Practice Exam 5 Flashcards by Kenneth Ewin

What is the half-value layer of a material used in radiation therapy?
A
The thickness of the material required to reduce the intensity of the radiation beam by half
B
The thickness of the material required to increase the intensity of the radiation beam by two
C
The time required for the material to decay to half of its original activity
D
The amount of radiation absorbed by the material

A
The thickness of the material required to reduce the intensity of the radiation beam by half

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What is the first step you should take if you find a patient in cardiac arrest?
A
Check for a pulse
B
Call for help
C
Start chest compressions
D
Administer oxygen

B
Call for help

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Which of the following is an important consideration when creating an advanced directive?
A
The document should be kept secret from family members to prevent conflict
B
The document should be written in technical medical terminology to ensure accuracy
C
The document should be regularly reviewed and updated as necessary
D
None of the above

C
The document should be regularly reviewed and updated as necessary

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Which beam modifier is used to shape the beam to match the irregular shape of the tumor?
A
Wedge filter
B
MLC
C
Compensator
D
Bolus

B
MLC

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Which of the following is an example of indirect contact transmission?
A
Coughing or sneezing
B
Touching contaminated objects
C
Sexual contact
D
Sneezing

B
Touching contaminated objects

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What is fractionation?
A
The total dose of radiation delivered in multiple treatments over the course of days or weeks
B
The delivery of radiation therapy in a single fraction
C
The number of beams used in radiation therapy
D
The amount of radiation given in each fraction

The total dose of radiation delivered in multiple treatments over the course of days or weeks

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What is a potential complication of radiation therapy that can affect a patient’s ability to eat and drink normally?
A
Xerostomia
B
Polyuria
C
Hyperglycemia
D
Hypokalemia

A
Xerostomia

hypokalemia (low potassium)
polyuria (excessive urination)
hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels

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What is the difference between disinfection and sterilization in the context of infection control?
A
Disinfection kills all microorganisms, while sterilization only kills some
B
Disinfection reduces the number of microorganisms, while sterilization kills all microorganisms
C
Disinfection only kills bacteria, while sterilization kills all microorganisms
D
Disinfection and sterilization are the same thing

B
Disinfection reduces the number of microorganisms, while sterilization kills all microorganisms

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Which of the following is a type of contrast media that is radiopaque and used in imaging studies of the gastrointestinal tract?
A
Iodinated contrast media
B
Water-soluble contrast media
C
Barium sulfate
D
Non-ionic contrast media

C
Barium sulfate

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What organ is primarily responsible for removing creatinine from the body?
A
Liver
B
Lungs
C
Pancreas
D
Kidneys

D
Kidneys

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What stage of TNM staging is characterized by a large tumor that has spread to lymph nodes and other parts of the body?
A
Stage II
B
Stage III
C
Stage IV
D
Stage V
Next

C
Stage IV

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Which type of contrast media is used for MRI?
A
Iodinated contrast media
B
Barium sulfate
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Gadolinium-based

D
Gadolinium-based

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Which of the following is an appropriate way to disinfect equipment in radiation therapy?
A
Wiping with a dry cloth
B
Rinsing with water
C
Using a low-level disinfectant spray
D
Using a high-level disinfectant solution

D
Using a high-level disinfectant solution

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Which laboratory value is an indicator of kidney function?
A
Hemoglobin
B
BUN
C
White blood cell count
D
Platelet count

B
BUN

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Which of the following is a risk factor for developing severe systemic effects of contrast media?
A
Age over 50 years
B
History of asthma
C
History of hypertension
D
All of the above

D
All of the above

Hypertension (high blood pressure)

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What’s a potential risk associated with the use of ionic contrast media?
A
Nephrotoxicity
B
Anaphylactic reaction
C
Gastrointestinal perforation
D
All of the above

B
Anaphylactic reaction

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What is the tolerance dose of the heart?
A
30 Gy
B
40 Gy
C
50 Gy
D
60 Gy

B
40 Gy

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Which of the following is a viral infection that is associated with cervical cancer?
A
Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
B
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
C
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

