Practice Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following exercises provides an example of a muscle’s ability to use stored energy?

A

Vertical jump

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2
Q

When using skin fold calipers to assess body composition, what is the increased risk of error with being as much as an inch from the appropriate site?

A

25%

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3
Q

Which coordinated muscle action does balance-stabilization training improve?

A

Co-contraction

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4
Q

A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?

A

Outcome-oriented

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5
Q

Many of the issues surrounding an athlete’s functional qualification for the use of Olympic lifts can be determined by performing which assessment?

A

Overhead squat assessment

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6
Q

Which of the following is considered a balance modality?

A

Sport beam

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7
Q

What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as established by the Institute of Medicine?

A

2,300 mg/day

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8
Q

When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training primarily occur?

A

In-season

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9
Q

What assessment is appropriate to determine the lateral speed and agility of an athlete?

A

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

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10
Q

Which of the following is an input that the Human Movement System uses to establish balance?

A

Visual

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11
Q

Which of the following is true regarding casein?

A

80% of the proteins in milk

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12
Q

Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies?

A

Mastery-oriented

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13
Q

Winning the Stanley Cup is an example of which of the following?

A

Extrinsic motivation

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14
Q

A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?

A

Outcome-oriented

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15
Q

What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete’s heart rate(HR)?

A

HR goes up

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16
Q

According to the text, which type of mental imagery is MOST effective for improving sports performance?

A

Kinesthetic

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17
Q

Which of the following is a common postural compensation when performing a clean and jerk with the bar overhead?

A

Excessive lumbar extension

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18
Q

Which of the following is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic athlete?

A

1,500 mg/day

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19
Q

Which of the following is a serious risk associated with blood doping?

A

Bacterial infections

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20
Q

If a beginner athlete sprints 15 yards during week 1 of Phase 1 SAQ training, how many yards should he be running by week 4?

A

20

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21
Q

What is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle?

A

Epimysium

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22
Q

Which programming is optimal for SAQ training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?

A

Completed on days in between strength training

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23
Q

The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following exercises?

A

Prone iso-abs

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24
Q

Symptoms such as stress fracture, muscle strain, joint and muscle pain, and emotional fatigue are largely due to which of the following?

A

Exhaustion

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25
Q

What muscles are probably overactive when an athlete’s low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

A

Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi

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26
Q

What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what happens in competition?

A

Sport-specific

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27
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, which of the following motions is occuring?

A

Internal/external rotation

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28
Q

Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time?

A

Strength and power

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29
Q

Which grade is recommended in downhill running for assisted speed drills?

A

5-6%

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30
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes?

A

1.6-1.8 g/kg/day

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31
Q

During the snatch, which of the following refers to the barbell being elevated from the knees to the area between mid-thigh and the pubic bone?

A

Shift

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32
Q

Which of the following must be taken over a period of weeks in conjunction with training to demonstrate an ergogenic effect?

A

Creatine

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33
Q

What is the term for the systematic approach to program design using the General Adaptation Syndrome and the principle of specificity to produce adaptations?

A

Periodization

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34
Q

Which answer is an example of how the continuum of function should be progressed?

A

Simple to complex

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35
Q

What principle states that when a muscle is stimulated to contract, it contracts completely?

A

All-or-none

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36
Q

Which of the following is a key role of protein?

A

Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues

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37
Q

The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, and adductor complex are classified as which of the following?

A

Global core stabilizers

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38
Q

If the squat jump exercise is performed with a 3-5 second hold upon landing, in which level of the OPT model does it belong?

A

Stabilization

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39
Q

Which sport would benefit from the inclusion of assisted drills in an SAQ program?

A

Football

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40
Q

Which of the following is a key role of protein?

A

Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues

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41
Q

What type of tissue develops in the body following an injury?

A

Scar

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42
Q

A tempo of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT model?

A

Stabilization Endurance

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43
Q

Sports-specific, integrated, progressive, and systematic are characteristics of which type of program?

A

Functional

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44
Q

Single-leg front-to-back hops might be done by an athlete in which phase of OPT?

A

5

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45
Q

Which of the following is correct when preparing for a back squat?

A

Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar

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46
Q

Which type of training overloads the stretch-shortening cycle to enhance neuromuscular efficiency, improve rate of force production, and reduce neuromuscular inhibition?

