PQ options Flashcards
How would you manage a posterior lens luxation?
A: with an intracapsular lens extraction
B: with phacoemulsification
C: by an eye drop which produce miosis
D: by steroidal eye drops
B: with phacoemulsification
Which is not true to the KCS?
A: the length of the therapy of this disease is approx.. 6-8 months
B: it can be developed due to the change in the volume of PTF
C: It can be developed due to the change in the quality of the PTF
D: it can be developed due to the change in the quality and quantity of the PTF
A: the length of the therapy of this disease is approx.. 6-8 months
What is not type of cataract?
A: cataract desmares
B: cataract hypermatura
C: cataract immature
D: cataract intumestentia
A: cataract desmares
Choose the correct. The direct ophtalmoscope
A: is a binocular instrument
B: is primary designed for the examination of the anterior segment of the eye
C: can be used for the examination of the cornea
D: is used with a condensing lens during the examination
B: is primary designed for the examination of the anterior segment of the eye
D: is used with a condensing lens during the examination??
Which statement is true?
A: The quality of the PTF depends on the mucin layer
B: the quantity of the PTF depends on the water layer
C: The quality of the PTF depends on the water layer
D: B: the quantity of the PTF depends on the lipid layer
B: the quantity of the PTF depends on the water layer
Which is true? The dazzle reflex…
A: can correlate with the visual capability
B: is present in an anesthetized animal
C: is a cortical reflex
D: is named as pupillary response as well
A: can correlate with the visual capability
Which statement is true to corneal dermoid?
A: it is treated by a microsurgical intervention
B: a developmental abnormality which can be presented in any age
C: it can be medically treated with eyedrops
D: it does not result in corneal irritation
A: it is treated by a microsurgical intervention
What is SCCED?
A: this is a midstrodal ulcer oftenly
B: this is same as an uncomplicated superficial ulcer partially
C: that is a spontaneous corneal ulcer
D: special corneal ulcer of the Boxer breed
D: special corneal ulcer of the Boxer breed
What is microphakia?
A: the under development on the zonules
B: a smaller lens than anatomical
C: the lack of the lens
D: a narrow iridocorneal angle
B: a smaller lens than anatomical
The third eyelid gland:
A: the synonym of the Harders`s gland
B: produce mor than 50% of the PTF water layer
C: produce the lipid layer of the PTF
D: produce the water layer of the PTF
A: the synonym of the Harders`s gland
Which statement is not true to phacoemulsification?
A: an IOL can be implanted into the hyaloid fossa
B: an operating microscope is necessary for it
C: an intensive post operative therapy is required
D: this is an ultrasound fragmentation of the lens
A: an IOL can be implanted into the hyaloid fossa
What is the correct answer?
A: the Schiotz tonometer is an indentation tonometer
B: the Tonopen is an indentation tonometer
C: the tonovet is a rebound tonometer
D: the Schiotz tonometer is an application tonometer
A: the Schiotz tonometer is an indentation tonometer
C: the tonovet is a rebound tonometer
Choose the correct answer:
A: the first two statement are false
B: a given from of the Uberreiter syndrome can cause blindness
C: Uberreiter syndrome has two forms
D: the first two statement are true
A: the first two statement are false
What is SCCED:
A: this is same as uncomplicated superficial ulcer practically
B: this is a spontaneous corneal ulcer
C: special corneal ulcer of the boxer breed
D: this is a midstrodal ulcer ofently
B: this is a spontaneous corneal ulcer
Buphthalmus can be feature of the
A: glaucoma
B: desmetocele
C: iridodenesis
D: blepharitis
A: glaucoma
What is the ectopic cilium?
A: A normal cilium which is originated from an abnormally situated follicle
B: An abnormal cilium which is raised from a normally situated follicle
C: It is an abnormal cilium which can be seen in the lumbal conjunctiva most frequently
D: An abnormal cilium which is raised from an abnormally situated follicle
D: An abnormal cilium which is raised from an abnormally situated follicle
Which can not result in disturbance in the flow of w of the aqueous?
A: anterior lens luxation
B: posterior synechia
C: posterior lens luxation
D: anterior synechia
C: posterior lens luxation
It is a fact that the posterior chamber
A: Can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope
B: Is normally filled by the vitreous and the aqueous
C: Is the location where the aqueous humor is drained
D: Is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule
D: Is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule
Which test can be used to evaluate the quality of the PTF
A: the rose bengal staining test
B: the flourescein staining test
C: the lissamine green staining test
D) The lissamine green staining test
B: the flourescein staining test
The iris bombe means
A: A mass loke neoplastic change of the iris
B: The anteriorly luxated lens pushes the iris cranially
C: The iris is bulging anteriorly due to posterior synechia
D: There is an adhesion between the iris and cornea
C: The iris is bulging anteriorly due to posterior synechia
Which statement is true to entropion?