B
Human papilloma virus (HPV)

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Which of the following radioactive materials is commonly used in brachytherapy?
A
Radium-226
B
Iodine-131
C
Cobalt-60
D
Cesium-137

D
Cesium-137 (brachytherapy for cancer of the cervix or uterus)

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Which of the following is an example of vector-borne transmission?
A
Contact with infected body fluids
B
Coughing or sneezing
C
Bites from infected insects or animals
D
Touching contaminated object

C
Bites from infected insects or animals

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Which of the following is a legal document that outlines an individual’s preferences for medical treatment in the event they are unable to communicate those preferences themselves?
A
Living will
B
Healthcare proxy
C
Advanced directive
D
All of the above

D
All of the above

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Which of the following is a type of machine-produced radiation commonly used in radiation therapy for superficial tumors?
A
Gamma rays
B
Proton beams
C
Electron beams
D
Neutron beams

C
Electron beams

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What does LET stand for?
A
Linear Energy Transfer
B
Longitudinal Exposure Time
C
Low Energy Therapy
D
Long Exposure Time

A
Linear Energy Transfer

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What is infiltration during IV administration?
A
The escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel
B
The leakage of a drug into surrounding tissue during IV administration
C
The hardening of a vein due to repeated IV injections
D
The inflammation of a vein caused by a blood clot

B
The leakage of a drug into surrounding tissue during IV administration

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Which of the following is a characteristic of intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)? A Uses electrons to deliver radiation B Delivers constant radiation dose to the entire treatment area C Allows for varying radiation intensities within the treatment area D Is only used for superficial tumors

Allows for varying radiation intensities within the treatment area

Which process helps to generate machine-produced radiation? A Radioactive decay B Nuclear fission C Electron acceleration D Nuclear fusion

C Electron acceleration

What is x-ray beam quality? A The quantity of x-rays produced by a machine B The energy of the x-ray photons in a beam C The direction of the x-ray beam D The speed at which the x-ray photons travel

B The energy of the x-ray photons in a beam

What is the target material used in a linear accelerator to produce high-energy photons for radiation therapy? A Tungsten B Lead C Cobalt D Iron

A Tungsten

What is the speed of light in a vacuum? A 3 x 10^6 m/s B 3 x 10^8 m/s C 3 x 10^10 m/s D 3 x 10^12 m/s

B 3 x 10^8 m/s

What happens to the energy of a photon as its wavelength decreases? A The energy decreases B The energy remains constant C The energy increases D It depends on the source of the photon

C The energy increases

How does hypoxia (lack of oxygen in tissue) affect radiation therapy? A It has no effect on radiation therapy B It decreases the effectiveness of radiation therapy C It increases the effectiveness of radiation therapy D It causes more side effects from radiation therapy

B It decreases the effectiveness of radiation therapy

If a patient is moved from a distance of 100 cm to 50 cm from the radiation source, how much will the radiation dose increase? A The radiation dose will double B The radiation dose will quadruple C The radiation dose will increase six times D The radiation dose will eight times

B The radiation dose will quadruple

Which photon interaction process is responsible for most of the radiation dose to the patient during KV imaging procedures? A Compton scattering B Photoelectric effect C Pair production D None of the above

B Photoelectric effect

Which photon interaction process occurs with low-energy photons and involves the incident photon being absorbed completely by an inner-shell electron, which is then ejected from the atom? A Compton scattering B Pair production C Photoelectric effect D Photodisintegration

C Photoelectric effect

How many rad is equal to 1 Gray? A 10 B 100 C 1000 D 10000

B 100

What is the SI unit for equivalent dose? A Rad B Rem C RBE D Sievert

D Sievert

Which of the following describes a linear dose-response relationship? A The response increases proportionally to the dose B The response decreases proportionally to the dose C The response remains constant regardless of the dose D There is no relationship between the response and the dose

A The response increases proportionally to the dose

Which of the following radiation units takes into account the biological effects of different types of radiation? A Gray B Sievert C Coulomb per kilogram D Becquerel

