophy which is an:

a. increase in size
b. decrease in length
c. increase in excitability
d. decrease in number

A

a. increase in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A 55yo male with a 30yr history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaption is called:

a. anaplasia
b. hyperplasia
c. metaplasia
d. dysplasia

A

c. metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When planning care for the pregnant patient, the nurse will recall that the mammary glands enlarge as a consequence of:

a. compensatory hyperplasia
b. hormonal hyperplasia
c. hormonal anaplasia
d. compensatory anaplasia

A

b. hormonal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A 24yo female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as:

a. dysplasia
b. pathologic dysplasia
c. hyperplasia
d. pathologic hyperplasia

A

d. pathologic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A 55yo male is diagnosed with hepatocellular cancer secondary to hepatitis C. If the cancerous region of the liver is removed, the remaining cells would undergo:

a. pathologic hyperplasia
b. pathologic metaplasia
c. compensatory hyperplasia
d. compensatory aplasia

A

c. compensatory hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A 40yo female’s Pap smear indicates abnormal changes in the shape and organization of cervical cells. Which term would be used to identify this type of change?

a. metaplasia
b. atrophy
c. hypertrophy
d. dysplasia

A

d. dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A 75yo male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:

a. malnutrition
b. free radicals
c. ischemia
d. chemical toxicity

A

c. ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cel injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

a. adaptation
b. calcification
c. apoptosis
d. necrosis

A

d. necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of:

a. decreased ATP production
b. karyorrhexis
c. ribosome detachment
d. dehydration

A

a. decreased ATP production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The early dilation (swelling) of the cell’s endoplasmic reticulum results in:

a. increased aerobic metabolism
b. failure of DNA
c. reduced protein synthesis
d. increased Na+-K+ pump function

A

c. reduced protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A 52yo male suffered a MI secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once blood flow is returned to the damaged heart, repercussion injury occurs as a result of:

a. oxidation stress
b. vacuolation
c. decreased intracellular calcium
d. lipid acceptor proteins

A

a. oxidation stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A family presents to their PCP reporting headache, nausea, weakness, tinnitus, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

a. lead exposure
b. carbon monoxide poisoning
c. ethanol exposure
d. mercury poisoning

A

b. carbon monoxide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A common pathway of irreversible cell injury involves increased intracellular:

a. sodium
b. potassium
c. magnesium
d. calcium

A

d. calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A 50yo male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a MVA. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for?

a. subdural hematoma
b. epidural hematoma
c. contusion
d. abrasion

A

a. subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A 20yo male presents to the ED with a jagged sharp-force injury that is longer than it is deep. Which type of would will the nurse be caring for?

a. stab wound
b. incised wound
c. puncture wound
d. chopping wound

A

b. incised wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A 30yo female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n):

a. exit
b. intermediate range entrance
c. contact range entrance
d. indeterminate range entrance

A

c. contact range entrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A 15yo female presents to the ER following a physical assault. She has internal damage to the neck with deep bruising. X-ray reveals fractures of the hyoid bone and tracheal and cricoid cartilage. Which of the following most likely caused her injuries?

a. chemical asphyxiation
b. choking asphyxiation
c. ligature strangulation
d. manual strangulation

A

d. manual strangulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A 55yo male has swelling of the feet. Which of the following aided in the development of swelling?

a. increased ATP
b. chloride movement out of the cell
c. Na+ movement into the cell
d. decreased oncotic pressure

A

c. Na+ movement into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A 35yo female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Biopsy of the tumor reveals Russell bodies, and lab testing reveals kidney dysfunction. Which substance should the nurse monitor as it is accumulating in the patient’s body?

a. glycogen
b. protein
c. pigment
d. melanin

A

b. protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will supposed this diagnosis?

a. increased melanin
b. increased hemoproteins
c. inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA
d. inability to convert bile to bilirubin

A

c. inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A 23yo male develops a black eye following a fight. When the aide asks the nurse why this occurred, the nurse’s best response is that the bruising is due to an accumulation of:

a. transferring
b. bilirubin
c. albumin
d. hemosiderin

A

d. hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because:

a. debris is not digested by hydrolyses
b. of protein denaturation
c. it is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids
d. ischemia results in chemical injury

A

c. it is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A 2yo swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause?

a. karyorrhexis
b. coagulative necrosis
c. ammonia accumulation
d. caseous necrosis

A

b. coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause

a. coagulative necrosis
b. liquefactive necrosis
c. caseous necrosis
d. auto necrosis

