Practice Exam 1 Review

Question 1

What are the 4 stages of fire?

Answer 1

1. Incipient - The first stage where the source of ignition and fuel come together
2. Growth - the fire has established itself and is burning self-sufficiently.
3. Fully Developed - at its hottest point and is engulfing all of its available fuel sources.
4. Decay - when the fire runs out of oxygen or fuel for it to sustain itself.

Question 2

Job Enrichment

Answer 2

Vertical expansion of the roles, responsibilities, authority and activities. Increased level of responsibility.

Question 3

Job Enlargement

Answer 3

A horizontal expansion of duties and tasks across the same organizational level. Same level of responsibility.

Question 4

Variance

Answer 4

The average of the squared differences from the Mean

Question 5

Kolberg’s Stages of Moral Development

Answer 5

1. Preconventional Stage - a child’s sense of morality is externally controlled. Focuses largely on external consequences that certain actions may bring.
2. Conventional Stage - a child’s sense of morality is tied to personal and societal relationships.
3. Postconventional Stage - a person’s sense of morality is defined in terms of more abstract principles and values. People now believe that some laws are unjust and should be changed or eliminated.

Question 6

Maintaining accurate safety records and documenting health and safety improvements can assist an employer in proving.

Answer 6

Due diligence

Question 7

The Ontario Occupational Health and Safety Act allows for two forms of stop work provisions. They include:

Answer 7

Bilateral and unilateral declaration

Question 8

The goals of Return To Work (RTW) programs include all of the following:

Answer 8

a) To return an injured worker to work as soon as possible mark
b) To return an injured worker to his or her pre-injury earnings
c) To decrease the length of lost time claims

Question 9

An important component of a RTW program is the completion of:

Answer 9

Physical demands analysis

Question 10

Safety severity ratios are calculated using the following:

Answer 10

Hours worked and number of days lost to injury

Question 11

When assessing the noise hazards present in a heavy machinery manufacturing plant, one would most likely consider:

Answer 11

Exposure periods, criterion levels, and exchange rates

Question 12

The _____________ includes the company’s annual profit.

Answer 12

The income statement

Question 13

Recruitment & Selection - Selection Ratio

Answer 13

The number of hired compared to the number of candidates considered.

Question 14

Recruitment & Selection - Yield Ratio

Answer 14

of hireable candidates / total candidates

Question 15

Recruitment & Selection - Base Rate

Answer 15

The number of applicants who could potentially be hired because they meet all required qualifications.

Question 16

Recruitment & Selection - The Candidate Pool

Answer 16

The total number of people who have applied for an open position.

Question 17

Costs for maintaining classroom facilities year-round, or for the purchase of projectors, televisions, and VCRs for the training department, are examples of:

Answer 17

Overhead costs

Question 18

Direct Cost

Answer 18

Expenses that directly go into producing goods or services.

E.g., direct labour, direct materials, and manufacturing supplies

Question 19

Indirect Cost

Answer 19

General business expenses that keep you operating.

E.g., Rent, utilities, & general office expenses

Question 20

During the certification process, a signed authorization card indicates that:

Answer 20

The employee is willing to be represented by the union.

Question 21

Rights Arbitration

Answer 21

Also known as grievance arbitration, deals with disputes involving the interpretation and application of an existing collective agreement, as well as disputes over the discipline or dismissal of an employee. The decision of the impartial arbitrator becomes a binding arbitration clause to both disputing parties.

Question 22

Interest Arbitration

Answer 22

Also called collective agreement arbitration, deals with disputes in the collective agreement bargaining process, while a new, or renewed, collective agreement is being negotiated. In this situation the impartial arbitrator can render a decision on the content of the collective agreement that will be binding on both the parties.

Question 23

The narcotic or dependency effect

Answer 23

The inability of parties to freely negotiate settlements without third-party assistance.

Question 24

The Rand Formula

Answer 24

Employees do not have to join the union but must pay dues if their job is in the bargaining unit.

Question 25

Industrial Relations and Dispute Investigations Act (1948)

Answer 25

It specified the right of workers to join unions.