A: the spastic form of entropion is recommended to treat by surgery
B: the condition is mainly unilateral
C: the condition is common in cats
D: the background in the development of entropion can be a chronic blepharitis
A: the spastic form of entropion is recommended to treat by surgery
Which surgical procedure would you choose in the therapy of SCCED
A: DBD surgery
B: pedicle conjunctival graft transposition
C: Pedicle conjunctival graft transplantation
D: Acellular matrix patch placement
A: DBD surgery
What is the feature of the feline retina?
A: retinal vessels are originated from the center of the optic nerve head
B: retinal vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head
C: there are four main pairs of the retinal vessels
D: retinal vessels are originated from the choroid
B: retinal vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head
What is the feature of the canine retina?
A: Retinal vessels are originated from the choroid
B: Retinal vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head
C: There are four main pairs of the retinal vessels
D: Retinal vessels are originated from the center of the optic nerve head
D: Retinal vessels are originated from the center of the optic nerve head
Which answer is not true?
A: The retinal pigment epithelium contains pigment on the non tapetal fundus
B: The pigment epithelium of the retina doesn’t contain pigment on the tapetal fundus
C: The tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the dorsal half of the fundus
D:The tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the ventral half of the fundus
D:The tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the ventral half of the fundus
How would you treat blepharitis?
A: with frequent administration of medicines
B:with frequent administration of eye drops
C: with frequent administration of ointments
C: with frequent administration of ointments
Which technique is the best to treat cataract?
A: ICE
B: reclination
C: phacoemulsification
D: ECE
C: phacoemulsification
How long does Schirmer tear test takes?
A: for 90 seconds
B: the length of the test is not time dependent, it depends on the activity of tear production
C: for 1 minute
D: for 30 seconds
C: for 1 minute
Which symptom is not characteristic of Horner syndrome?
a) Epiphora
b) Ptosis
c) Miosis
d) Enophtalmus
a) Epiphora
Which procedure would you choose in the therapeutic steps of a melt corneal ulcer?
a) The grid keratotomy
b) The direct suturing of the cornea
c) To perform chemical coagulation first
d) To transpose the parotideal duct finally
c) To perform chemical coagulation first
Which procedure would you use for correction of entropion?
a) Partial tarsal plate excision
b) The Hotz-Celsus procedure
c) The Wharton-Jones blepharoplasty procedure
d) Khunt-Szymanowsky technique
b) The Hotz-Celsus procedure
Which combination would you choose for glaucoma therapy?
a) Prostaglandin like eye drops + carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops
b) Glycerin per os + NSAID eye drops
c) Prostaglandin like eye drops + Atropine eye drop occasionally
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drop + mannitol eye drop
a) Prostaglandin like eye drops + carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops
Which statement is not true to the cataract ?
a) This is a diffuse opacity in the lens
b) This is a focal opacity in the lens
c) It can be classified by maturity
d) The background is loss of the water in the lens
d) The background is loss of the water in the lens
What is the advantage of an acellular matrix patch corneal surgery?
a) It can induce neovascularization of the cornea
b) It can produce a better transparency of the cornea after the healing
c) General anesthesia is not always needed to place it on the cornea
d) The integration of such a patch into the corneal tissue is quick
b) It can produce a better transparency of the cornea after the healing
Which intervention would you choose in the treatment of a potentially visual glaucomatous eye?
a) An intrascleral prosthesis insertion
b) The pharmacological cycloblation
c) The phacoemulsification
d) The cyclophotocoagulation
d) The cyclophotocoagulation
What is a corneal dermoid?
a) Scar formation in the cornea due to irritation
b) Special and rare form corneal ulcers
c) Hairy skin in the corneal tissue
d) White blood cells in the stromal layer of the cornea
c) Hairy skin in the corneal tissue
Which statement is not true to the pigmentation of the cornea?
a) The background can be KCS
b) The background can be any irritation to the cornea
c) It is frequently seen in pugs with brachycephalic ocular syndrome
d) It can be effectively treated with artificial tear drops
d) It can be effectively treated with artificial tear drops
Which pathogen can cause corneal melting?
a) Chlamydia sp
b) Pseudomonas sp
c) Herpes virus
d) Streptococcus sp
b) Pseudomonas sp
Which surgical procedure would you choose in the therapy of SCCED?
a) Pedicle conjunctival graft transplantation
b) Acellular matrix patch placement
c) DBD surgery
d) Pedicle conjunctival graft transposition
c) DBD surgery
Which statement is true referring the descemetocele?
a) Best to treat by chemical coagulation
b) Protease activity is present at the site of the defect
c) Medical therapy is an option in the treatment
d) It has a special staining with fluorescein
d) It has a special staining with fluorescein
What is the effect of the atropine?
a) Miosis and cyclospasm
b) Mydriasis and cycloplegia
c) Miosis alone
d) Mydriasis alone
b) Mydriasis and cycloplegia
What is dacryocystitis?
