Patient Care Flashcards by Kenneth Ewin

Due to an illness, the patient’s left side is weak. The therapist should:

A
Lift the patient carefully onto the table
B
Let the patient manage without assistance
C
Position the right side closer to the table
D
Position the left side closer to the table

C
Position the right side closer to the table

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient has disseminated cancer, what is the best mode of treatment?
A
Radiation
B
Watch and wait
C
Chemotherapy
D
Surgery

C
Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Benign tumors are only dangerous to the patient if they
A
Are numerous in number and location
B
Pressing on critical organs
C
Are not completely excised
D
Are left untreated

B
Pressing on critical organs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A malignant tumor may spread to distant parts of the body through local invasion
A
True
B
False

B
False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

General physical wasting and malnutrition due to a disease:
A
Anorexia
B
Cachexia
C
Anemia
D
Hypoxia

B
Cachexia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Etiology is defined as
A
The study of what causes a disease
B
The study of who gets a disease
C
The study of how many people get a disease
D
The study of screening tools for a disease

A
The study of what causes a disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tumor grade measures spread of cancer
A
True
B
False

B
False
The grade of a tumor provides information about its aggressive- ness and is based on the degree of differentiation.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What precautions would be taken for a patient with tuberculosis?
A
Standard
B
Contact
C
Droplet
D
Airborne

D
Airborne

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of consent is typical for emergency situations?
A
Written consent
B
Verbal consent
C
Implied consent
D
Inadequate consent

C
Implied consent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A document that defines the patient’s health care choices when they are terminally sick:
A
Health Care Proxy
B
Patient’s Bill of Rights
C
Living Will
D
Express Consent

C
Living Will

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sedating a patient for his or her treatment without a doctor’s order is an example of:
A
Negligence
B
False Imprisonment
C
Slander
D
Battery

B
False Imprisonment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is the correct order of the grieving process as defined by Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?
A
Anger, Denial, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
B
Depression, Bargaining, Denial, Anger, Acceptance
C
Denial, Depression, Bargaining, Anger, Acceptance
D
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

D
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The stage of grieving that can be exemplified by a person mourning their life prior to disease and appears more quiet is most likely:
A
Depression
B
Anger
C
Denial
D
Acceptance

A
Depression

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At least how much bone marrow must be within radiation treatment field for bone marrow depression to occur?
A
10%
B
25%
C
50%
D
80%

B
25%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is considered a vector?
A
Animal
B
Food
C
Water
D
Medication

A
Animal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An infection caused by a dog bite would be considered:
A
Airborne
B
Droplet
C
Vehicle borne
D
Vector borne

D
Vector borne

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are considered pathogens?
A
Bacteria
B
Fungi
C
Viruses
D
Parasites
E
All of the above

E
All of the above
Bacteria
Fungi
Viruses
Parasites

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a common symptom of orthostatic hypotension?
A
Dizziness or lightheadedness
B
Rapid breathing
C
Elevated body temperature
D
Muscle stiffness

A
Dizziness or lightheadedness

Orthostatic Hypotension - a form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
A
Healthcare worker
B
Patient
C
Protozoa
D
Water

C
Protozoa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is needed for indirect contact to occur?
1. Vector
2. Vehicles
3. Droplets
4. Fomites
A
1 & 2
B
1 & 3
C
2 & 3
D
1, 2 & 4

D
1, 2 & 4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Influenza spreads mainly through which method of transmission?
A
Direct contact
B
Indirect contact
C
Droplet
D
Airborne

C
Droplet

Influenza - flu

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The term used for a heartbeat lower than the average rate is:
A
Hypovolemic
B
Hypervolemic
C
Bradycardia
D
Tachycardia

C
Bradycardia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following would be MOST likely used for a patient receiving radiation to the head and neck and is having difficulty eating?
A
Ileostomy
B
NG Tube
C
PEG Tube
D
Catheter

C
PEG Tube

NG TUBE (Nasogastric Intubation; through nose)

Ileostomy (intestinal waste passes out of the ileostomy and is collected in a external colostomy bag)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pain, numbness, dysphagia, dyspnea, difficulty sleeping and lack of appetite are examples of
A
Subjective findings
B
Objective findings

A
Subjective findings (Subjective data is considered a symptom because it is something the patient reports)

Objective findings (medical evidence means signs, laboratory findings, or both, from a medical source)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During a physical exam, striking or tapping the patient gently in order to see if there is pain in underlying tissue or cause vibration is known as A Palpation B Percussion C Auscultation D Inspection

B Percussion Palpation (Examination by pressing on the surface of the body to feel the organs or tissues underneath.) Auscultation (is a method used to listen to the sounds of the body during a physical examination by using a stethoscope.)

Which of the following are NOT sterile areas in a surgical room? (Select all that apply) A From the waist up B From the waist down C Person's back D Person's front

B From the waist down C Person's back

Which of the following PPE should be put on first? A Gloves B Goggles C Gown D Mask

C Gown

Which of the following PPE should be put on last? A Gloves B Goggles C Gown D Mask

A Gloves

Which blood test is specific to prostate health and is commonly used to screen for prostate cancer? A CBC B BUN C PSA D TSH

C PSA CBC (Complete Blood Count) TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)(Test) BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen test) *kidney checks for creatinine

Which of the following PPE should be removed first? A Gloves B Goggles C Gown D Mask

A Gloves

Which of the following PPE should be removed last? A Gloves B Goggles C Gown D Mask

D Mask

If a test can detect cancer at very early stages it is: A Sensitive B Specific C Detailed D Screening

A Sensitive

If a test can detect a particular type of cancer it is: A Sensitive B Specific C Detailed D Screening

B Specific

Which type of contrast media is most commonly used for gastrointestinal imaging studies? A Barium sulfate B Iodinated contrast C Gadolinium D Carbon dioxide

A Barium sulfate

The blood cell that helps form clots: A Red blood cell B White blood cell C Hemoglobin D Platelets

D Platelets

A tumor marker test for testicular cancers is: A CA-125 B PSA C HCG D AFP

C HCG CA-125 (Ovarian Cancer)

The stage of an ARS when the patient experiences no symptoms is: A Prodromal B Latent C Manifest D Recovery

B Latent Prodromal (refers to the early stage and symptoms of any condition) Manifest (there symptoms depends on the specific syndrome and last for hours up to several months)

Which of the following is an example of a vector? A A fly B A needle C A contaminated table D A healthcare worker

A A fly

Which of the following is an example of a portal of exit? A A wound B A respiratory tract C A fomite D A vector

B A respiratory tract

A tumor marker test for liver cancers is: A CA-125 B PSA C AFP D HCG

C AFP Alpha Fetoprotein

Which of the following is an example of a fomite? A Mosquito B Contaminated eye shield C Airborne droplets D New Choice E Direct contact

B Contaminated eye shield

Which blood test is used to asses kidney function and measure the level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood? A CBC B BUN C PSA D TSH

B BUN

Which of the following imaging types can be used for image guidance biopsies? A Ultrasound B CT C MRI D All of the above

D All of the above

A tumor margin that signifies cancer is not found around the tumor is: A Positive B Negative C Close D Specific

B Negative

The stage of an ARS when the patient experiences nausea and vomiting is: A Prodromal B Latent C Manifest D Recovery

A Prodromal

Which type of contrast media is most commonly used in magnetic resonance imaging? A Barium sulfate B Iodinated contrast C Gadolinium D Carbon dioxide

C Gadolinium

Which type of contrast media is most commonly used in CT imaging for blood vessels? A Barium sulfate B Iodinated contrast C Gadolinium D Carbon dioxide

B Iodinated contrast`

Where should your Blood Urea Nitrogen(BUN) be at before getting contrast? A 6 - 24 mg/dL B 0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL C 0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL D over 60

A 6 - 24 mg/dL

Where should your Creatinine as a man be at before getting contrast? A 6 - 24 mg/dL B 0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL C 0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL D over 60

B 0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL

Where should your Creatinine as a woman be at before getting contrast? A 6 - 24 mg/dL B 0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL C 0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL D over 60

C 0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL

Where should your Estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate(eFGR) be at before getting contrast? A 6 - 24 mg/dL B 0.74 - 1.35 mg/dL C 0.59 - 1.04 mg/dL D over 60

D over 60

Which imaging modality is most suitable for visualizing soft tissues, such as the brain, spinal cord, and organs? A CT B MRI C PET D Radiography

B MRI

Which type of precaution is best for immunocompromised patients? A Airborne B Contact C Droplet D Reverse

D Reverse

Prior to the administration of contrast, blood tests are done to check which organ? A Liver B Heart C Kidneys D Brain

C Kidneys

What is the first link in the chain of infection? A Reservoir B Portal of Exit C Infectious Agent D Portal of Entry

C Infectious Agent

Which of the following is the most effective method of sterilization? A Chemical disinfection B High-level disinfection Which of the following is the most effective method of sterilization? C Steam under pressure (autoclaving) D Low-temperature steam and formaldehyde

C Steam under pressure (autoclaving)

Which imaging modality involves the injection of a radioactive tracer and provides functional information about the body's metabolism and physiological processes? A CT B MRI C PET D US

C PET

Which blood test measures the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in a sample of blood? A Complete Blood Count (CBC) B Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) C Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) D Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

A Complete Blood Count (CBC)

Which is an infectious agent in the chain of infection? A A mode of transmission B A place where the infectious agents can exit the body C A susceptible host D A microorganism that can cause an infection

D A microorganism that can cause an infection

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? A 30 compressions to 2 breaths B 15 compressions to 2 breaths C 10 compressions to 1 breath D 5 compressions to 1 breath

A 30 compressions to 2 breaths

What is the appropriate response for a radiation therapist when a patient shows signs of a diabetic reaction? A Give them insulin immediately B Offer them high-sugar foods or drinks C Call for medical assistance D Administer CPR

C Call for medical assistance

What is orthostatic hypotension? A A sudden increase in blood pressure when changing positions B A sudden decrease in blood pressure when changing positions C A sudden increase in heart rate when changing positions D A sudden decrease in heart rate when changing positions

B A sudden decrease in blood pressure when changing positions

A 60-80 compressions per minute B 100-120 compressions per minute C 140-160 compressions per minute D 180-200 compressions per minute

B 100-120 compressions per minute