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CSCS PRACTICE ?'s > Practical Applied > Flashcards

Practical Applied Flashcards

1
Q

The following results are from an inexperienced 23 year old female athlete: Push-up: 4, Partial curl-up: 15, Sit and reach: 15 inches, 1.5-mile run: 13:10, Which of these should be least emphasized in her program?

A

Aerobic energy system capabilities

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2
Q

When beginning a new program, which of these defines an athletes condition or level of preparedness?

A

Training status

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3
Q

Which of these tests offers a measure of flexibility?

A

OH Squat

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4
Q

Which resistance training protocol is being implemented when an athlete performs a push-up set and a bench press set in succession?

A

Compound set

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5
Q

Which phase of facility setup should interior decor take place?

A

Preoperation

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6
Q

In addition to the optimal function of active muscles, which of these are relied upon for functional movement and performance achievement?

A

The speed at which muscular forces are used

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7
Q

What is the maximum number of reps recommended for an accurate calculation of the 1RM for power exercises?

A

5

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8
Q

Which of these abdominal muscles is tasked with pulling the ribs towards the waist during the crunch exercise?

A

Rectus

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9
Q

Which type of stretching is characterized by joint movement through a range of motion all the while gradually increasing the ROM and/or speed on reps?

A

Dynamic

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10
Q

Regarding an individual’s testing results, which of these describes the comparison of those scores to a group average in terms of standard deviations?

A

Z score

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11
Q

When which of these does not require consideration when assessing program needs?

A

The health status of each athlete

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12
Q

Which of the following would not be a component of the feasibility study?

A

Comparing architectural bids

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13
Q

Which of these is not one of an emergency team’s four primary roles?

A

Document the injury event in a formal report

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14
Q

The most strenuous phase of a repetition is known as what?

A

The sticking point

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15
Q

In the neurophysiological model of plyometrics, which term refers to the change in force-velocity characteristics caused by the stretch reflex?

A

Potentiation

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16
Q

What is the target heart rate of a 25 year old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm at a working intensity of 60-70% utilizing the Karvonen method?

A

141-155bpm

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17
Q

What does the provision of reasonable testing training and guideline protocols for test administrators improve?

A

Interrater reliability

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18
Q

Which of the following is responsible for improved oxygen delivery following a warm-up?

A

Bohr Effect

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19
Q

The active rest period or second transition phase should last how long?

A

3 weeks

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20
Q

What is the suggested step depth, as adjusted by the user, during use of the stair stepper for aerobic training?

A

4-8”

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21
Q

Which factor has the ultimate control of flexibility?

A

Central and peripheral nervous system

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22
Q

In a testing battery, which of these tests must be performed last?

A

1.5mi run

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23
Q

An athlete performs one set of shoulder presses followed by one set of lateral raises for several cycles. What term describes this method of training?

A

Compound sets

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24
Q

A 400m swimmer is tapping into which molecule as the primary energy substrate?

A

Muscle glycogen and glucose

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25
Q

In order to increase safety, how should the weight lifting racks be secured?

A

Secured to the floor with bolts

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26
Q

Which of these stretches targets the prime mover of the pull-up exercise?

A

Pillar stretch

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27
Q

Which of the following non-temperature related effects occurs through a proper warm-up?

A

Post activation potentiation

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28
Q

Which PNF stretch takes advantage of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?

A

Hold-relax with agonist contraction

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29
Q

Which stretching exercise targets the hamstrings?

A

Straddle

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30
Q

The second pull of a snatch employs explosive action of which muscles?

A

Ankles, knees and hips

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31
Q

Increases in tissue flexibility depend primarily on which of the following characteristics?

A

Plasticity

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32
Q

Assessing both the athlete’s and the sport’s requirements involves which of these?

A

Needs analysis

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33
Q

Which of these is ideal for an athlete who needs to stretch their gluteus maximus and iliopsoas muscles?

A

Forward lunge (fencer) and supine knee flex

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34
Q

What is the primary difference between a push press and push jerk?

A

Push press is caught overhead with slightly flexed elbows and pressed to the top

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35
Q

What is the minimum ideal deceleration distance past the finish line during a speed test?

A

20yds

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36
Q

What describes the amount of mass per exercise set?

A

Load

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37
Q

How many steps are needed for deceleration from full speed when performing deceleration drills?

A

7

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38
Q

Which method of training is most effective for increasing stride rate for optimised sprint speed?

A

Plyometric Training

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39
Q

During exercises involving over-the-face barbell trajectories, what is the proper hand placement for spotting after liftoff during the movement?

A

Supinated grip inside the athlete’s hands

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40
Q

What is the typical width of a common grip?

A

Approx shoulder width

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41
Q

Muscular endurance exercises ideally require how much recovery time?

A

Up to 30s

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42
Q

For a middle school weight room, what is the maximum number of athletes per strength and conditioning professional?

A

10

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43
Q

The maximum amount of reps in a partial curl-up test should be performed in how much time?