B Sievert

Which of the following is true regarding LET and RBE? A High LET radiation has higher RBE than low LET radiation B Low LET radiation has a higher RBE than high LET radiation C LET and RBE are unrelated D LET and RBE have an inverse relationship

A High LET radiation has higher RBE than low LET radiation

Which type of radiation is most affected by oxygen enhancement? A X-rays B Alpha Particles C Neutrons D Protons

A X-rays

Which of the following is a deterministic effect of radiation exposure? A Leukemia B Lymphoma C Cancer D Skin erythema

D Skin erythema Deterministic effects occur when the number of cells lost is sufficiently large and affects the function of the organ. The probability of the effect is zero below a threshold dose, and the severity of harm also increases above this threshold dose

Secondary barriers in radiation therapy treatment rooms are designed to protect against which of the following? A Scattered radiation B Direct radiation C Primary radiation D All of the above

A Scattered radiation

Which of the following is the primary rationale for using shielding in radiation therapy? A To reduce patient dose B To protect staff from radiation exposure C To reduce scatter radiation D All of the above

D All of the above

What is the most common type of shielding use in the walls and ceiling of a radiation therapy treatment room? A Lead B Concrete C Steel D Aluminum

B Concrete

What is the purpose of the detector array in a CT simulation machine? A To generate the x-ray beam B To record the radiation dose delivered to the patient C To receive the x-ray photons after they pass through the patient D To calculate the patient's radiation dose

C To receive the x-ray photons after they pass through the patient

What are some examples of ALARA measures in radiation therapy? A Use of shielding, reducing exposure time, and increasing distance B Increasing exposure time, higher dose rates, decreasing distance C Using lower energy photons, increasing mAs, using less shielding D Using higher energy photons, increasing kVp, and increasing distance

A Use of shielding, reducing exposure time, and increasing distance

What is a restricted area in radiation safety? A An area where radiation levels are low and there are no restrictions B An area where radiation levels are high and only authorized personnel are allowed C An area where radiation levels are moderate and visitors are allowed if they where an OSL D An area where patients can wait for treatment

B An area where radiation levels are high and only authorized personnel are allowed

Which of the following is true regarding the effect of mAs on patient dose? (Select all that apply) A Increasing mAs will decrease patient dose B Increasing mAs will increase patient dose C Decreasing mAs will decrease patient dose D Decreasing mAs will increase patient dose

B Increasing mAs will increase patient dose C Decreasing mAs will decrease patient dose

What is the role of a radiation safety officer? A To operate radiation therapy equipment B To ensure that radiation safety guidelines are followed C To measure radiation levels after every treatment D To create proper radiation therapy plans using ALARA principles

B To ensure that radiation safety guidelines are followed

Which of the following is a recommended practice for personnel monitoring in radiation therapy, according to the NCRP? A Monitoring should be done only for workers who are likely to receive high doses of radiation B Monitoring should be done regularly for all workers who are expected to receive 10% of effective dose equivalent C Monitoring should be done only for workers who handle radioactive sources D Monitoring is not necessary in radiation therapy due to the shielding requirements

B Monitoring should be done regularly for all workers who are expected to receive 10% of effective dose equivalent

Which of the following is a source of public exposure to ionizing radiation? A Nuclear medicine imaging B Radioactive waste disposal C Cosmic radiation D All of the above

D All of the above

What is the maximum permissible dose for a member of the public of the US in a year who is not often around radiation sources? A 1 mSv B 5 mSv C 50 mSv D 100 mSv

B 5 mSv

Which of the following organs is not part of the digestive system? A Liver B Pancreas C Spleen D Stomach

C Spleen

According to the NCRP, what is the recommended maximum annual dose limit for occupational exposure to ionizing radiation? A 5 rem B 10 rem C 25 rem D 50 rem

B 10 rem

Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Hodgkin lymphoma? A Reed-Sternberg cells B Bence Jones proteins C Starry-sky appearance D Hypersegmented neutrophils

A Reed-Sternberg cells

What is the function of the waveguide in the linac? A To shape and focus the electron beam B To produce X-rays C To convert electrons to X-rays D To increase the energy of the electron beam