A

c. caseous necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A 50yo female became infected with clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her RBCs revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death?

a. fat necrosis
b. wet gangrene
c. gangrenous necrosis
d. gas gangrene

A

d. gas gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

While reading a textbook, a student reads the term apoptosis. The student recalls that apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to:

a. atrophy
b. die
c. regenerate
d. age

A

b. die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A 50yo male IV drug user is diagnosed with hepatitis C. Examination of the liver reveals cell death secondary to:

a. fat necrosis
b. physiologic apoptosis
c. infection-induced apoptosis
d. pyknosis

A

c. infection-induced apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What principle should the nurse remember when trying to distinguish aging from diseases?

a. it is difficult to tell the difference because both processes are believed to result from cell injury
b. it is easy to tell normal processes from abnormal processes
c. disease, unlike aging, has a genetic component
d. aging is defined as exceeding life expectancy, bot not maximal life span

A

a. it is difficult to tell the difference because both processes are believed to result from cell injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6-14hrs after death, the nurse should document this finding as the presence of:

a. livor mortis
b. gangrene
c. algor mortis
d. rigor mortis

A

d. rigor mortis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When a nurse is checking a urinalysis, the finding that would alert the nurse to cellular injury is the presence of:

a. slight glucose
b. excessive protein
c. blood
d. urea

A

b. excessive protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An 86yo female patient has the wasting syndrome of aging, making her vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disease, and death. The nurse knows the patient is experiencing:

a. frailty
b. sarcopenia
c. somatic death
d. cellular aging

A

a. frailty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Confirmation of somatic death is based on:

a. presence of also mortis
b. presence of livor mortis
c. complete cessation of respiration and circulation
d. change in skin color to pale yellow

A

c. complete cessation of respiration and circulation

66
Q

A patient has been reading on the internet that light to moderate intake of alcohol is cardio protective. When the patient asks the nurse what this means, the nurse should response that the heart is protected by which of the following mechanisms? (SATA)

a. increased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol
b. prevention of clot formation
c. reduction in platelet aggregation
d. decrease in blood pressure
e. increased collateral circulation
f. decreased folate absorption

A

a. increased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol
b. prevention of clot formation
c. reduction in platelet aggregation
d. decrease in blood pressure

67
Q

After ingestion of lead, what organ systems should the nurse monitor because they are the most sensitive to the effects of lead?

a. heart
b. lungs
c. liver
d. kidneys
e. brain
f. hematopoietic

A

d. kidneys
e. brain
f. hematopoietic

68
Q

A public health nurse is teaching the community about health promotion. Which information should the nurse include for innate immunity? Innate immunity is gained:

a. following an illness
b. at birth
c. via injection of specific antibodies
d. in adulthood

A

a. at birth

69
Q

Which statement indicates teaching was successful regarding collectins? Collectins are produced by the:

a. kidneys
b. bowel
c. lungs
d. integument

A

c. lungs

70
Q

A 20yo male received a knife wound to the arm during an altercation. Which of the following types of immunity was compromised?

a. innate immunity
b. inflammatory response
c. adaptive immunity
d. specific immunity

A

a. innate immunity

71
Q

Biochemical secretions that trap and kill microorganisms include:

a. hormones
b. neurotransmitters
c. earwax
d. gastric acid

A

c. earywax

72
Q

A 25yo female presents to her primary care provider reporting vaginal discharge of a white, viscous, and foul-smelling substance. She reports that she has been taking antibiotics for the past 6mo. Which finding will the nurse most likely see on the microorganism report?

a. C diff overgrowth
b. decreased lactobacillus
c. strep overgrowth
d. decreased caddie albicans

A

b. decreased lactobacillus

73
Q

When an aid asks the nurse about the purpose of the inflammatory process, how should the nurse respond?

a. to provide specific responses toward antigens
b. to lyse cell membranes of microorganisms
c. to prevent infection of the injured tissue
d. to create immunity against subsequent tissue injury

A

c. to prevent infection of the injured tissue

74
Q

A child fell off a swing and scraped his right knee. The injured area becomes painful. What else will the nurse observe upon assessment?

a. vasoconstriction at injured site
b. decreased RBC concentration at injured site
c. pale skin at injured site
d. edema at injured site

A

d. edema at injured site

75
Q

A nurse recalls the mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through the process of:

a. chemotaxis
b. endocytosis
c. degranulation
d. opsonization

A

c. degranulation

76
Q

Which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for an opportunistic infection?

