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Anatomy & Physiology II Lab > Practical #2 > Flashcards

Practical #2 Flashcards

1
Q

External nares

A

These are the openings connecting the nasal
cavity to the outside. Air passes through
these openings during respiration.

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2
Q

Nasal cavity

A

This is the cavity within the nose and above
the palate.

It is divided by the nasal septum
into two passageways.

The cavity contains the olfactory epithelium,

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3
Q

Nasal cavity function

A

warms, moistens, and filters the air
passing through the nose.

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4
Q

Paranasal sinuses

A

These are the cavities located within the
skull that lighten the skull and serve as
resonating chambers for speech.

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5
Q

Internal nares

A

These are the openings at the rear of the
nasal cavity that open into the nasopharynx.

Air passes though these openings into the
nasopharynx.

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6
Q

Pharynx

A

This passageway is known as the throat. It is
composed of three regions, the
nasopharynx, oropharynx, and
laryngopharynx

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7
Q

Nasopharynx

A

This uppermost portion of the pharynx
superior to the soft palate.

The openings of
the Eustachian, or auditory tubes, are
located in this region.

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8
Q

Oropharynx

A

This is the portion of the pharynx between
the soft palate and the epiglottis (a flap of
skin). It is the common passageway for the
digestive and respiratory systems.

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9
Q

Laryngopharynx

A

The lower portion of the pharynx lying
between the hyoid bone and the larynx.

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10
Q

Larynx

A

This structure is also called the “voice box.
” It connects the pharynx to the trachea.

The
epiglottis is a flap of tissue that covers the
opening to the larynx, the glottis, during
swallowing.

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11
Q

Larynx function

A

The epiglottis prevents food and
fluid from entering the lower portion of the
respiratory system.

The larynx also contains
the paired vocal cords used for speech.

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12
Q

Trachea

A

This is a cartilage-reinforced tube that is
commonly called the “windpipe.”

It begins at the larynx and ends as it splits into the right and left bronchi in the thorax. It is the
passageway for air entering the lungs.

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13
Q

Lungs

A

The two large respiratory organs located in
the thoracic cavity.

Site of external
respiration, where oxygen diffuses into the
bloodstream.

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14
Q

Hilus

A

Commonly called the “root” of the lung.

Located on the medial edge of the lung,

where the bronchi and blood vessels enter
and leave the lung.

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15
Q

Bronchi

A

Passageway for air in the lungs.

Primary
bronchi are the two tubes that split from the
base of the trachea and enter the right and left lungs.

Secondary bronchi split from the primary bronchi.

Tertiary bronchi split from the secondary bronchi.

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16
Q

Bronchioles

A

The tertiary bronchi split into these smaller
tubes within the lungs. The bronchioles
eventually lead to the alveoli.

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17
Q

Alveoli

A

Small sacs lined with simple squamous
epithelium.

They form the functional unit of
the lungs where gas exchange occurs.

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18
Q

Diaphragm

A

A large, flat, skeletal muscle that separates
the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It acts
to change air pressure within the lungs
during inhalation and exhalation.

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19
Q

How does inhalation occur?

A

the volume of the lungs is increased by the contraction of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm. The lungs are pulled out and down, causing them to expand and thereby increasing their volume and decreasing the air pressure. The decreased air pressure then causes air to enter the lungs

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20
Q

How does exhalation occur?

A

n is passive and occurs when the intercostals and the diaphragm muscles relax. This relaxation
decreases the volume of the lung and increases air pressure. The increased air pressure in the lungs causes air to flow out of the lungs.

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21
Q

Define tidal volume

A

s the volume of a single inhalation during normal, quiet breathing.

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22
Q

What is the mean tidal volume?

A

500 ml

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23
Q

What percent of tidal volume reaches the respiratory surface of the lungs?

A

70%

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24
Q

What happens to the remaining 30% of tidal volume?

A

stays in the non-respiratory parts of the
system

  • (like the trachea, the various bronchi, and the bronchioles)
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25
Q

Define Minute volume respiration

A

is the volume of air inhaled each minute

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26
Q

How is Minute volume respiration calculated?