A

Plyometric

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47
Q

Which type of training is designed to enhance power and power-endurance while allowing the metabolic systems ample time to recover between each repetition?

A

Repeated sprint

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48
Q

What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance training for which they are unprepared?

A

Synergistic dominance

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49
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-strength exercise?

A

Back extension

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50
Q

Which of the following techniques is critical for maintaining stability in the sacroiliac joint?

A

Drawing-in maneuver

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51
Q

Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint training?

A

Stage 3

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52
Q

Which Olympic lift moves the load from the ground to overhead in one single effort?

A

Snatch

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53
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur?

A

Longitudinal

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54
Q

Which of the following ranges represents cardiac output during maximal exercise?

A

20-25 L/min

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55
Q

Which nutrient becomes the dominant fuel source when athletes train and compete at 65% or greater of their VO2max?

A

Carbohydrate

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56
Q

What is the most common sports-related injury, and the number one injury for time lost?

A

Ankle sprains

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57
Q

In which phase of a plyometric exercise must a muscle switch from overcoming force to producing it?

A

Amortization

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58
Q

What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting 45-120 seconds?

A

Muscle glycogen

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59
Q

Which of the following is a major benefit of the bent-knee achilles tendon stretch?

A

The gastrocnemius and the soleus are both stretched

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60
Q

What type of stretching helps improve soft tissue extensibility by taking the muscle to the point of tension and holding for 30 seconds?

A

Static

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61
Q

Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press?

A

Rotator cuff

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62
Q

Which of the following is the principle that states that faster motor units with larger axons are recruited second when more force and power are needed?

A

Henneman’s size principle

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63
Q

Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion?

A

Resisted knee drive

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64
Q

What is the duration that the average athlete will spend training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance?

A

4 weeks

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65
Q

Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g. barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint mechanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production?

A

Phase 5: Power

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66
Q

A coach focused on initiating structure and accomplishing a set of objectives and goals is using which type of leadership style?

A

Task-oriented

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67
Q

Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-marathon upper respiratory infection in runners?

A

Beta-glucans

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68
Q

Which of the following is 70% of an athlete’s age subtracted from in the HRmax regression formula?

A

208

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69
Q

During functional movements, which of the following is responsible for providing stabilization and eccentric control of the core?

A

Global stabilization system

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70
Q

When training in Phase 4: Maximal Strength, how many times per week should an athlete participate in resistance training?

A

2 to 4

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71
Q

According to NCAA Division 1 bylaws, which ergogenic aids can be provided to athletes by a university?

A

Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks

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72
Q

Which muscular system is predominantly involved in joint support and stabilization, and is not movement specific?

A

Local

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73
Q

Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements?

A

Stabilization

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74
Q

Which of the following happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during self-myofascial release?

A

Autogenic inhibition

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75
Q

Which of the following injuries often goes unrecognized and unreported?

A

Concussion

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76
Q

What is probably underactive for an athlete demonstrating low back arching during the pulling assessment?

A

Intrinsic core stabilizers

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77
Q

Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?

A

Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.

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78
Q

The focus of a core training program must be on which of the following?

A

Function

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79
Q

Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle?

A

Anterior talofibular

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80
Q

Why do females have a greater risk of ACL injury compared to males?

A

Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.

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81
Q

How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?

A

6-8 times

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82
Q

The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?

A

Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically

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83
Q

Which is the foundation from which a progressive sports performance training program is built?

A

Core training

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84
Q

When bracing is performed, which of the following has been activated?

A

Global stabilization system

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85
Q

Which exercise can help decrease perturbation and help achieve neuromuscular control?

A

Squat on a wobble board

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86
Q

Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for an athlete training in the Strength Level (Phases 2,3,4) of the OPT model?

A

Bench press

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87
Q

Which predictable pattern best describes the adaptation to stress the body follows to maintain a state of physiological balance (or homeostasis)?

A

General Adaptation Syndrome

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88
Q

Which type of feedback is used after the completion of an exercise to help inform the athlete about the outcome of what was just performed?

A

Knowledge of results

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89
Q

What is the proper progression for plyometric-strength exercises?