a. 18yo with diabetes
b. 70yo with CHF
c. 24yo who is immunocompromised
d. 30yo with pneumonia

A

c. 24yo who is immunocompromised

77
Q

The directional migration of leukocytes along a chemical gradient is termed:

a. chemotaxis
b. endocytosis
c. margination
d. diapedesis

A

a. chemotaxis

78
Q

A 20yo male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

a. eosinophils
b. neutrophils
c. leukotrienes
d. monocytes

A

b. neutrophils

79
Q

The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:

a. eosinophil
b. neutrophil
c. lymphocyte
b. macrophage

A

b. neutrophil

80
Q

A 25yo female experiences a headache and takes aspirin for relief. A nurse recalls aspirin relieves the headache by:

a. decreasing leukotriene production
b. increasing histamine release
c. decreasing prostaglandin production
d. increasing platelet-activating factor

A

c. decreasing prostaglandin production

81
Q

Which factor will help the nurse differentiate leukotrienes from histamine?

a. site of production
b. vascular effect
c. chemotactic ability
d. time of release

A

d. time of release

82
Q

A 25yo male is in a car accident and sustains a fracture to his left femur with extensive soft tissue injury. The pain associated with the injury is related to:

a. histamine
b. prostaglandins
c. vasoconstriction
d. immune complex formation

A

b. prostaglandins

83
Q

The complement, clotting, and kinin systems share which of the following characteristics?

a. activation of a series of proenzymes
b. phagocytosis initiation
c. granulocyte production
d. activated by interferon

A

a. activation of a series of proenzymes

84
Q

Which statement indicates teaching was successful regarding the classical pathway of the complement system? The classical pathway of the complement system is activated by:

a. histamine
b. antigen-antibody complexes
c. leukotrienes
d. prostaglandins

A

b. antigen-antibody complexes

85
Q

A patient has researched bradykinin on the internet. Which information indicates the patient understands the functions of bradykinin? Bradykinin is involved in:

a. increased vascular permeability
b. vasoconstriction blood vessels
c. stimulating the clotting system
d. increased the degradation of prostaglandins

A

a. increased vascular permeability

86
Q

After teaching the staff about the clotting system, which statement indicates the teaching was successful? The end product of the clotting system is:

a. plasmin
b. fibrin
c. collagen
d. factor X

A

b. fibrin

87
Q

A 5yo male is diagnosed with a bacterial infection. Cultures of the bacteria revealed lipopolysaccharides on the bacterial cell surface. Which of the complement pathways would be activated in this case?

a. classical pathway
b. lectin pathway
c. alternative pathway
d. kinin pathway

A

c. alternative pathway

88
Q

An 8yo female presents with edema of the cutaneous and mucosal tissue layers. Her mother reports that the condition is recurrent and seems to occur more often during stressful situations. The child is diagnosed with hereditary angioedema. Which of the following is deficient in this child?

a. C1 esterase inhibitor
b. carboxypeptidase
c. neutrophils
d. plasmin

A

a. C1 esterase inhibitor

89
Q

A nurse is preparing to teach on the subject of opsonins. Which information should the nurse include? Opsonins are molecules that:

a. are composed of fatty acids
b. regulate inflammation
c. degranulate mast cells
d. enhance phagocytosis

A

d. enhance phagocytosis

90
Q

A 10yo male is diagnosed with a parasite. Which lab result should the nurse check for a response to the parasite?

a. monocytes
b. eosinophils
c. neutrophils
d. macrophages

A

b. eosinophils

91
Q

A 65yo female is diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. She has developed muscle wasting. Which of the following substances would be produced in large quantities to eliminate the tumor cells and cause muscle wasting?

a. interleukin-6
b. eosinophils
c. tumor necrosis factor-alpha
d. platelets

A

c. tumor necrosis factor-alpha

92
Q

When phagocytes begin to stick avidly to capillary walls, which process is occurring?

a. margination
b. exudation
c. integration
d. emigration

A

a. margination

93
Q

An infant develops a fever secondary to a bacterial infection. Which of the following most likely triggered the fever?

a. interleukin-1
b. interleukin-6
c. interleukin-10
d. interferons (IFNs)

A

a. interleukin-1

94
Q

A 54yo male IV drug user is diagnosed with chronic hep C. Testing revealed that he is a candidate for treatment. Which of the following could be used to treat his condition?