a) Inflammation of the third eyelid
b) Inflammation of the gland of the third eyelid
c) Inflammation of the openings of the lacrimal gland
d) Inflammation of the tear drainage systemin
d) Inflammation of the tear drainage systemin
Which answer is not true?
a) The connection between the lens and the vitreous is poor in the human being
b) Lens cells are produced by the anterior epithelium of the lens
c) The connection between the posterior lens capsule and the fossa hyaloidea is poor in
animals
d) The size of the lens nucleus will be bigger by the age
c) The connection between the posterior lens capsule and the fossa hyaloidea is poor in
animals
Which statement is true of tropicamide?
a) A long term mydriasis
b) A strong cycloplegic effect
c) A good diagnostic mydriatic
d) Regularly used for therapeutic purpose
c) A good diagnostic mydriatic
The sign of episcleral congestion is feature of
a) Ulcerative keratitis
b) Conjunctivitis
c) Uberreiter syndrome
d) Glaucoma
d) Glaucoma
Which answer is not true?
a) Production of the aqueous is depends on the thermoconvection
b) Production of the aqueous is depends on the blood pressure
c) Production of the aqueous is depends on the inflammation
d) Production of the aqueous is depends on drugs
a) Production of the aqueous is depends on the thermoconvection
What kind of drug can produce mydriasis?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Brinzolamide
c) Tropicamide
d) Dorzolamide
c) Tropicamide
What is not requirement of the examination of the ocular fundus in small animals?
a) Darkened examination room
b) Examiner in sitting position
c) Slit lamp biomicroscope
d) Tropicamide induced mydriasis
b) Examiner in sitting position
The wide field of view and small magnification is feature of the
a) Fundus camera
b) Direct ophtalmoscope
c) Plane mirror
d) Indirect ophtalmoscope
d) Indirect ophtalmoscope
How would you treat ectropion?
a) By the Khunt-Szymanowsky method
b) By the resection of the T-shape cartilage
c) By the resection of the tarsal plate of the eyelid
d) With pinch technique
a) By the Khunt-Szymanowsky method
Which statement is not true to the conjunctivitis of the cats?
a) A common cause can be the Chlamydia infection
b) A common cause can be the Herpes virus infection
c) A common cause can be the Mycoplasma infection
d) A common cause can be the Symblepharon
d) A common cause can be the Symblepharon
Which statement is not true to an anterior lens luxation?
a) It can cause optic nerve atrophy
b) It can cause glaucoma
c) It can cause corneal edema
d) It can cause uveitis
c) It can cause corneal edema
What are beta blocker eyedrops used for?
a) For medical therapy of cataract
b) For medical therapy of glaucoma
c) For medical therapy of KCS
d) For medical therapy of uber.. syndrome
b) For medical therapy of glaucoma
It is a fact that the posterior chamber
a) Can be examined with an indirect ophthalmoscope
b) Is normally filled by the vitreous and the aqueous
c) Is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule
d) Is the location where the aqueous humor is drained
c) Is bordered by the caudal part of the iris and the anterior lens capsule
What is the most important step of the eye examination in animals?
a) Slit lamp biomicroscopy
b) Ophtalmoscopy
c) Tonometry
d) Fluorescein dying
a) Slit lamp biomicroscopy
What is distant ophthalmoscopy?
a) Examination of the tapetal reflexion and the intraocular opacities from an arm distance
b) Examination of the non tapetal fundus and the intraocular opacities from an arm distance
c) Detailed examination of the structures of the tapetal fundus from an arm distance
d) Examination of the eye by the indirect binocular ophtalmoscope with a condensing lens from an arm distance
d) Examination of the eye by the indirect binocular ophtalmoscope with a condensing lens from an arm distance
With a direct ophtalmoscope:
a) We can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus
b) We can examine almost the entire surface of the fundus
c) The fundus can be examined sharply with + 20 D lens if the examiner is emmetrope
d) The image is magnified and upside-down
a) We can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus
What is kerectasia?
a) This is an indolent ulcer
b) Forming a granulation tissue in the cornea due to chronic irritation
c) Special kind of microsurgical procedure of the cornea
d) A type of the autoimmune keratitises
b) Forming a granulation tissue in the cornea due to chronic irritation
Which statement is not true to a superficial uncomplicated corneal ulcer?
a) The stroma layer of the .. is never affected
b) It can cause
c) It
d) It can be stained by fluorescein
d) It can be stained by fluorescein
Which can be correlated with a lenticular disease?
a) Aphakia
b) Descematocele
c) S -
d) Carcinoma
a) Aphakia
The dazzle reflex:
a) Is a subcortical reflex
b) Is present in an anaesthesized animal
c) Is a cortical reflex
d) Is a conditional reflex
a) Is a subcortical reflex
What is the function of the tapetum?
a. Reflection of the light into the photoreceptors
b. Absorption of the light into the choroid to facilitate the night vision
c. Reflection of the light into the
choroid to facilitate the function of it
d. Absorption of the light by the pigments of the retinal pigment epithelium
a. Reflection of the light into the photoreceptors