Question 26

Ratification Vote

Answer 26

The process by which members of the bargaining unit vote to accept or reject the terms of the collective agreement that was negotiated the employer and union. The ratification vote happens at the end of collective bargaining, after the collective bargaining teams have reached a tentative agreement.

Question 27

Action Learning

Answer 27

Involves small groups working on a real project, learning about the methodology as they work. Examples include case study competitions, simulations, teaching others, and peer problem solving.

The most appropriate method for training senior management to handle critical decision-making.

Question 28

Programmed Learning/Instruction

Answer 28

• Break down the course content into logical sequences, each followed by a Q&A.
• Particularly good for allowing individuals to work at their own pace.

Question 29

In your training program, participants will answer up to 10 multiple-choice questions following each module of the program and receive immediate feedback. This would be considered a form of:

Answer 29

Programmed Instruction

Question 30

Procedural Justice

Answer 30

The manner in which merit pay is determined is fair.

Question 31

Total quality management

Answer 31

A set of principles and practices that is geared toward ensuring continuous improvement.

Question 32

Staff Authority

Answer 32

An individual who has the right to advise but not directly supervise those who do not report directly to them.

Question 33

Contingency Theory

Answer 33

An organizational theory that claims that there is no best way to organize a corporation, to lead a company, or to make decisions. Instead, the optimal course of action is contingent (dependent) upon the internal and external situation.

The notion that effective leadership is dependent on the situation being favourable to the exertion of influence.

Question 34

The standard deviation of a question on an employee survey indicates:

Answer 34

How much agreement there is among the employees’ answers.

Question 35

What does social responsibility mean for an organization?

Answer 35

Pursuing policies that benefit external stakeholders

Question 36

When assessing candidates using a battery of tests, one always needs to be aware of the standard error of measurement. The standard error of measurement refers to:

Answer 36

Indicates the amount of variability in a test administered to a group that is caused by measurement error.

Question 37

Divergent Validity

Answer 37

Divergent validity helps to establish construct validity by demonstrating that the construct you are interested in (e.g., anger) is different from other constructs that might be present in your study (e.g., depression).

E.g., When we design interview questions to assess attributes that are unrelated to each other and then correlate the results of those tests.

Question 38

Convergent Validity

Answer 38

Helps confirm that we are measuring the same construct by using different measurement procedures and research methods; if scores converge despite using different methodologies, then helps confirm that we are measuring the same construct.

E.g., Use two different assessments to test candidates’ communication skills and both tests yield the same results.

Question 39

Behaviour observation scale

Answer 39

Gauge the frequency with which the employee has demonstrated effective behaviors in the job.

E.g., When conducting 360 degree feedback, the HR department uses a response scale that includes labels such as never, sometimes, often, and always.

Question 40

Graphic Rating Scale

Answer 40

Performance appraisal method that rates employees according to a scale.

E.g., outstanding, meets expectations, or need improvement.

Question 41

Furlough

Answer 41

Temporary leave of employees due to special needs of a company or employer, which may be due to economic conditions of a specific employer or in society as a whole.

Can be instituted to immediately address an HR surplus.

Question 42

Bounded Rationality

Answer 42

When a leader has to make decisions based on imperfect information.

Question 43

Representative Bias

Answer 43

A common decision-making error made by managers is to base the likelihood of an event’s occurrence on previous events.

The problem with this is that people often overestimate the similarity between the two things they are comparing.

Question 44

Benefits of strategy formulation are the following (3)

Answer 44

Clarity
Coordination
Efficiency

Question 45

9-box grid

Answer 45

An individual assessment tool that evaluates an employee’s current and potential level of contribution to the organization. The 9-box grid is most commonly used in succession planning as a method of evaluating an organization’s current talent and identifying potential leaders.

Question 46

Halo Error

Answer 46

Occurs when an interviewer allows one strong point to overshadow all other information.

Question 47

Multiple Hurdle

Answer 47

The administration of decision-making tools sequentially with the elimination of candidates at each stage who do not score at a satisfactory level.

Question 48

The combination decision-making models for candidate assessment include:

Answer 48

Multiple regression and multiple cutoff

Question 49

__________ is frequently used to assess adverse impact in the selection process.

Answer 49

Four-fifths rule