a. interleukin-1
b. interleukin-6
c. interleukin-10
d. interferons (IFNs)

A

d. interferons (IFNs)

95
Q

A 35yo male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection). Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?

a. serous
b. purulent
c. hemorrhagic
d. fibrinous

A

d. fibrinous

96
Q

During inflammation, the liver is stimulated to release plasma proteins, collectively known as:

a. opsonins
b. acute phase reactants
c. antibodies
d. phagolysosomes

A

b. acute phase reactants

97
Q

A 3yo is making play cakes in a sandbox and eating the play cakes. The sand was also being used by cats as a litter box and was contaminated with toxoplasmosis. Which of the following would most likely also be present?

a. granuloma formation
b. degranulation
c. blood clots
d. exudate production

A

a. granuloma formation

98
Q

The macrophage secretion that stimulates procollagen synthesis and secretion is:

a. angiogenesis factor
b. matrix metalloproteinase
c. vascular endothelial growth factor
d. transforming growth factor-beta

A

d. transforming growth factor-beta

99
Q

A 30yo male was involved in a MVA. The glass from the shattered window cut his face and neck. The scar, however, was raised and extended beyond the original boundaries of the wound. This pattern of scarring is caused by impaired:

a. nutritional status
b. collagen synthesis
c. epithelialization
d. contraction

A

b. collagen synthesis

100
Q

The nurse is reviewing the lab data of a newly admitted patient. The nurse notes the patient had an erythrocyte sedimentation done, and the results are quite elevated. Then nurse would focus the care plan on which of the following conditions?

a. anemia
b. infection
c. inflammation
d. electrolyte imbalance

A

c. inflammation

101
Q

Healing by secondary intention would occur in which of the following patients? A patient with a:

a. sutured surgical wound
b. stage IV pressure ulcer
c. paper cut
d. sunburn

A

b. stage IV pressure ulcer

102
Q

The post-surgical patient is experiencing delayed wound healing. The dietitian believes the delay is related to nutritional intake. A deficiency in which of the following substances could directly affect healing?

a. vitamin D
b. ascorbic acid
c. melanin
d. cholesterol

A

b. ascorbic acid

103
Q

A nurse remembers that the primary actions of the complement cascade include: (SATA)

a. increased vascular permeability
b. vasoconstriction
c. chemotaxis
d. opsonization
e. cell killing
f. increased clotting

A

a. increased vascular permeability
c. chemotaxis
d. opsonization
e. cell killing

104
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient with a diagnosis of inflammation. The nurse would expect to find which of the following signs and symptoms is consistent with acute inflammation? (SATA)

a. heat
b. erythema
c. pain
d. swelling
e. paleness
f. loss of function

A

a. heat
b. erythema
c. pain
d. swelling
f. loss of function

105
Q

The nurse identified each of the following clinical manifestations of inflammation. Which would the nurse classify as a local response? (SATA)

a. fever
b. redness
c. swelling
d. heat
e. pain

A

b. redness
c. swelling
d. heat
e. pain

106
Q

Physical barriers that offer the body protection from damage and infection are located in the: (SATA)

a. GI tract
b. genitourinary tract
c. respiratory tract
d. lymph system
e. hematopoietic system

A

a. GI tract
b. genitourinary tract
c. respiratory tract

107
Q

Which of the following is responsible for initiating clonal selection?

a. T cells
b. B cells
c. antigens
d. lymphocytes

A

c. antigens

108
Q

Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who:

a. has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization
b. receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donor
c. has T cells that become B cells
d. receives immunoglobulin

A

a. has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization

109
Q

An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be involved?

a. lymphokine-producing cells
b. T-cytotoxic cells
c. helper T cells
d. macrophages

A

b. T-cytotoxic cells

110
Q

A 6yo female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen?

a. antibodies
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. self-antigens
d. helper T cells

A

a. antibodies

111
Q

Which statement indicates a correct understanding of antibodies? The most abundant class of antibody in the serum is:

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

a. IgG

112
Q

The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is:

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

b. IgM

113
Q

An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:

a. blood
b. kidneys
c. lungs
d. mucous membranes

A

a. blood

114
Q

A. 23yo pregnant female visits her PCP for her final prenatal checkup. The PCP determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

A

c. IgM

115
Q

Which portion of the antibody is responsible for the biologic functions of antibodies?