D To increase the energy of the electron beam

The most common primary brain tumor in adults is: A Glioblastoma B Meningioma C Schwannoma D Ependymoma

A Glioblastoma

The brainstem consists of which three structures? A Medulla oblongata, pons, cerebellum B Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain C Pons, midbrain, cerebellum D Medulla oblongata, midbrain, cerebellum

B Medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain Descending order Midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

Which of the following lymph node groups is commonly involved in head and neck cancer? A Axillary lymph nodes B Inguinal lymph nodes C Cervical lymph nodes D Popliteal lymph nodes

C Cervical lymph nodes

Which agency regulates the disposal of radioactive materials in the United States? A Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) C Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) D Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

B Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

What is the Gross Tumor Volume (GTV) in radiation therapy? A The visible tumor on imaging studies B The area surrounding the tumor C The area where the tumor has spread D The area that may contain microscopic disease

A The visible tumor on imaging studies

The most common type of head and neck cancer is: A Adenocarcinoma B Small cell carcinoma C Squamous cell carcinoma D Neuroendocrine carcinoma

C Squamous cell carcinoma

Which of the following is the most common type of breast cancer? A Ductal carcinoma in situ B Inflammatory breast cancer C Invasive ductal carcinoma D Lobular carcinoma in situ

C Invasive ductal carcinoma

Which of the following parameters in CT simulation is responsible for determining image brightness? A mA B Slice thickness C Window level D Window width

C Window level

Which of the following is not a risk factor for lung cancer? A Smoking B Radon exposure C Air pollution D Alcohol consumption

D Alcohol consumption

What is the primary difference between external beam radiation therapy and brachytherapy? A External beam radiation therapy is delivered from inside the body, while brachytherapy is delivered from outside the body B External beam radiation therapy is delivered from outside the body, while brachytherapy is delivered from inside the body C External beam radiation therapy is only used for certain types of cancer, while brachytherapy can be used for any type of cancer D External beam radiation therapy is always administered in a single dose, while brachytherapy is administered over several weeks.

B External beam radiation therapy is delivered from outside the body, while brachytherapy is delivered from inside the body

Which of the following statements about leukemia is true? A Leukemia is a type of lymphoma B Leukemia only affects children C Leukemia only affects adults D Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cells

D Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cells

Which of the following is a potential complication of breast cancer treatment? A Lymphedema B Hyperthyroidism C Diabetes mellitus D Hypertension

A Lymphedema (swelling of lymph node) Lymphedema is most commonly caused by lymph node removal or damage due to cancer treatment. Hyperthyroidism: overproduction of hormones in the thyroid Hypertension: also known as high or raised blood pressure,

Which grading system is commonly used to grade prostate cancer? A Gleason grading system B Ann Arbor grading system C Nottingham grading system D Duke's grading system

A Gleason grading system

Which staging system is used for ovarian cancer? A Gleason B Nottingham C FIGO D TNM

C FIGO

What does the "T" in TNM staging stand for? A Tumor size B Tumor grade C Tumor type D Tumor location

A Tumor size

What is the purpose of image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT)? A To deliver radiation in multiple small doses over a longer period of time B To deliver a high dose of radiation to a specific area while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue C To track the position of the tumor before treatment and adjust the patient position as needed D To monitor the surface of the patient during treatment

C To track the position of the tumor before treatment and adjust the patient position as needed

How does beam energy effect radiation therapy? A Higher energy beams penetrate deeper into the body B Higher energy beams have less skin sparing C Lower energy beams penetrate deeper into the body D Lower energy beams have more skin sparing

A Higher energy beams penetrate deeper into the body

What does the "N" in TNM staging stand for? A Nerve involvement B Lymph node involvement C Tumor necrosis D Tumor nodularity

B Lymph node involvement

What is the difference between IMRT and VMAT? A IMRT fields are stationary, while VMAT fields move around the patient B VMAT fields are stationary, while IMRT fields move around the patient C IMRT fields use moving MLCs, while VMAT uses stationary MLCs D VMT fields use moving MLCs, while IMRT uses stationary MLCs

A IMRT fields are stationary, while VMAT fields move around the patient

What is the main purpose of intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)? A To deliver a high dose of radiation to a specific area while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue B To deliver radiation in multiple small doses over a longer period of time C To deliver a lower dose of radiation to a larger area to prevent cancer from spreading D To deliver radiation in a single high dose to eliminate cancer cells quickly.

A To deliver a high dose of radiation to a specific area while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue

What does SGRT stand for? A Surface Guided Radiation Therapy B Stereotactic Guided Radiation Therapy C Systematic Guided Radiation Therapy D Symptomatic Guided Radiation Therapy

A Surface Guided Radiation Therapy

Which of the following imaging techniques is commonly used to show cross-sectional images? A X-ray B MRI C CT D PET

B MRI C CT

What is the purpose of classifying radiation areas? A To limit the amount of radiation exposure to personnel and the public B To determine which areas need to be cleaned more frequently C To ensure disposal of radioactive materials D To limit who can enter the hospital

A To limit the amount of radiation exposure to personnel and the public

Which type of contrast media is used for imaging blood vessels in CT simulation? A Iodinated contrast media B Barium sulfate C Gadolinium-based D Carbon dioxide

A Iodinated contrast media

Which lymph node group is commonly involved in lung cancer metastasis? A Axillary lymph nodes B Inguinal lymph nodes C Mediastinal lymph nodes D Cervical lymph nodes

C Mediastinal lymph nodes

Which of the following might be a main risk of using iodinated contrast? (Select all that apply) A Allergic reaction B Kidney damage C Liver damage D Heart damage

A Allergic reaction B Kidney damage

What is gating in radiation therapy? A The use of metal shields to protect healthy tissue from radiation B The use of a device to measure radiation dose during treatment C The process of adjusting the position of the radiation beam during treatment D The use of a breathing device to monitor patient respiration during treatment

D The use of a breathing device to monitor patient respiration during treatment

The spinal cord ends at which vertebral level in adults? A L1-L2 B L2-L3 C L3-L4 D L4-L5

A L1-L2

What is the purpose of using a window width in a CT simulation? A To determine the thickness of the slice B To determine the orientation of the slice C To determine the range of CT numbers displayed D To determine the amount of contrast media used

C To determine the range of CT numbers displayed or the contrast on a CT Image The effect of a wide window will decrease contrast media

What is the main difference between kV imaging and MV imaging in a LINAC? A The energy of the photons used B The number of photons used C The imaging duration D Only kV imaging can be used for IGRT

A The energy of the photons used

What is the total target dose in radiation therapy? A The dose given in a single treatment session B The dose given at the end of each week of treatment C The dose given at the start of each week of treatment D The cumulative dose delivered over the entire treatment course

D The cumulative dose delivered over the entire treatment course

Which of the following are true about SSD and SAD? (Select all that apply) A SSD is the distance from the source to the surface of the patient, while SAD is the distance from the source to the axis of rotation B SSD is the distance from the source to the axis of rotation, while SAD is the distance from the source to the surface of the patient C SSD would require TMR for MU calculations, while SAD would require SSD for MU calculations D SSD would require PDD for MU calculations, while SAD would require TMR for MU calculations

A SSD is the distance from the source to the surface of the patient, while SAD is the distance from the source to the axis of rotation D SSD would require PDD for MU calculations, while SAD would require TMR for MU calculations

Which beam modifier is used near the source of radiation to deliver a more uniform dose to the target volume while accounting for tissue inhomogeneities? A MLC B Compensator C Bolus D Beam spoiler

B Compensator

What is the Clinical Target Volume (CTV) in radiation therapy? A The visible tumor on imaging studies B The area surrounding the tumor C The area that may contain microscopic disease D The area where the tumor has spread

C The area that may contain microscopic disease

Which beam modifier is used to increase the dose to the skin surface and shallow tumors? A Wedge filter B MLC C Bolus D Compensator

C Bolus