A

3.75m

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44
Q

With regards to criterion referenced validity, what are the three relevant types?

A

Concurrent, predictive, and discriminant

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45
Q

The process of explaining the risks and benefits of a program to a participant for the purposes of agreeing to begin a program is known as:

A

Informed consent

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46
Q

How many reps is an athlete predicted to perform at 85% 1RM load?

A

6

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47
Q

After 6 months of training with plyometrics, what is the ideal amount of foot contacts for this athlete?

A

100

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48
Q

The agonist is stretched under contraction during which stretch-shortening cycle phase?

A

Eccentric phase

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49
Q

For lower body 1RM testing, what is the ideal set-by-set load increment value?

A

10-20%

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50
Q

Which muscle is targeted by a semi-straddle stretch?

A

Erector spinae

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51
Q

During the transition of the log clean-and-press, where should the log be?

A

Above the knee resting on the thigh

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52
Q

In terms of exercise economy, compared to novices, better runners tend to have:

A

Shorter stride length

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53
Q

Which of the following is the biggest risk factor for ACL injury during landing?

A

Frontal plane knee valgus

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54
Q

Which of the following offers the most applicable combination of instability and specificity?

A

Ground-based free weight training

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55
Q

Which of these validities would the results of the percentile ranks of athletes’ vertical jumps and 1RM back squat variations reinforce?

A

Discriminant validity

56
Q

Where is the proper spotting location during the dumbbell bench press?

A

On the forearms close to the wrists

57
Q

When using the shoulders-against-the-tire technique, during the initial upward movement phase of a tire flip, in what direction should the main drive occur?

A

Forward until the body reaches a 45-degree angle

58
Q

At what point is exhaling recommended using a standard breathing pattern?

A

At the sticking point of a movement

59
Q

Which grip is recommended for heavy weightlifting derivative movements (i.e. power clean)?

A

Pronated hooked grip

60
Q

The measure of variability of a set of results about the average is defined by which of these?

A

Standard deviation

61
Q

The following can be used to calculate the overall load of resistance bands or chains added to a barbell:

A

Calculate the average load between the top and bottom positions

62
Q

When should high-intensity, upper body plyometric training be scheduled?

A

Lower body, low intensity resistance

63
Q

When performing depth jumps, what is the maximum recommended box height for athletes over 220lb?

A

18”

64
Q

At what point should the shrug occur during a power snatch?

A

When the lower body joints reach full extension in the second pull

65
Q

Which of the following movements has the longest ground contact time?

A

Single leg direction change of 120°

66
Q

Which of the following is a limiting factor in many nontraditional implement training?

A

Grip strength

67
Q

Which of these is being implemented by a rowing athlete who performs barbell bent over rows and leg presses for enhanced performance?

A

SAID principle

68
Q

Where on the torso should a waist measurement be conducted?

A

In line with the bellybutton

69
Q

What is the preferred hand placement for a spotter during a flat dumbbell fly?

A

Adjacent to the forearms of the lifter

70
Q

What property of the neuromuscular system allows for an increased ROM (range of motion) during a contract-relax stretch?

A

Autogenic inhibition

71
Q

Regarding max velocity accelerating and sprinting, which of these two stride phases is common in both?

A

Support and flight

72
Q

What is the best knee placement for a seated machine leg curl?

A

Aligned with the machine axis

73
Q

How much rest is generally recommended between plyometric training sessions?

A

48-72

74
Q

Which of the following volume recommendations is most suitable for intermediate athletes?

A

100-120

75
Q

When performing aerobic exercise and plyometric exercise, which of the following statements is true?

A

Aerobic exercise should be performed after plyometric training

76
Q

these factors combine to influence running velocity?

A

Stride rate and stride length

77
Q

Undulating periodization typically involves fluctuations in load and volume throughout which training cycle?

A

Microcycle

78
Q

Which of the following seasons involves the greatest intensity of training?

A

Preseason

79
Q

At what approximately what maximal intensity can a well-conditioned athlete perform for several hours before experiencing fatigue?

A

70%

80
Q

Selecting the proper attributes for testing based on the demands of the sport for use in developing training programs is known as which of the following?

A

Athletic profile development

81
Q

Which of these aspects of the pro-agility test is the most essential when considering whether to add it to the testing battery of an athlete in their pre-season phase?

A

Specificity

82
Q

The Margaria-Kalamen test measures which of the following?

A

Max Power

83
Q

A hexagon agility test incorporates which movement?

A

Double leg hop

84
Q

Of the following tests, which sequence would provide the most reliable results? Wingate test, 12-minute run, Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press

A

Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run

85
Q

At what point in the 505 agility test can the athlete slow down?

A

Upon passing the lights for the second time

86
Q

Male decathletes have what average body fat percent?

A

8-10%

87
Q

What is the minimum recommended size for a warm-up area?

A

49 square feet

88
Q

The maintenance of a certification in strength and conditioning helps with what legal aspect?

A

Establishing a standard of care

89
Q

What drill incorporates cognitive perceptual demands with change direction?

A

Y-shaped agility drills

90
Q

What training method is least recommended for improving sprint time?

A

Overspeed training

91
Q

What is the term given for the effect of training intensity or duration decreasing, or training stopped completely due to program intervals, disease or injury?

A

Detraining

92
Q

Which of these muscles is strengthen through a seated barbell shoulder press?

A

Medial and anterior deltoid

93
Q

Elite sprinters display which of the following compared to non-elite sprinters?

A

A greater force production during the first half of ground contact

94
Q

Which of the following involves gradual decrease in daily training volume of the weeks leading to the competition?

A

Linear taper

95
Q

An interset rest period of 90 seconds is most appropriate for which of the following training goes?

A

Hypertrophy

96
Q

What is the first consideration when designing a training program?

A

Analysis of sport specific needs

97
Q

Which of these positive adaptations can result from high volume, medium intensity resistance training?

A

Increased muscle mass

98
Q

For female athletes, which of these requires additional consideration when designing a training program as opposed to men?

A

Prevention of ACL injury

99
Q

Which of these describes the possible range of movement around a joint and the relevant skeletal muscle during a passive movement?

A

Static flexibility

100
Q

What do you call the active stretch with Palms and feet are placed flat on the floor as the weight of shifted backwards?

A

Inchworm

101
Q

The dip occurs at what phase of the push jerk?

A

Preparation phase

102
Q

a common disadvantage squatting with a single spotter?

A

Inability to correctly bear load in the case of failure by the lifter

103
Q

Which of these to squeeze the contrast between the power snatch and power clean when listed from the ground

A

Catch position and width of grip

104
Q

What is the minimum suggested number of fans to ventilate a 4800 square-foot Strength And Conditioning facility?

A

8

105
Q

In a spotter friendly facility how much room should there be between weight racks to allow for spotters?

A

3-4 feet

106
Q

What type of injuries are stress fractures and tendinitis?

A

Microtrauma

107
Q

Which phase of agility development should focus on lateral deceleration capacity?

A

Block 2

108
Q

Which of these can be recommended for an in-season high school endurance runner’s core exercise program?

A

Chest presses and lunges

109
Q

Which of the following should be used during sports with a long competitive season?

A

Maintenance programs

110
Q

What is the ideal 1RM % for maximal power improvements in single-effort events on exercises such as the power clean and power snatch?

A

80-90%

111
Q

What do you call a sudden overloading event that causes tissue damage?

A

Macro trauma

112
Q

A workout including 2 sets of 10 reps of Romanian deadlift at 60% 5RM should occur during which training phase?

A

Hypertrophy phase 1

113
Q

Increased metabolism after eating is known as:

A

Thermic effect of nutritional intake

114
Q

Which steps does the athlete step on during the Margaria-Kalamen test?

A

3rd, 6th, 9th

115
Q

What is the distance between cone C and cone D in the T-test?

A

10yds

116
Q

What is the complete distance covered by the athlete during the execution of a T-test?

A

40yds

117
Q

For double leg box-jump, what is the optimal landing position?

A

A half squat

118
Q

What is the suggested plyo-box surface area for landing during plyometric training?

A

18” x 24”

119
Q

Which of the following stretching types is most likely to activate the stretch reflex?

A

Ballistic stretching

120
Q

What is the suggested height limit for safe execution of depth jumps?

A

42”

121
Q

Which grip forms should be used by the lifter and spotter during the downward phase of a barbell tricep lift?

A

Lifter: pronated grip; Spotter: supinated grip

122
Q

With the initial pull of the power snatch, which of these is true?

A

Maintenance of torso angle as bar passes from the shins to the knees

123
Q

What is the ideal hand position at the top of a squat jump?

A

Behind the head

124
Q

Hold-relax PNF stretching includes which of the following?

A

Passive pre-stretch
II. Concentric antagonist activation
IV. Passive 30-second final stretch

125
Q

During a half speed deceleration drill, what is the recommended amount of steps an athlete should employ for a complete stop?

A

3

126
Q

If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?

A

A bilateral facilitation will occur.

127
Q

Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods?

A

to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

128
Q

Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?

A

I. balance
II. strength
III. training history

129
Q

In upright sprinting, an athlete’s stride length is largely dependent on _______________.

A

the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase

130
Q

Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following?

A

agility

131
Q

Selecttheaspectoftrainingthatrequiresadditionalemphasiswhentheaimistoimprovechange-of-direction ability.

A

Eccentric strength

132
Q

Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance training program?

A

increased oxygen delivery to working tissues
higher rate of aerobic energy production
greater utilization of fat as a fuel source

133
Q

Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity?

A

Heart rate

134
Q

During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume?

A

Competition

135
Q

An operational plan should be created in which of the following phases?

A

Predesign

136
Q

What is the recommended coach-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting?

A

1:20

CSCS PRACTICE ?'s (7 decks)

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