a. heavy chain
b. variable region
c. Fc portion
d. epitope

A

c. Fc portion

116
Q

A 25yo female has sexual relations with her boyfriend. Later she is told that the boyfriend is infected with neisseria gonorrhoeae. Testing reveals that she does not have the disease. How is it possible that she did not contract the disease?

a. antibodies covered sites of attachment
b. she was vaccinated against it
c. platelets provided protection
d. IgE was released

A

a. antibodies covered sites of attachment

117
Q

A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria. Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?

a. malaria
b. tetanus
c. smallpox
d. hepatitis

A

b. tetanus

118
Q

A 10yo male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:

a. toxoids
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgM

A

c. IgE

119
Q

A patient has done research on monoclonal antibodies on the internet. Which statement indicates a correct understanding? Pure monoclonal antibodies are produced by:

a. T lymphocytes
b. bone marrow
c. laboratories
d. fetuses

A

c. laboratories

120
Q

Which of the following statements indicates more teaching is needed regarding secondary lymph organs? _____ is/are second lymphoid organ.

a. the spleen
b. peyer patches
c. adenoids
d. the liver

A

d. the liver

121
Q

A 20yo female is applying for nursing school and is required to be tested for immunity against several illnesses. Testing that looks at which of the following would be the best to determine immunity?

a. culture and sensitivity
b. agglutination
c. precipitation
d. titer

A

d. titer

122
Q

A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatibility complex. Which of the following would be expected.

a. MHC I only
b. MHC II only
c. MHC I and II
d. neither MHC I nor MHC II

A

c. MCH I and II

123
Q

A 5mo child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections. A possible cause of this condition is:

a. hypergammaglobulinemia
b. increased maternal IgG
c. immune insufficiency
d. decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hyposensitivity

A

c. immune insufficiency

124
Q

While planning care for an elderly patient, the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with: (SATA)

a. increased T cell function
b. decreased immune function
c. increased production of antibodies
d. decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes
e. decreased ability to fight infection

A

b. decreased immune function
d. decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes
e. decreased ability to fight infection

125
Q

When a patient asks about secondary lymph organs, how should the nurse respond? Secondary lymph organs include: (SATA)

a. spleen
b. peyer patches
c. adenoids
d. liver
e. bone marrow
f. appendix

A

a. spleen
b. peyer patches
c. adenoids
f. appendix

126
Q

Direct effects of antibodies include: (SATA)

a. neutralization
b. agglutination
c. precipitation
d. phagocytosis
e. division

A

a. neutralization
b. agglutination
c. precipitation

127
Q

When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:

a. a reduced immune response found in most pathologic states
b. a normal immune response to an infectious agent
c. an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
d. antigenic desensitization

A

c. an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen

128
Q

When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

a. autoimmune
b. anaphylaxis
c. alloimmune
d. allergic

A

c. alloimmune

129
Q

A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks after an initial exposure 48hrs ago. This condition is an example of:

a. anaphylaxis
b. serum sickness
c. delayed hypersensitivity
d. viral disease

A

c. delayed hypersensitivity

130
Q

A 10yo male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:

a. immunodeficiency
b. autoimmunity
c. anaphylaxis
d. tissue-specific hypersensitivity

A

c. anaphylaxis

131
Q

When a patient presents at the ED for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

a. urticaria
b. hives
c. anaphylaxis
d. antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A

c. anaphylaxis

132
Q

Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _____ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response.

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV

A

d. type IV

133
Q

A 30yo male is having difficulty breathing and has been spitting blood. He reports that he began experiencing this reaction after cleaning his pigeons’ cage. Testing reveals he is suffering from allergic alveoli’s. Which of the following is he experiencing?

a. serum sickness
b. Raynaud phenomenon
c. antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
d. Arthus reaction

A

d. Arthus reaction

134
Q

A nurse recalls that an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:

a. bronchial asthma
b. contact dermatitis
c. serum sickness
d. rheumatoid arthritis

A

c. serum sickness

135
Q

When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of:

a. autoimmunity
b. alloimmunity
c. homoimmunity
d. alleimmunity

A

b. alloimmunity

136
Q

A 30yo female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color. Lab testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present?

a. anti-LE antibodies
b. autoantibodies
c. antiherpes antibodies
d. anti-CMV antibodies

A

b. autoantibodies

137
Q

A 40yo female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the following findings would be considered a symptom of this disease?

a. GI ulcers
b. decreased glomerular filtration rate
c. rash on trunk and extremities
d. photosensitivity

A

d. photosensitivity

138
Q

What is the chance that two siblings share both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other?