A

by multiplying the tidal volume by normal breathing rate

  • 500ml x 10 (beats per min) = 5000ml
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27
Q

Define Inspiratory reserve volume:

A

The extra volume of air that can be inspired with maximal effort after reaching the end of a normal, quiet inspiration.

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28
Q

Define Expiratory reserve volume:

A

The extra volume of air that can be expired with maximum effort beyond the level reached at the end of a normal, quiet expiration.

  • exhaled in addition to the 500 ml
    of air in the tidal volume
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29
Q

Define Residual volume:

A

the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration

  • air remaining in the lungs after the expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled
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30
Q

Define Inspiratory capacity:

A

The total volume of air that can be inhaled after the exhalation of the tidal volume.

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31
Q

Define Vital capacity:

A

the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a deep inhalation

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32
Q

How do you calculate Inspiratory capacity?

A

is the sum of the tidal volume and the inspiratory reserve volume.

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33
Q

How do you calculate the Vital capacity?

A

is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume and the expiratory reserve volumes.

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34
Q

Define Total lung volume

A

: the total volume of air that can be inhaled.

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35
Q

How does one test for tidal volume?

A

1, Be sure the volume indication arrow on the spirometer is set to zero.

  1. Take three normal breaths by inhaling through your nose and exhaling through your mouth
    into the spirometer. Do not reset the gauge between breaths, and be sure not to look at the
    gauge. Keep your mouth on the mouthpiece to prevent air from leaking out.
  2. After three breaths, record the reading on the gauge below. Reading on the gauge after three breaths divided by three equals the tidal volume for a single breath.
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36
Q

How do you test for Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)?

A
  1. Reset the spirometer gauge to zero.
  2. After a normal exhalation, place the mouthpiece in your mouth and use the abdominal muscles to forcibly exhale all the remaining air out of the lungs.
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37
Q

How do you test for Vital Capacity (VC)?

A
  1. Reset the spirometer gauge to zero.
  2. Stand and take three very deep breaths, forcibly inhaling and forcibly exhaling each time. If you feel
    dizzy, sit down before proceeding.
  3. Take a last deep breath, inhaling as forcibly as possible.
  4. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth, and slowly but forcefully exhale as long as you can. Empty as
    much air out of your lungs as possible.
  5. Take turns and repeat the above procedure two more times.
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38
Q

How do you test for Inspiratory Capacity (IC)?

A
  1. Next, inhale as deeply as possible.
  2. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and exhale normally. Do not forcefully exhale.
  3. Take turns and repeat the above procedure two more times.
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39
Q

How do you test for Minute Respiratory Volume (MRV)?

A
  1. Sit down and relax. Count the number of times you breathe for three minutes. Divide the total number
    of breaths by three to obtain the number of breaths per minute.
  2. Calculate the minute respiratory volume by multiplying the number of breaths per minute by the tidal volume.
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40
Q

How do you test for Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)?

A
  1. Subtract the tidal volume from the inspiratory capacity, (IRV = IC - TV).
  2. The inspiratory reserve volume is sometimes a negative number. If this is the case, you made an error obtaining the tidal volume and / or the inspiratory capacity. The tidal volume should always be less than the inspiratory capacity, because the tidal volume is a normal breath and the inspiratory capacity is a forcible inhale.
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41
Q

What four variables affect the volume of air that is inhaled and exhaled?

A

age, body size, health, and the sex

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42
Q

Renal cortex

A

This is the superficial layer of the kidney. It is
shaded dark brown due to the dense system
of blood vessels.

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43
Q

Renal cortex function

A

aid in the filtering of
blood in the kidney.

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44
Q

Renal medulla

A

This is the inner layer of the kidney that
contains the renal pyramids.

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45
Q

Renal pyramid

A

These are a series of darker, conical regions
found in the renal medulla. The majority of
the tubules of the nephrons occur in these
regions.

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46
Q

Renal columns

A

These are inward extensions of the renal
cortex that separate the renal pyramids.

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47
Q

Renal papillae

A

These are the tips at the base of the renal
pyramids that project into a minor calyx.

These structures drain urine from the
pyramids into the minor calyxes

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48
Q

Minor calyx

A

A cup-shaped cavity at the base of the renal
papilla. They drain urine from the renal
papillae into the major calyxes.

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49
Q

Major calyx

A

The cavity formed by the convergence of
several minor calyces. They drain urine from
the minor calyxes into the renal pelvis.

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50
Q

Renal pelvis

A

A funnel-shaped cavity formed by the
convergence of the major calyxes. It collects
urine from the major calyxes and joins the
ureter

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51
Q

Ureter

A

The tube that conducts urine from the renal
pelvis and kidney to the urinary bladder for
storage.

52
Q

Renal capsule

A

The connective tissue covering the external
surface of the kidney.

53
Q

Renal artery

A

The vessel which carries oxygenated blood
from the aorta to the kidney to be filtered

54
Q

Renal vein

A

The vessel that carries un-oxygenated and
filtered blood from the kidney to the inferior
vena cava.

55
Q

Leukocytes

A

Urine is normally sterile. Therefore, the
presence of white blood cells in the urine
suggests an infection in the urinary tract.

56
Q

Nitrite

A

Formed when bacteria in the urine change
nitrate to nitrite. The presence of this
compound indicates a probable urinary
tract infection.

57
Q

pH

A

pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of
the urine. Many factors such as drugs, diet,
time of day, and health affect the pH of
urine. Normal pH of urine is 6.0, but can
range from 4.5 to 8.0.

58
Q

Protein

A

Proteins are large molecules not normally
found in the urine, or only in small amounts.

59
Q

Protein: Acute causes

A
  • severe emotional stress
  • strenuous exercise
  • fever.
60
Q

Protein: Chronic causes

A
  • diabetes,
  • malaria
  • heart disease
  • high blood pressure
  • sickle cell anemia
  • pregnancy
61
Q

Glucose

A

Usually all glucose in the filtrate is
reabsorbed by the kidney and is not found in
urine. However, very high glucose levels can
indicate:
- diabetes
- kidney damage
- stress

62
Q

Ketone

A

Ketones are produced when fat is
metabolized for energy. A large number of
ketones in the urine may indicate:
- a low carbohydrate diet
- starvation
- ketoacidosis

63
Q

What is Ketoacidosis?

A

is a life-threatening chemical imbalance that occurs
in people with diabetes. It is caused when
cells do not get enough glucose to meet
energetic demands and begin breaking
down fat for energy.

64
Q

Bilirubin

A

Not normally found in urine, this compound
is formed from the breakdown of red blood
cells. Its presence may indicate:
- liver damage
- blockage of the flow of bile from
the gallbladder.

65
Q

Urobilinogen

A

Usually only present in small amounts, this
compound forms from the breakdown of
bilirubin. It is eliminated from the body
through the bile, and goes into the digestive
tract.

66
Q

Presence of Urobilinogen indications

A

The presence of urobilinogen in the
urine may indicate:
- liver damage
- blockage of the flow of bile from the gallbladder.

67
Q

Blood

A

Red blood cells (RBCs) are normally not
filtered by the kidney because they are too
large to pass through the glomerulus. The
presence of RBCs in the urine indicates:

  • damage to the kidney caused by
    inflammation
  • kidney stones
  • kidney disease
  • blunt trauma
  • menstrauation
68
Q

Specific gravity

A

This is a measure of urine concentration.

  • Samples taken in the morning tend to be
    more concentrated, and, therefore more
    likely to detect commonly tested
    substances
  • A measurement of 1.000 would
    be considered very dilute, and a
    measurement of 1.030 would be very
    concentrated
69
Q

The methods used for obtaining the sediments from the urine and making the wet mount of them.

A
  1. Obtain and label a centrifuge tube.
  2. Fill the centrifuge tube to the appropriate level indicated by the instructor.
  3. Place the centrifuge tube in the centrifuge according to the instructions of your instructor.
  4. Close the lid of the centrifuge.
  5. Spin the urine at a speed of 15000 rpm for five minutes.
  6. Obtain a clean microscope slide and coverslip. Put a drop of methylene blue stain on the center of the
    slide. Be sure you perform this step first to avoid contaminating the stain with urine sediment.
  7. Pour the clear liquid in the top of the tube down the sink, and flush the sink with water.
  8. Pipette a drop of urine sediment onto the stain, in the center of the microscope slide.
  9. Place the cover slip on the slide.
  10. Examine the sediment under low and high magnification and look for the solid components listed in Table 14.4. Record your findings in Table 14.5
70
Q

Squamous epithelial cells

A

These are flat nucleated cells that slough off from the lining of the urethra. They will have a large non-uniform appearance.

71
Q

Transitional epithelial cells

A

These are rough, cuboidal cells that slough off the lining of the ureters, urinary bladder, and renal pelvis of the kidneys.

72
Q

Erythrocytes

A

The red blood cells found in the urine, the presence of which may indicate some kind of kidney damage

73
Q

Leukocytes

A

The nucleated white blood cells, the presence of which may indicate a urinary tract infection

74
Q

Erythrocyte cast

A

A precipitate of red blood cells in the shape of a tubule or duct

75
Q

Leukocyte cast

A

a precipitate of white blood cells in the shape of a tubule or duct

76
Q

Granular cast

A

a precipitate of cells that remained in the duct but degenerated into a granular cast

77
Q

Hyaline cast

A

a cast composed of RBCs, WBCs, and oval fat droplets

78
Q

What are the crystals found in urine?

A
  • calcium oxalate
  • uric acid
  • calcium phosphate
79
Q

What are the casts found in urine?

A
  • erythrocyte cast
  • leukocyte cast
  • granular cast
  • hyaline cast
80
Q

What are the cells found in urine?

A
  • squamous epithelial cells
  • transitional epithelial cells
  • erythrocytes
  • leukocytes
81
Q

Calcium oxalate

A

greenish crystals usually in the shape of an octahedron (a polygon with eight sides)

82
Q

Uric acid

A

yellow to reddish-brown crystals highly variable in shape

83
Q

Calcium phosphate

A

These crystals have various forms, including six to eight-sided prisms appearing in single or rosette shapes.

84
Q

Interphase

A

The period of time between nuclear divisions is called

85
Q

During interphase what form are the chromosomes in?

A

chromatin

86
Q

Gap 1 (G1) phase

A
  • the cell grows by creating cytoplasm and organelles.
  • It also engages in other normal activities for that
    particular kind of cell, like the synthesis of particular proteins
87
Q

S (synthesis) phase

A

the DNA is replicated so that each chromosome consists of two chromatids

88
Q

Gap 2 (G2) phase

A

the cell prepares for division by continuing to grow

synthesis of organelles and proteins

the replication of the centrioles.

89
Q

Chromatin

A

Literally means “colored material.”

  • This is the term for the uncoiled DNA in the nucleus
    when the cell is undergoing its normal activity. The chromatin coils during prophase to form the
    chromosomes.
90
Q

Chromosomes

A

Literally means “colored bodies.”

  • These are the rod-shaped structures of DNA present
    in the cell during a cell division process, either mitosis or meiosis.
  • “Chromosome” can be used as a general term for DNA during any part of the cell cycle.
91
Q

Chromatids

A
  • The two identical strands of DNA that form a chromosome after DNA replication during S phase.
  • The sister chromatids are held together by the centromere.
  • The chromatids are separated into
    two different cells during mitosis and meiosis II.
92
Q

Haploid

A
  • Haploid cells only have one complete set of chromosomes.
  • This is the number of chromosomes found in eggs or sperm.
  • The haploid number of chromosomes in humans is 23
93
Q

Diploid

A
  • Diploid cells have two complete sets of chromosomes.
  • This is the normal number of chromosomes in regular body cells.
  • Humans have a diploid number of 46 chromosomes.
94
Q

Homologous chromosomes

A
  • Humans have 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes. Each pair consists of a chromosome inherited from each parent.
  • Homologous chromosomes are identical in size and
    shape, and possess the same genes.
  • The exception is chromosome pair #23, the sex chromosomes.
  • Females contain two copies of the X chromosome and males contain an X and Y chromosome.
95
Q

What are the processes y which cells reproduce?

A

Mitosis and cytokinesis

  • Mitosis reproduces the nucleus and
    cytokinesis subdivides the cytoplasm
96
Q

What are the results of these two cell reproduction processes?

A

the production of two identical daughter cells which contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

97
Q

What is the function of mitosis and cytokinesis?

A

The function of mitosis and cytokinesis is general body growth as well as the replacement of old and worn out cells, and damaged tissues.

98
Q

Cell cycle order

A
  • G1
  • S phase (DNA synthesis)
  • G2
  • Mitosis
  • Cytokinesis
99
Q

What is the phase that consists of both mitosis and cytokinesis?

A

miotic phase (M)

100
Q

What are the four phases of mitosis?

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

101
Q

Prophase

A

Chromosomes condense from chromatin
and the nuclear membrane disappears. Centrioles produce spindle fibers.

102
Q

Metaphase

A

Spindle fibers attach to the centromere
connecting sister chromatids. This attachment causes chromosomes to line up along the equatorial plane of the cell.

103
Q

Anaphase

A

The spindle fibers shorten, separating the
sister chromatids on each chromosome,
and moving the daughter chromosomes
toward opposite poles of the cells.

104
Q

Telophase

A

A nuclear membrane forms around each
group of daughter chromosomes, at the
poles of the cell. Chromosomes begin to
unwind, and assume the form of chromatin.

105
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Division of the cytoplasm is not part of
mitosis, but it usually occurs at the same
time. Here, the cytoplasm of the cells divides in half. Each half receives approximately half of the cytoplasm.

  • Cytokinesis typically begins during anaphase and continues through
    telophase.
106
Q

Mitosis results in what amount of cells and what type of cells?

A

1 diploid cell to 2 diploid cells

107
Q

Meiosis results in what amount of cells and what type of cells?

A

1 diploid cell to 4 haploid cells

108
Q

For sexual reproduction to occur what must occur?

A

the number of chromosomes in a cell must be reduced by half

109
Q

Meiosis

A

Is the process that reduces the diploid number of chromosomes from 46 to the haploid number of 23 to
produce gametes, eggs, and sperm.

  • Meiosis consists of two cycles of division called meiosis I and meiosis II.
110
Q

Meiosis I

A

separates the homologous chromosomes into two different cells

111
Q

Meiosis II

A

separates the sister chromatids of the chromosome into different cells

112
Q

Prophase I

A

Chromatin condenses to form the
chromosomes. The homologous
chromosomes form pairs in an event
called “synapsis.” The nuclear
envelope disappears, and the spindle
apparatus forms during late prophase I.

113
Q

Metaphase I

A

Spindle fibers connect to each homologous chromosome. The homologous chromosomes pair along the equatorial plane of the cell so each
homolog is on the opposite side of the plane.

114
Q

Anaphase I

A

The spindle fibers shorten, separating the
homologous chromosomes and bringing
them to the poles of the cell.

115
Q

Telophase I

A

The homologous chromosomes reach the
poles of the cell, and cytokinesis occurs.
Nuclear membranes form around each
haploid group of chromosomes. Each
chromosome consists of two chromatids.
The chromosomes relax into chromatin

116
Q

Meiosis II

A

Meiosis II consists of prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, and telophase II. During meiosis II the two sister chromatids of each chromosome are
separated. The result is four haploid cells, each containing 23 different chromosomes.

117
Q

What form are the chromosomes in throughout the entirety of meiosis l?

A

chromatids

118
Q

Oogenesis

A

1 diploid to 1 haploid (and nonviable polar body)

119
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

1 diploid to 4 haploid

120
Q

Define Functional residual volume

A

is the volume remaining in the lungs after a normal, passive exhalation

121
Q

Why do epithelial cells present in urine?

A

Epithelial cells result from sloughing off of the lining of the urinary tract into the filtrate

122
Q

Why do blood cells present in urine?

A

The presence of blood cells in the urine may indicate inflammation of the urinary tract or a urinary disease

123
Q

What are casts?

A

Casts are hardened proteins and cells that can form plugs in the shape of the distal convoluted renal tubule, or collecting duct.

  • They are then flushed from the
    tubules by the urine
124
Q

Where do casts form?

A

Casts form in very acidic urine when proteins are present and/or when the urine is very concentrated.

125
Q

Where do crystals form?

A

Crystals form when minerals crystallize in the urine, due to either highly acidic or basic
urine pH.

126
Q

Why might crystals be present in urine?

A

Crystals may indicate kidney stones, or a metabolic problem

Anatomy & Physiology II Lab (3 decks)

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