A

Repeat squat jumps, lunge jumps, power step-ups

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90
Q

Which of the following is a typical resting heart rate?

A

70 beats per minute

91
Q

Which of the following best describes an athlete training in a vertically loaded workout?

A

Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating

92
Q

Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?

A

Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.

93
Q

Which integrated training variable utilizes tubing, cable machines, or dumbbells?

A

External resistance

94
Q

Which antioxidants play a role in balancing the oxidative stress produced by free radicals during exercise?

A

C, E, beta carotene, selenium

95
Q

What refers to the rate at which any individual nerve fiber transmits impulses per unit of time?

A

Rate coding

96
Q

If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized?

A

Quickness

97
Q

Training the muscle and tendon’s ability to load eccentrically and rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

98
Q

Plyometric-strength exercises are designed to do which of the following?

A

Improve dynamic joint stabilization

99
Q

Which of the following techniques should a coach teach an athlete who struggles with physiological anxiety in pressure situations?

A

Breath control

100
Q

Which of the following exercises is performed in the frontal plane?

A

Ice skaters

101
Q

For NON-vegetarian strength athletes, how many g/kg body weight are recommended for protein intake?

A

1.6 to 1.7

102
Q

What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?

A

Balance-stabilization

103
Q

Which of the following is a contributor to subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)?

A

Bony deformity of the acromion

104
Q

A point guard who assesses the other team’s defense, calls a new play based on what he sees, and then imagines and executes his drive to the basket with a successful layup displays which of the following?

A

Shifting attentional focus

105
Q

When an athlete is thinking about who is in the stands during the competition, this is an example of which of the following?

A

Irrelevant cue

106
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover?

A

Synergistic dominance

107
Q

What is the first question athletes should ask when trying to determine whether or not they should use supplements recommended by teammates?

A

“Is it safe and ethical?”

108
Q

What is the maximum amount of rest to put in between sets for an athlete performing a single-leg balance reach?

A

90 sec

109
Q

Which of the following involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the spine through a full range of motion?

A

Core-strength exercises

110
Q

What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

A

Functional strength

111
Q

Question text
The heart pumps blood into the aorta from which of the following structures?

A

Left ventricle

112
Q

Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?

A

Beginning of the workout

113
Q

Which progression is recommended for drills focusing on agility/MDS?

A

Static, dynamic, reactive

114
Q

What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit?

A

Blood flow resistance

115
Q

Which of the following is a stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Resistance development

116
Q

Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations?

A

Muscular endurance

117
Q

Passive warming, using modalities such as heated pants or warming jackets, are most beneficial for which of the following situations?

A

Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets

118
Q

How many times per week should plyometric training be used with a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance athlete?

A

2-4

119
Q

Which of the following is the most important reason why high glycemic foods are recommended during the post exercise period?

A

To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion

120
Q

The muscle groups of the lateral subsystem function in which plane of motion?

A

Frontal

121
Q

Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain?

A

Syndesmotic ankle sprain

122
Q

What is the eccentric action of the gluteus medius, posterior fibers?

A

Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation

123
Q

Which of the following is an independent quality that contributes to an athlete’s power capacity?

A

Maximum strength

124
Q

When conducting a strength assessment, how long should an athlete rest between sets?

A

2 minutes

125
Q

When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?

A

Rational thinking

126
Q

What occurs when an activated muscle transitions from an eccentric contraction to a rapid concentric contraction?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

127
Q

What law describes how soft tissue models along the lines of stress?

A

Davis’s law

128
Q

Which of the following juices has been shown to exhibit potent anti-inflammatory and antioxidant effects?

A

Cherry

129
Q

When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?

A

Rational thinking

130
Q

What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance?

A

Pattern overload, aging, postural stress

131
Q

What is an effect of a lack of neuromuscular stabilization?

A

Altered force-couple relationships

132
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for plantar fasciitis?

A

Sudden increases in walking or running mileage

133
Q

What is the average resting heart rate for a male athlete?

A

70 beats per minute

134
Q

A coach who creates an outcome-oriented motivational climate implements rewards based on which of the following criteria?

A

Social comparisons

135
Q

Which stride length is optimal for maximal linear speed?

A

2.3-2.5 times athlete’s leg length

136
Q

Which implement is a form of external resistance?

A

Medicine ball

137
Q

What muscle(s) are likely to demonstrate decreased neural control following an ankle sprain?

A

Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus

138
Q

Which exercise is an example of a stabilization exercise?

A

Chest press on a stability ball

139
Q

Plyometric-stabilization exercises are designed to do which of the following?

A

Establish optimum landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular efficiency

140
Q

Which of the following selections describes a progression in an athlete’s plyometric training?

A

Single-leg

141
Q

Which kind of muscle contraction does balance-stabilization training primarily focus on?

A

Isometric

142
Q

Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-leg squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

A

Shark skill test

143
Q

Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations?

A

Muscular endurance

144
Q

Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature?

A

Snatch deadlift

145
Q

Which of the following statements describes the best strategy to achieve a positive protein balance?

A

Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts

146
Q

Which is the most difficult exercise in the single-leg balance reach progression?

A

Transverse plane balance reach

147
Q

What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?

A

6-15%

148
Q

Athletes who train very hard year round run the risk of compromising their immune system, thereby exposing them to the flu or common cold. Which of the following is most likely going to help them recover and keep these systems strong?

A

Glutamine

149
Q

Movement patterns that occur during plyometric exercise involve which of the following?

A

A series of stretch-shortening cycles

150
Q

Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth?

A

Leucine

151
Q

What is the smallest percentage of deformation of collagen tissue that can lead to micro-failure?

A

6%

152
Q

What is the eccentric action of the gluteus medius, posterior fibers?

A

Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation

153
Q

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of androgenic-anabolic steroid use in men?

A

Impaired glucose tolerance

154
Q

What three components make up the integrated flexibility continuum?

A

Corrective, active, functional flexibility

155
Q

An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury?

A

Patellar tendinopathy

156
Q

For a 30-year-old athlete using the regression method, which of the following is the low-end of heart rate training zone 2?

A

150

157
Q

Which of the following are Olympic competition lifts?

A

Clean and jerk and the snatch

158
Q

Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A?

A

Reduced bone mineral density

159
Q

If an athlete squats prior to performing a sagittal jump, which concept is employed?

A

Ballistic movement

160
Q

What is the loss of muscle fiber size called?

A

Atrophy

161
Q

The reverse crunch is categorized as what type of exercise?

A

Core-strength

162
Q

Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth?

A

Leucine

163
Q

Which exercise is considered a chest-stabilization exercise?

A

Push-up: feet on ball

164
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for plantar fasciitis?

A

Sudden increases in walking or running mileage

165
Q

Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves?

A

Transverse

166
Q

What is a primary adaptation of plyometric training?

A

Increased motor unit recruitment

167
Q

Which of the following is the ultimate goal of plyometric training?

A

To improve the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum

168
Q

In addition to its psychological benefits, which of the following strategies actually stimulates muscle contractions?

A

Imagery

169
Q

When administering the squat assessment, what is the appropriate increase in external resistance?

A

10-20% of initial load

170
Q

What is the typical body fat range for female tennis players?

A

21-25%

171
Q

Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the lifter drops rapidly into a squat position, moving the feet quickly sideways and extending the arms overhead to catch the bar and stop its descent?

A

Amortization and catch

172
Q

Which implement is a form of external resistance?

A

Medicine ball

173
Q

Which tempo best corresponds to increases in maximal power?

A

As fast as can be controlled

174
Q

Which of the following best defines the process which brings oxygen from the air, across the alveolar membrane, and into the blood to be carried by hemoglobin?

A

Pulmonary ventilation

175
Q

What is the ability of the Human Movement System to have optimal ROM in order to prevent injury and enhance functional efficiency?

A

Flexibility

176
Q

What is the amount of time an athlete traditionally spends performing core-stabilization exercises?

A

4 weeks

177
Q

What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?

A

6-15%

178
Q

Which of the following represents a necessary joint range of motion prerequisite for Olympic lifts?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion of 20 degrees

179
Q

To develop higher levels of stability, the best way an athlete can train is with which specific forms of exercise?

A

Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment

180
Q

Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A?

A

Reduced bone mineral density

181
Q

What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete’s training program?

A

Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination

182
Q

Which athletes have the greatest risk for low vitamin D status?

A

Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure

183
Q

An electromechanical delay in which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction is known as which of the following?

A

Amortization phase

184
Q

Which formula is used as a simple method to estimate an athlete’s maximum heart rate?

A

220 minus age

185
Q

In which level of the OPT model is core training optional but recommended?

A

Strength

186
Q

Which phase of the OPT model utilizes balance-stabilization exercises?

A

1

187
Q

Where should a one-person spotter stand during a back squat?

A

Directly behind the lifter, hands on the lifter’s hips

188
Q

Which sport-specific drill is recommended for basketball, hockey, and volleyball?

A

Push-up sprint

189
Q

Which drill progression is recommended for push-up sprints?

A

Have two athletes race

190
Q

Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance level of training?

A

Standing cable chest press

191
Q

Which drill progression is recommended for push-up sprints?

A

Have two athletes race

192
Q

What is the preferred location for assessing resting heart rate?

A

Radial pulse

193
Q

What is the term used for the technique that recruits local core stabilizers by pulling the navel in toward the spine?

A

Drawing-in maneuver

194
Q

How many repetitions of plyometric exercises will an athlete training in Phase 3: Hypertrophy perform in each set?

A

8 to 10

195
Q

Which of the following is the ability of the central nervous system to gather and interpret sensory information to execute the proper motor response?

A

Sensorimotor integration

196
Q

Which exercise is considered a chest-stabilization exercise?

A

Push-up: feet on ball

197
Q

What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete’s training program?

A

Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination

198
Q

Once an individual can correctly perform the drawing-in maneuver in a supine position, which of the following is the next progression?

A

Supine with marching

199
Q

When implementing concussion prevention programming, which of the following strategies can a trainer use to mitigate the effects of a concussive injury?

A

Strengthening the neck musculature in all planes of motion

200
Q

For which phase of training is single-leg balance reach: frontal plane most appropriate?

A

Phase 1

201
Q

What refers to the relationship of a muscle’s ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities?

A

Force-velocity curve

202
Q

What are muscles that work in direct opposition to the prime mover called?

A

Antagonist

203
Q

What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit?

A

Blood flow resistance

204
Q

Which of the following is the best strength exercise for an athlete who is new to resistance training?

A

Supported dumbbell row

205
Q

In which phases of the OPT model is it appropriate to use Olympic competition lifts?

A

Phases 5 and 6

206
Q

Following a cycle of training in OPT Phase 5, what is the next progression to produce the highest levels of acceleration and rate of force production?

A

Maximal power training

207
Q

Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-leg squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

A

Shark skill test

208
Q

Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the lifter drops rapidly into a squat position, moving the feet quickly sideways and extending the arms overhead to catch the bar and stop its descent?

A

Amortization and catch

209
Q

Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain?

A

Syndesmotic ankle sprain

210
Q

Endurance athletes and those with small body mass and large sodium losses are at risk for which condition?

A

Hyponatremia

211
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of selective attention?

A

Ability to focus on relevant cues

212
Q

Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance level of training?

A

Standing cable chest press

213
Q

Training for optimum muscle function in all planes of motion, and utilizing the stretch-shortening cycle are part of what type of training?

A

Integrated training

214
Q

Once an individual can correctly perform the drawing-in maneuver in a supine position, which of the following is the next progression?

A

Supine with marching

215
Q

Among athletes who have a history of ankle sprain, what percentage of athletes are expected to re-sprain their ankle?

A

47-73%

216
Q

An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury?

A

Patellar tendinopathy

217
Q

Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature?

A

Snatch deadlift

218
Q

Which of the following is the last energy supply to be used?

A

Muscle glycogen + fatty acids

219
Q

Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative energy system?

A

Soccer

220
Q

Why should supplements like creatine, beta-alanine, and nitric-oxide boosters NOT be recommended to athletes who are minors?

A

Most safety tests don’t test minors

221
Q

A well-rounded active flexibility program utilizes which three techniques?

A

Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and neuromuscular stretching

222
Q

Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?

A

Beginning of the workout

223
Q

What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance?

A

Pattern overload, aging, postural stress

224
Q

When training for hypertrophy, what is the appropriate intensity at which resistance training should occur?

A

75-85%