a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%

A

d. 25%

139
Q

When a nurse notices that a patient has type O blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient’s body.

a. A only
b. B only
c. A and B
d. O

A

c. A and B

140
Q

In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:

a. HLA type
b. Rh antigen
c. immunoglobulins
d. platelet compatibility

A

b. Rh antigen

141
Q

A 15yo male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a MVA. He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the RBCs are destroyed by agglutination and lysis. Which of the following blood type transfusion type matches would cause this?

a. A-A
b. B-O
c. AB-O
d. A-AB

A

d. A-AB

142
Q

A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

a. alive, but less infectious
b. mutated, but highly infectious
c. normal, but not infectious
d. inactive, but infectious

A

a. alive, but less infectious

143
Q

An immunologist is discussing endotoxin production. Which information should the immunologist include? Endotoxins are produced by:

a. gram-negative bacteria
b. gram-positive bacteria
c. gram-negative fungi
d. gram-positive fungi

A

a. gram-negative bacteria

144
Q

A 5yo male becomes ill with a sever cough. Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection, and further lab testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased protein synthesis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness?

a. endotoxin
b. exotoxin
c. hemolysis
d. septicemia

A

b. exotoxin

145
Q

A 50yo female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death. A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. gram-positive bacteria
b. fungi
c. gram-negative bacteria
d. virus

A

c. gram-negative bacteria

146
Q

After studying about viruses, which information indicated the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:

a. contain no DNA or RNA
b. are capable of independent reproduction
c. replicate their genetic material inside host cells
d. are easily killed by antimicrobials

A

c. replicate their genetic material inside host cells

147
Q

After studying about fungi, which information indicated a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:

a. are easily treated with penicillin
b. are extremely rare
c. never occur with other infections
d. are commonly opportunistic

A

d. are commonly opportunistic

148
Q

Which information indicates a correct understanding of viral vaccines? Most viral vaccines contain:

a. active viruses
b. attenuated viruses
c. killed viruses
d. viral toxins

A

b. attenuated viruses

149
Q

Which information indicates a good understanding of bacterial vaccines? Most bacterial vaccines contain:

a. fully active bacteria
b. synthetic bacteria
c. dead bacteria
d. bacterial toxins

A

c. dead bacteria

150
Q

A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:

a. proliferation
b. attenuation
c. specialization
d. mutation

A

d. mutation

151
Q

What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?

a. anemia
b. recurrent infections
c. hypersensitivity
d. autoantibody production

A

b. recurrent infections

152
Q

A 5yo male presents with low-set ears, fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Lab testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

a. B-lymphocyte deficiency
b. T-lymphocyte deficiency
c. combined immunologic deficiency
d. complement deficiency

A

b. T-lymphocyte deficiency

153
Q

A 22yo was recently diagnosed with AIDS. Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

a. CD4+ T-helper
b. CD8 T-helper
c. CDC cells
d. CDC10 cells

A

a. CD4+ T-helper

154
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of HIV, which causes AIDS?

a. HIV only infects B cells
b. HIV is a retrovirus
c. infection does not require a host cell receptor
d. after infection, cell death is immediate

A

b. HIV is a retrovirus

155
Q

A 30yo male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

a. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b. protease inhibitors
c. entrance inhibitors
d. antiretroviral therapy (ART)

A

d. antiretroviral therapy (ART)

156
Q

When the immunologist says that pathogens possess infectivity, what is the immunologist explaining? Infectivity allows pathogen to:

a. spread from on individual to others and cause disease
b. induce an immune response
c. invade and multiply in the host
d. damage tissue

A

c. invade and multiply in the host

157
Q

When the immunologist says that pathogens possess virulence, what does virulence mean?

a. spreads from one individual to others and causes disease
b. induces an immune response
c. causes disease
d. damages tissue

A

c. causes disease

158
Q

The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n):

a. negative response to an immunization
b. adverse response to a mediation
c. renal failure
d. genetic defect

A

d. genetic defect

159
Q

An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of a newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical?

a. the mother was exposed to measles
b. the father was exposed to agent orange
c. the baby is Rh positive
d. the baby was born 6wks premature

A

c. the baby is Rh positive

160
Q

A 30yo female is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE). Which symptoms are a result of a type II hypersensitivity?

a. anemia
b. seizures
c. lymphopenia
d. facial rash
e. photosensitivity

A

a. anemia
c. lymphopenia

Patho Exam 1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions