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Patho Exam 1 > Patho Ch 1-5 > Flashcards

Patho Ch 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

You are expecting your first child and are told that the child has a 1 in 800 chance of being born with a congenital anomaly. This statistic refers to the:

a. incidence
b. prevalence
c. epidemic
d. diagnosis

A

a. incidence

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2
Q

You decide that is has been too long since your last physical exam, so you schedule an appointment for a routine health screening. You have a blood cholesterol level checked and it is within the expected range. This represents which level of prevention?

a. primary
b. secondary
d. tertiary

A

b. secondary

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3
Q

At your health screening, you describe the following: achiness, lethargy, and vague abdominal discomfort. These are categorized as:

a. local manifestations
b. systemic manifestations
c. signs
d. symptoms

A

b. systemic

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4
Q

The study of functional alterations in human health because of an injury, disease, or syndrome describes which of the following?

a. pathology
b. pathophysiology
c. physiology
d. morphology

A

b. pathophysiology

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5
Q

A patient wants to know what has caused the illness. This information is termed the:

a. etiology
b. pathogenesis
c. epidemiology
d. nosocomial

A

a. etiology

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6
Q

Joe has many risk factors for the development of lung cancer. Which one of these is not modifiable?

a. smoking
b. family history of lung cancer
c. working in an asbestos-filled area
d. poor nutritional intake

A

b. family hx of lung cancer

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7
Q

Which of the following terms indicates the dynamic steady state that the body strives to achieve every day?

a. homeostasis
b. mortality
c. morbidity
d. health

A

a. homeostasis

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8
Q

Which of the following contributes to evidence-based practice and high-quality patient care?

a. primary research
b. clinical expertise
c. meta-analysis studies
d. all the above

A

d. all the above

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9
Q

Cancer is on the rise across the globe. Which term describes this phenomenon?

a. epidemic
b. endemic
c. pandemic
d. morbidity

A

c. pandemic

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10
Q

Your grandmother is diagnosed with CHF and is told she has 6 months to live. This prediction is referred to as her:

a. prognosis
b. diagnosis
c. morbidity rate
d. prevalence

A

a. prognosis

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11
Q

The organelle that is involved in cellular respiration and is linked to the development of oxidative stress is known as the:

a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
c. lysosome
d. mitochondria

A

d. mitochondria

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12
Q

Cells develop into tissues with specialized structure and function through the process of:

a. differentiation
b. proliferation
c. endocytosis
d. exocytosis

A

a. differentiation

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13
Q

The cell’s typical response to a decrease in trophic signals is:

a. atrophy
b. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
d. phagocytosis

A

a. atrophy

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14
Q

This is defined as the action of workings of various parts of the body and is altered in the presence of disease.

a. structure
b. pathophysiology
c. histology
d. function

A

d. function

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15
Q

Which of the following describes a branch of anatomy that deals with the minute structure of cells and tissues, which are discernible with a microscope?

a. pathology
b. histology
c. morphology
d. microbiology

A

b. histology

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16
Q

Which of the following best describes the health-illness continuum?

a. it is a dynamic entity
b. it is based on objective data
c. it represents two exclusive categories
d. it is focus on physical well-being

A

a. it is a dynamic entity

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17
Q

Health is often equated with this concept.

a. homeostasis
b. disease
c. objectivity
d. an uneventful physical examination

A

a. homeostasis

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18
Q

This is defined an impairment of cell, tissue, organ, or system functioning.

a. illness
b. pathophysiology
c. disease
d. syndrome

A

c. disease

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19
Q

You just purchased a new bike helmet and wear this daily when you bike to school. What level of prevention are you demonstrating?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary

A

a. primary

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20
Q

Your father is on a rehabilitation unit after a stroke so that he can relearn how to perform his usual ADLs. What level of prevention is implemented here?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary

A

c. tertiary

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21
Q

This term describes how a disease starts, progresses, and resolves.

a. etiology
b. pathophysiology
c. pathogenesis
d. idiopathogencity

A

c. pathogenesis

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22
Q

You are diagnosed with an illness and no one is sure of the cause. This condition would be termed:

a. idiopathic
b. iatrogenic
c. nosocomial
d. etiologic

A

a. idiopathic

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23
Q

Cardiovascular disease is a condition that has genetic and environmental influences. This type of condition is considered:

a. communicable
b. unpreventable
c. inherited
d. multifactorial

A

d. multifactorial

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24
Q

Which of the following is a major clinical manifestation of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in men?

a. chest pain
b. fever
c. EKG
d. cardiac enzymes

A

a. chest pain

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25
Q

This is a major mechanism for detecting asymptotic disease.

a. eliciting the pt hx
b. genetic screening
c. family pedigree
d. blood tests

A

b. genetic screening

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26
Q

You received a paper cut while turning the page in your textbook. Identify a local manifestation of that injury.

a. fever
b. pain
c. headache
d. infection

A

b. pain

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27
Q

You have influenza. Identify a systemic manifestation of that condition.

a. fever
b. chest pain
c. cough
d. infection

A

a. fever

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28
Q

Five-Year survival rates are often applied to patients with cancer as an indication of this:

a. morbidity
b. prognosis
c. metastasis
d. remission

A

b. prognosis

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29
Q

Cell death by necrosis is:

a. the cell’s way of replacing aged cells with new cells
b. also known as programmed cell death
c. often a response to inflammation
d. commonly seen during the period of embryo development

A

c. often a response to inflammation

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30
Q

You are caring for a female patient who has reported a noticeable decrease in breast size and muscle mass. Which of the following conditions and causes is the most likely explanation?

a. puberty
b. pregnancy
c. menopause
d. acromegaly

A

c. menopause

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31
Q

The changes seen in cells adapting to stressors that promote metaplasia:

a. are irreversible
b. can result in cancer
c. change from one cell type to another
d. show abnormal differentiation

A

c. change from one cell type to another

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32
Q

Cellular atrophy results in:

a. increase in tissue volume due to increase in cell number
b. increase is tissue volume due to increase in cell size
c. decrease in tissue volume due to decrease in cell size
d. no change in tissue volume

A

c. decrease in tissue volume due to decrease in cell size

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33
Q

Treatment of chronic conditions are associated with cerebral atrophy:

a. are effective at restoring neuronal function
b. are targeted toward slowing neuronal injury and atrophy
c. are best initiated when advanced signs and symptoms are evident
d. are not indicated

A

b. are targeted toward slowing neuronal injury and atrophy

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34
Q

Which of the following hormones is secreted from the anterior pituitary?

a. growth hormone
b. somatostatin
c. growth hormone-releasing hormone
d. insulin-like growth factor 1

A

a. growth hormone

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35
Q

Which of the following is a diagnostic test for cervical dysplasia?

a. liquid-based pap cytology
b. conventional pap cytology
c. cervical punch biopsy
d. HPV testing

A

c. cervical punch biopsy

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36
Q

Which of the following reactive oxygen species is scavenged by catalase?

a. hydroxyl radical
b. peroxynitrite
c. superoxide
d. hydrogen peroxide

A

d. hydrogen peroxide

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37
Q

Which of the following terms describes cells that are enlarged, which larked nuclei and abnormal chromatin?

a. hyperplastic
b. dysplastic
c. metaplastic
d. aplastic

A

b. dysplastic

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38
Q

This is defined as fully differentiated body parts with specialized functions.

a. cell
b. organ
c. tissue
d. system

A

b. organ

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39
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the plasma membrane?

a. contains a single layer of lipids with polar heads
b. contains a single layer of lipids with nonpolar heads
c. contains a bilayer of lipids with polar heads
d. contains a bilayer of lipids with nonpolar heads

A

c. contains a bilayer of lipids with polar heads

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40
Q

Receptors that project into either the intracellular or the extracellular environments are known as:

a. transmembrane proteins
b. integral proteins
c. peripheral proteins
d. channel proteins

A

c. peripheral proteins

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41
Q

The organelle responsible for synthesis of proteins by bound ribosomes is called the:

a. rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. golgi apparatus
d. proteasome

A

a. rough endoplasmic reticulum

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42
Q

Which of the following is part of the cellular cytoskeleton?

a. mitochondria
b. gene
c. cytoplasm
d. actin

A

d. actin

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43
Q

The transport mechanism requiring energy is:

a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. facilitated diffusion
d. primary active transport

A

d. primary active transport

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44
Q

Phagocytosis is an example of which type of cellular function?

a. ingestion
b. respiration
c. communication
d. reproduction

A

a. ingestion

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45
Q

Which form of signal transduction resulting from ligand-receptor binding has the potential to produce effects in the entire body system?

a. endocrine
b. paracrine
c. autocrine
d. local mediation

A

a. endocrine

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46
Q

What is the process that makes cells with the same genetic material develop into specific cell types?

a. reproduction
b. differentiation
c. prophase
d. meiosis

A

b. differentiation

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47
Q

Reduction in functional demand leads to cellular:

a. atrophy
b. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
d. dysplasia

A

a. atrophy

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48
Q

Increase in functional demand resulting in increased cell size is:

a. atrophy
b. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
d. dysplasia

A

b. hypertrophy

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49
Q

Increase in functional demand resulting in increased cell number is:

a. atrophy
b. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
d. dysplasia

A

c. hyperplasia

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50
Q

Due to a persistent stressor, columnar cells may turn into squamous cells as a method of adaptation. This process is known as:

a. metaplasia
b. dysplasia
c. anaplasia
d. hyperplasia

A

a. metaplasia

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51
Q

Cell death associated with inflammation is known as:

a. mitosis
b. dysplasia
c. apoptosis
d. necrosis

A

d. necrosis

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52
Q

Damage to cells resulting from frostbite is classified as which type of injury?

a. mechanical
b. thermal
c. chemical
d. endogenous

A

b. thermal

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53
Q

The permanent cessation of menses is known as:

a. perimenopause
b. climacteric
c. menopause
d. menarche

A

c. menopause

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54
Q

You get a paper cut and experience pain at the site. This response is related to:

a. increase perfusion at the site
b. increased exudate and chemical mediators at the site
c. bacteria that have entered the wound
d. vasoconstriction at the site

A

b. increased exudate and chemical mediates at the site

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55
Q

Inflammation is ultimately needed to:

a. increase inflammatory mediators at the site to vasoconstrictor the area
b. increase platelets at the site for clotting
c. restore functional cells
d. prepare the site for healing

A

d. prepare the site for healing

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56
Q

A wound is 6cm X 6cm X 4cm. A wound with these dimensions needs to heal through:

a. secondary intention
b. primary intention
c. tertiary intention
d. scar tissue formation

A

a. secondary intention

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57
Q

A major difference between acute and chronic inflammatory response is that in chronic inflammation:

a. inflammatory mediators are released
b. neutrophils are much more prominent
c. granulomas form around certain invaders
d. granulation tissue is present

A

c. granulomas form around certain invaders

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58
Q

Which is not a local manifestation of acute inflammation?

a. edema
b. redness
c. loss of function
d. leukocytosis

A

d. leukocytosis

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59
Q

With burn injuries, it is important to determine the depth of injury. You are in the sun too long without sunscreen and develop redness and blistering on your face, chest, and back. What depth of burn did you experience?

a. superficial partial-thickness burn
b. deep partial-thickness burn
c. full-thickness burn
d. dermal thickness burn

A

b. deep partial-thickness burn

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59
Q

With burn injuries, it is important to determine the depth of injury. You are in the sun too long without sunscreen and develop redness and blistering on your face, chest, and back. What depth of burn did you experience?

a. superficial partial-thickness burn
b. deep partial-thickness burn
c. full-thickness burn
d. dermal thickness burn

A

b. deep partial-thickness burn

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60
Q

The hospitalized burn patient wants to know why you need to remove his dressings every day. It is painful and he wants to avoid uncovering his burn injury. You explain that removing the dressing promotes:

a. debridement
b. infection
c. skin function
d. drying the exudate

A

a. debridement

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61
Q

What is one definitive test to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

a. a positive rheumatoid factor (RF)
b. an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
c. a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA)
d. one test is not definitive

A

d. one test is not definitive

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62
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of acute gastritis?

a. poor gastric perfusion
b. too much stomach acid
c. ingestion of aspirin, alcohol, or other chemicals
d. H. pylori infection

A

c. ingestion of aspiring, alcohol, or other chemicals

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63
Q

A patient it taking an anti-inflammatory drug for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most likely action for this drug?

a. blocks the chemical mediators of inflammation
b. enhances the body’s immune system
c. increases blood flow to tissues
d. decreases scar formation

A

a. blocks the chemical mediators of inflammation

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64
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

a. cancer
b. autoimmunity
c. excess alcohol intake
d. cystic fibrosis

A

c. excess alcohol intake

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65
Q

Which of the following meals would you recommend to a patient who has a wound injury to promote healing?

a. eggs and OJ
b. spaghetti and garlic toast
c. steak and potatoes
d. tomato soup and grilled cheese

A

a. eggs and OJ

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66
Q

Which characteristic best describes the inflammatory response?

a. specific response to microorganisms
b. initiated by certain types of injury
c. hormone mediated
d. regulated by chemical mediators

A

d. regulated by chemical mediators

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67
Q

Which is not a major goal of the inflammatory response?

a. increased blood flow to the site of injury
b. form an antigen-antibody response
c. dilute harmful substances at the site of injury
d. removed injured tissue

A

b. form an antigen-antibody response

68
Q

These cells must be “loosened” in order for the products of healing to get to the site of injury.

a. endothelial
b. basement membrane
c. epithelial
d. plasma

A

a. endothelial

69
Q

The cell most likely responsible for an immediate release of chemical mediators right at the site of injury is the:

a. mast cell
b. platelet
c. eosinophil
d. endothelial

A

a. mast cell

70
Q

You sprained your ankle and are told to take ibuprofen to reduce the inflammation. What is the MOA for this drug?

a. block chemokine
b. enhances mast cell activation
c. blocks prostaglandins
d. unknown

A

c. blocks prostaglandins

71
Q

The activation of complement induces all of the following except:

a. coagulation
b. opsonization
c. chemotaxis
d. cell lysis

A

a. coagulation

72
Q

Which of the following does not explain why multiple pathways are needed for the activation and suppression of chemical mediators?

a. healing requires multiple chemical mediators
b. the chemical mediators are so potent
c. the response must be overzealous to be effective
d. autoimmunity can occur if unregulated

A

c. the response must be overzealous to be effective

73
Q

Although against your better judgement, you squeezed an acne pustule on your face. Now you notice a clear fluid seeping from the opening. What is this clear fluid?

a. pus
b. water
c. exudate
d. plasma

A

c. exudate

74
Q

What is the role of the clear fluid seeping from an opening of a squeezed acne pustule?

a. carries proteins and leukocytes
b. promotes clotting
c. replaces epithelial cells
d. indicates edema in the underlying tissue

A

a. carries proteins and leukocytes

75
Q

Which is not an essential step in the cellular response?

a. cellular migration
b. cellular adherence
c. cellular chemotaxis
d. cellular degranulation

A

d. cellular degranulation

76
Q

Without this process, leukocytes would be unable to move across endothelial cells and get to the site of injury.

a. diapedesis
b. separation
c. adherence
d. leukocytosis

A

a. diapedesis

77
Q

You are visiting the clinic for a possible infection. You are told that you have a high neutrophil count. This implies:

a. you have a strep infection
b. you have an acute infection
c. you have a chronic infection
d. you do not have an infection

A

b. you have an acute infection

78
Q

Your mother has a clinic appointment for a possible infection and is told that she has a high monocyte count. This implies:

a. she has a strep infection
b. she has an acute infection
c. she has a chronic infection
d. she does not have an infection

A

c. she has a chronic infection

79
Q

How does the inflammatory response know when to retreat?

a. feedback mechanisms regulated by plasma protein synthesis
b. multiple processes of cellular inhibition
c. inhibition is time dependent, the inflammatory response lasts 72hrs
d. when all microorganisms have been destroyed

A

a. feedback mechanisms regulated by plasma protein systems

80
Q

You notice that after you sprained your ankle that the ankle became swollen, red, and hot. Why did the ankle get hot?

a. exudate accumulated at the site
b. increased blood flow to the site
c. the ankle became infected
d. there was a thermal injury as well

A

b. increased blood flow to the site

81
Q

In chronic inflammation, extensive scarring is due to:

a. fibroblast activity
b. degradation of collagen
c. proteinase activity
d. loss of labile cells

A

a. fibroblast activity

82
Q

Formation of the is a protective mechanism during some cases of chronic inflammation where an area is walled off in order to protect surrounding unaffected tissues.

a. adenomas
b. granulomas
c. basement membranes
d. granulation tissues

A

b. granulomas

83
Q

Poor tissue perfusion can lead to this complication of chronic inflammation.

a. keloid formation
b. wound dehiscence
c. adhesions
d. ulceration

A

d. ulceration

84
Q

Which of the following types of burns can interrupt cardiac conduction and lead to sudden death?

a. thermal
b. chemical
c. electrical
d. radiation

A

c. electrical

85
Q

You are cooking macaroni and cheese and while pouring the pasta into the colander, you splash scalding water on your arm. The area becomes red, painful, and blisters form. How would this be classified?

a. superficial partial-thickness burn
b. deep partial-thickness burn
c. full-thickness burn
d. none of the above

A

b. deep partial-thickness burn

86
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by all of the following except:

a. autoimmune process against synovial cells
b. formation of immune complexes
c. genetic susceptibility and a triggering event
d. chronic inflammatory processes predominated by neutrophils

A

d. chronic inflammatory processes predominated by neutrophils

87
Q

In rheumatoid arthritis this is at type of granulation tissue that forms over the inflamed synovium and cartilage.

a. matrix tissue
b. ankylosis
c. pannus
d. nodular

A

c. pannus

88
Q

What is the relationship between severe burns and the development of gastritis?

a. burns shunt blood away from the stomach
b. eating spicy foods can burn the stomach
c. burns increase blood flow to the stomach
d. burns require the use of long-term analgesics, which irritate the stomach

A

a. burns shut blood away from the stomach

89
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic clinical manifestation of Crohn Disease?

a. weight loss
b. constipation
c. abdominal pain
d. occult blood in stool

A

b. constipation

90
Q

Which of the following statement is not true regarding ulcerative colitis?

a. it can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus
b. it is associated with an increased risk of colon cancer
c. it presents as a continuous friable intestinal lesion
d. perforation is a potential complication

A

a. it can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus

91
Q

During flu season, you’re exposed to the influenza virus. Which component of your immune system will be the first to respond to this foreign pathogen?

a. innate
b. adaptive
c. humoral
d. T-cell mediated

A

a. innate

92
Q

The following season, you are concerned about getting the flu again. Which of the following statements is true?

a. you continue to be at risk because nothing can protect you from reinfection
b. vaccination for prevalent strains of influenza can provide improved protection against the disease
c. premedication with immunosuppressants will provide protection against infection
d. because you have had the flu once, you will be protected from getting it again

A

b. vaccination for prevalent strains of influenza can provide improved protection against the disease

93
Q

Immune suppression in AIDS is related to:

a. decreased platelet count
b. decrease RBC count
c. decreased lymphocyte count
d. elevated lymphocyte count

A

c. decreased lymphocyte count

94
Q

Which of the following conditions represents responses caused by immunologic memory?

a. common cold
b. anaphylaxis
c. shingles
d. strep throat

A

b. anaphylaxis

95
Q

The pathology related to systemic lupus erythematous is due to:

a. neutrophil activation
b. delayed immunity
c. immunosuppression
d. immune complex deposition

A

d. immune complex deposition

96
Q

Immunodeficiency is the result of:

a. failure of host defense mechanisms
b. hypersensitive immune responses
c. inappropriate immune response to self
d. immune response stimulated by antigens from other individuals

A

a. failure of host defense mechanisms

97
Q

A hypersensitivity reaction resulting from a yellow jacket sting is an example of:

a. type I, immediate hypersensitivity reaction
b. type II, antibody-mediated reaction
c. type III, immune complex reaction
d. type IV, cell-mediated reaction

A

a. type I, immediate hypersensitivity reaction

98
Q

A hypersensitivity reaction resulting from complement activation due to insoluble antigen-antibody deposition is an example of:

a. type I, immediate hypersensitivity reaction
b. type II, antibody-mediated reaction
c. type III, immune complex reaction
d. type IV, cell-mediated reaction

A

c. type III, immune complex reaction

99
Q

Autoimmunity may be triggered by which one of the following?

a. elimination of self-reactive lymphocytes in central lymphoid tissues
b. persistent lymphocyte ignorance
c. impaired T-cell activation
d. close resemblance between foreign and self-antigen

A

d. close resemblance between foreign and self-antigen

100
Q

Treatment of altered immune response with corticosteroids is associated with which of the following adverse effects?

a. decreased blood sugar
b. loss of bone mineral
c. thickening of skin
d. weight loss

A

b. loss of bone mineral

101
Q

The transfer of secretory IgA from mother to infant during breast-feeding is an example of:

a. a hypersensitivity reaction
b. active immunity
c. passive immunity
d. alloimmunity

A

c. passive immunity

102
Q

Which of the following is true regarding cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

a. they recognize the MHC class I-antigen complex
b. they recognize the MHC class II-antigen complex
c. they carry the CD4 marker
d. they present antigen to B lymphocytes for antibody production

A

a. they recognize the MHC class I-antigen complex

103
Q

Which of the following are considered antigen-presenting cells?

a. dendritic cells
b. eosinophils
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

a. dendritic cells

104
Q

Which of the following markers identifies a nucleated body cell?

a. CD4
b. BCR
c. MHC I
d. MHC II

A

c. MHC I

105
Q

Which of the following is true regarding pharmacologic treatments for AIDS?

a. drugs are used to target increased RBC number
b. drugs are used to target increased WBC number
c. drugs are used to increase host DNA replication
d. drugs are used to inhibit HIV replication

A

d. drugs are used to inhibit HIV replication

106
Q

Immunology is the study of:

a. structure of the immune system
b. function of the immune system
c. phenomena of induced sensitivity and allergy
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

107
Q

All blood cells are produced from which one of the following precursor cell types?

a. myeloid progenitor
b. lymphoid progenitor
c. pluripotent stem
d. neutrophil

A

c. pluripotent stem

108
Q

Cells that become differentiated in the bone marrow are:

a. cytotoxic T lymphocytes
b. helper T lymphocytes
c. plasma cells
d. T-cell receptors

A

c. plasma cells

109
Q

Which characteristic explains why some pathogens do not cause disease in humans?

a. receptor binding
b. pathogenicity
c. invasiveness
d. potency

A

a. receptor binding

110
Q

Which type of granulocyte is present in the greatest number?

a. basophil
b. eosinophil
c. monocyte
d. neutrophil

A

d. neutrophil

111
Q

An activated monocyte is also known as a:

a. lymphocyte
b. macrophage
c. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
d. plasma cell

A

b. macrophage

112
Q

The type of macrophage specific to the liver is:

a. microglia
b. Kupffer cells
c. Langerhans cells
d. histiocytes

A

b. Kupffer cells

113
Q

One primary cell typer involved in adaptive immunity includes:

a. B lymphocyte
b. neutrophil
c. macrophage
d. dendritic cell

A

a. B lymphocyte

114
Q

Antibodies are recreated from which of the following cell types?

a. macrophage
b. cytotoxic T lymphocyte
c. helper T lymphocytes
d. plasma cells

A

d. plasma cells

115
Q

One primary cell type involved in cell-mediated immunity includes:

a. B lymphocyte
b. cytotoxic T lymphocytes
c. macrophage
d. dendritic cell

A

b. cytotoxic T lymphocytes

116
Q

The membrane surface molecule expressed on cytotoxic T lymphocytes is:

a. CD8
b. CD4
c. TH1
d. TH2

A

a. CD8

117
Q

The MHC class 1 molecule is recognized by which cell type?

a. CD8
b. CD4
c. TH1
d. TH2

A

a. CD8

118
Q

Your mother has a clinic appointment for a possible infection and is told that she has a high neutrophil count. This implies:

a. she has a strep infection
b. she has an acute infection
c. she has a chronic infection
d. she does not have an infection

A

b. she has an acute infection

119
Q

The antibody class involved in hypersensitivity reaction is:

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

b. IgE

120
Q

Passive immunity obtained from mother to the fetus is mediated by:

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

c. IgG

121
Q

This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves degranulation of basophils and mast cells when IgE binds to an allergen.

a. immediate hypersensitivity reaction
b. antibody-mediated reaction
c. immune complex reaction
d. autoimmune reaction

A

a. immediate hypersensitivity reaction

122
Q

This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves failure of the development of self-tolerance?

a. immediate hypersensitivity reaction
b. antibody-mediated reaction
c. immune complex reaction
d. autoimmune reaction

A

d. autoimmune reaction

123
Q

This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves complement activation stimulated by deposition of bound antigen to antibody?

a. immediate hypersensitivity reaction
b. antibody-mediated reaction
c. immune complex reaction
d. autoimmune reaction

A

c. immune complex reaction

124
Q

A graft between unrelated individuals is called:

a. autograft
b. allograft
c. syngeneic graft
d. monogenic graft

A

b. allograft

125
Q

Treatment to regulate the immune response through interference with DNA synthesis in dividing cells is achieved through the use of:

a. cytotoxic drugs
b. anti-inflammatory medications
c. bacterial derivative drugs
d. fungal derivative drugs

A

a. cytotoxic drugs

126
Q

The loss of cell mediated and humoral immunity in AIDS is due to:

a. CD4 lymphocytes
b. CD8 lyphocytes
c. plasma B lymphocytes
d. memory B lymphocytes

A

a. CD4 lymphocytes

127
Q

Which of the following serves as the rational for AIDS treatment with antiretroviral therapy?

a. mono therapy with reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b. mono therapy with protease inhibitors
c. mono therapy with fusion inhibitors
d. triple therapy with reverse transcriptase, protease, and fusion inhibitors

A

d. triple therapy with reverse transcriptase, protease, and fusion inhibitors

128
Q

Systemic lupus erythematous is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

a. type I, immediate hypersensitivity reaction
b. type II, antibody-mediated reaction
c. type III, immune complex reaction
d. type IV, cell-mediated reaction

A

c. type III, immune complex reaction

129
Q

Anaphylaxis is mediated by which class of antibody?

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

b. IgE

130
Q

Fetal manifestations of Rh isoimmunization include which of the following?

a. hemolysis
b. jaundice
c. anemia
d. all the above

A

d. all the above

131
Q

You are looking to break the chain of infection by washing your hands frequently as you provide care for patients. Which of the following links in the chain will be broken by this activity?

a. reservoir
b. host
c. portal of entry
d. mode of transmission

A

d. mode of transmission

132
Q

Which of the following may make a person more susceptible to getting an infection?

a. age between 6 and 46yrs
b. experiencing a surgery that is healing by primary intention
c. final exams week
d. a functioning immune system

A

c. final exams week

133
Q

The feeling that “something is not quite right” is considered which stage in infection?

a. point of infection with pathogen
b. incubation
c. prodrome
d. acute symptoms

A

c. prodrome

134
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations is not typically found with inflammation but is more characteristic of a bacterial infection?

a. purulent exudate
b. redness and swelling at the site
c. lymphadenopathy
d. fever

A

a. purulent exudate

135
Q

A WBC differential shows an increase in the number of monocytes and macrophages in the blood. This typically means that:

a. this is a new infection
b. this is a chronic infection
c. this is a viral infection
d. the differential provides no useful information

A

b. this is a chronic infection

136
Q

Given the mode of transmission for influenza, how would you break the chain of infection and prevent spread?

a. administer antibiotics as directed
b. wash hands after toileting
c. disinfect table surfaces in the room
d. wear a mask

A

d. wear a mask

137
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tests would give information to the presence of a carrier-state asymptomatic hep B infection?

a. hep B surface antigen (HBsAg)
b. hep B core antigen (HBcAg)
c. prothrombin time (PTT)
d. there is not way to distinguish the different forms of hep B

A

a. hep B surface antigen (HBsAg)

138
Q

What is the most likely complication of an untreated UTI?

a. glomerulonephritis
b. pyelonephritis
c. fulminant UTI
d. urethritis

A

b. pyelonephritis

139
Q

Treatment for tinea unguium must include:

a. oral antifungals
b. topical antifungals
c. both topical and oral antifungals
d. nail removal and topical antifungals

A

a. oral antifungals

140
Q

Which of the following scenarios is most likely in the CSF of a patient with bacterial meningitis?

a. CSF has high neutrophil count and high protein count
b. CSF has high neutrophil count and low protein count
c. CSF has high glucose level and high RBC count
d. CSF has high lymphocyte count and low RBC count

A

a. CSF has high neutrophil count and high protein count

141
Q

Which of the following is an important characteristic of M. tuberculosis (the microbe that causes TB) and helps to explain its pathogenesis?

a. it is a large and fast growing microbe
b. it produces toxins, and these toxins destroy lung tissue
c. it is resistant to destruction and can sit dormant for years
d. it cannot be detected or diagnosed until the disease is well advanced

A

c. it is resistant to destruction and can sit dormant for years

142
Q

An important aspect of infection is prevention. Which of the following would be an effective prevention measure for malaria?

a. antibiotics
b. avoiding international travel
c. handwashing
d. wearing long sleeves, pants, and a hat with face netting

A

d. wearing long sleeves, pants, and a hat with face netting

143
Q

Infections cause a local inflammatory response at the site of infection, which leads to specific clinical manifestations. In the case of pyelonephritis, what would likely be a clinical manifestation?

a. dysuria
b. hyperglycemia
c. tachycardia
d. pruritus

A

a. dysuria

144
Q

The patient is diagnosed with influenza. Which of the following best describes the route of transmission for this disease?

a. airborne
b. respiratory droplets
c. direct contact
d. fecal-oral

A

b. respiratory droplets

145
Q

Which is not a characteristic of resident flora?

a. they live on non sterile areas of the body
b. they do not cause harm to the body
c. they provide a type of natural immunity
d. they do not compete with disease-producing microorganisms

A

d. they do not compete with disease-producing microorganisms

146
Q

Which best describes why yeast infections are common in women on antibiotics?

a. yeast grows well when exposed to the sugar, which is found as a carrier substance in most antibiotics
b. destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast)
c. yeast prefer a warm, moist, dark environment, such as that present in the female perineum
d. antibiotics allow yeast to access sterile environments in the body

A

b. destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast)

147
Q

All of the following describe communicable disease except:

a. all infectious diseases are communicable
b. communicable diseases are spread from person to person
c. blood is a common carrier for communicable diseases
d. communicable diseases are caused by infections that live and reproduce in a human host

A

a. all infectious diseases are communicable

148
Q

Which characteristic explains why some pathogens do not cause disease in humans?

a. receptor binding
b. pathogenicity
c. invasiveness
d. potency

A

a. receptor binding

149
Q

Which is not a mechanism by which a pathogen causes diseases in humans?

a. direct destruction of the host cell
b. interference with the host cell’s metabolic function
c. attack of the pathogen by the host cells immune cells
d. exposure of the host cell to toxins

A

c. attack of the pathogen by the host cells immune cells

150
Q

Disruption of the cell wall of a bacterium by antibacterial drugs will interrupt:

a. protein and DNA synthesis
b. phagocytosis
c. motility
d. adherence

A

a. protein and DNA synthesis

151
Q

A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic?

a. constipation
b. leukopenia
c. fever
d. vomiting

A

c. fever

152
Q

Which best explains why some viruses are capable of eliciting a chronic infection in the body?

a. release of virions
b. immunocompetence
c. period of latency
d. receptor binding

A

c. period of latency

153
Q

Which of the following is suspected in the person with a fungal infection of deep tissues?

a. immunocompromise
b. concurrent tinea infection
c. maceration
d. presence of resident microbes

A

a. immunocompromise

154
Q

This is a standard of healthcare that recognizes all blood and body fluids as potentially infected.

a. transmission-based precautions
b. infectious precautions
c. hand washing precautions
d. universal precautions

A

d. universal precautions

155
Q

Which is a complication of infection where pathogens gain access to the blood?

a. septicemia
b. bacteremia
c. septic shock
d. chronic infection

A

a. septicemia

156
Q

You are diagnosed with strep pharyngitis and are prescribed an antibiotic. You are instructed to take the antibiotic three times a day for 10 days. After the 4th day, you are feeling pretty good and decide that you do not need to finish the medication. What is the likely complication result from this practice?

a. septicemia
b. bacteremia
c. septic shock
d. chronic infection

A

d. chronic infection

157
Q

You believe that you have “athlete’s foot” because you have burning and itching along with redness between your toes. You look in your bathroom drawer where all of your medications are kept. You pull out the antibiotic ointment and apply this to the reddened areas. After 3 days of application, you have noticed no improvement. Why is this medicine not working?

a. topical medications usually take at least 7 days to be effective
b. antibacterial medications are not effective against fungi
c. this type of infection requires oral antibiotics
d. you are probably immunocompromised

A

b. antibacterial medications are not effective against fungi

158
Q

Your roommate has influenza. All of the following are appropriate measures to avoid this infection except:

a. immunization
b. sterilization
c. frequent hand washing
d. avoid close contact

A

b. sterilization

159
Q

This is a process by which influenza viruses are well adapted to escape host defenses and gradually change genetic composition during replication in the human host cell:

a. reassortment
b. receptor binding
c. vaccination
d. trivalence

A

a. reassortment

160
Q

Who is at greatest risk of significant morbidity and mortality with influenza infection?

a. pregnant women
b. the elderly
c. school-aged children
d. college-age individuals

A

b. the elderly

161
Q

Which of the following sets of clinical manifestations is most characteristic of influenza?

a. diarrhea, stomach cramping, vomiting
b. nasal congestion, sneezing, watery eyes
c. headache, sinus pressure, fever
d. body aches, cough, sore throat

A

d. body aches, cough, sore throat

162
Q

Which of the following types of viral hepatitis is not associated with transmission through contact with infected blood?

a. hep A
b. hep B
c. hep C
d. hep D

A

a. hep A

163
Q

Cirrhosis, a complication of chronic hepatitis, leads to liver failure by all of the following mechanisms except:

a. obstruction of portal circulation
b. diffuse hepatocyte damage
c. interference of blood flow to the liver
d. massive destruction of Kupffer cells

A

d. massive destruction of Kupffer cells

164
Q

A patient arrives to the clinic for evaluation. The clinician report that the patient is experiencing acute hepatitis. The patient is visibly jaundiced and reports dark urine and clay-colored stools. The liver is enlarged and tender. Which phase of acute hepatitis does this represent?

a. prodrome
b. icterus
c. recovery
d. incubation

A

b. icterus

165
Q

Which lab test would confirm the presence of acute hepatitis B?

a. positive anti-HBc
b. positive anti-HBe
c. postive anti-HBs
d. elevated serum bilirubin levels

A

a. positive anti-HBc

166
Q

Which of the following explains why a low-fat diet is recommended for those with hepatitis?

a. fat emulsification and absorption and bile production may be impaired during liver disease
b. weight gain will exacerbate hepatocyte destruction
c. those with hepatitis are more vulnerable to the development of atherosclerosis
d. ascites, a complication of liver disease, can be alleviated with moderate weight loss

A

a. fat emulsification and absorption and bile production may be impaired during liver disease

167
Q

UTI and pelvic inflammatory disease share which characteristic?

a. exclusive to females
b. ascending infections
c. most commonly caused by E. coli
d. pyuria is present in both

A

b. ascending infections

168
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of tinea versicolor?

a. presents as hypopigmented patches
b. leads to hair loss and breakage at the site of infection
c. spreads circumferentially like a reddened bull’s-eye
d. leads to thickened, discolored, and dystrophic changes to the nails

A

a. presents as hyperpigmented patches

Patho Exam 1 (3 decks)

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