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Opthalmology > Past midterm 2021 > Flashcards

Past midterm 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

What is distatant opthalmoscopy?

A. examination of the inner eye from an arm distance
B. examination of the non tapetal fundus
C. examination of the tapetal fundus
D. examination of the eye by the indirect binocular opthalomoscopy with a condensing lens

A

A. examination of the inner eye from an arm distance

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2
Q

What is the function of tapetum?

A. Reflection of the light into the photoreceptors
B. Absorption of the light in the dark and so facilitate the night vision
C. Reflection of the light into the choroid to facilitate the function of it
D. Absorption of the light by the pigments of the retinal pigment epithelium.

A

A. Reflection of the light into the photoreceptors

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3
Q

The Rose bengal stains…

A. The atrophized conjunctival and corneal epithelium
B. the mucus and the corneal stroma
C. the necrotic and degenerated conjunctival and corneal epithelium
D. the phospholipid layer of the tear film

A

C. the necrotic and degenerated conjunctival and corneal epithelium

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4
Q

What is the feature of the Feline retina?

A. retinal vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head
B. retinal vessels are originated from the choroid
C. retinal vessels are originated from the center of the optic nerve head
D. There are four main pairs of the retinal vessels

A

A. retinal vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head

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5
Q

What is the feature of the canine retina?

A. retinal vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head
B. retinal vessels are originated from the choroid
C. retinal vessels are originated from the center of the optic nerve head
D. There are four main pairs of the retinal vessels

A

C. retinal vessels are originated from the center of the optic nerve head

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6
Q

How would you treat ectropion?
A. With Khunt-szymanowsky method
B. by the resection of the T-shape cartilage
C. by electroepilation
D. with pinch technique

A

A. With Khunt-szymanowsky method

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7
Q

What is the correct answer?

A. The Schiötz tonometer is an applanation tonometer
B. the tonopen is an indentation tonometer
C. the tonovet is a rebound tonometer
D. the tonopen is a rebound tonometer

A

C. the tonovet is a rebound tonometer

Tonopen is a applanation tonometer - common in small animals

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8
Q

Which is not test for the evaluation of the vision?
Obstacle course test
PLR test
falling cotton test
dazzle reflex test

A

PLR test

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9
Q

Which answer is not true?

A. The pigment epithelium of the retina doesnt contain pigment on the tapetal fundus
B. the retinal pigment epithelium contains pigment on the non tapetal fundus
C. the tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the ventral half of the fundus
D. the tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the dorsal half of the fundus

A

the tapetum is located between the choroid and the retinal pigment epithelium on the ventral half of the fundus

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10
Q

What is not requirement of the examination of the ocular fundus in small animals

A. darkened examination room
B. examiner in sitting position
C. slit lamp biomicroscope
D. tropicamide induced mydriasis

A

B. examiner in sitting position

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11
Q

Which test can be used to evaluate the quality of the PTF? (precorneal conjunctival tear film)

A. rose bengal staining test
B. the fluoresceint staning test
C. the schirmer test
D. the lissamine green staining test

A

B. the fluoresceint staning test

To diagnose early and subclinical form= schirmer + rose bengal

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12
Q

what is the ectopic cilium?

A. an abnormal cilium which arised from a normally situated follicle
B. a normal cilium which is originated from an abnormally situated follicle
C. an abnormal cilium which is arised from an abnormally situated follicle
D. it is an abnormal cilium which can be seen in the limbal conjunctiva most frequently

A

C. an abnormal cilium which is arised from an abnormally situated follicle

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13
Q

Which symptom is not characteristic of Horner syndrome?

A: Epiphora
B: Ptosis
C: Miosis
D: Enophthalmos

A

A: Epiphora

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13
Q

Which statement is true to entropion?

A: The condition is common in cats

B: The condition is mainly unilateral

C: The background in the development of entropic can be chronic blepharitis

D: The spastic form of entropion is recommended to treat surgery

A

C: The background in the development of entropic can be chronic blepharitis

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14
Q

Which statement is not true to the cataract?

A: This is a diffuse opacity in the lens
B: This is a focal opacity in the lens
C: It can be classified by maturity
D: The background is loss of the water in the lens

A

D: The background is loss of the water in the lens

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15
Q

Which procedure would you use for correction of entropion?

A: The partial tarsal plate excision
B: The Hotz-Celsus procedure
C: The Wharton-Jones blepharoplasty procedure
D: Khunt-Szymanowsky technique

A

B: The Hotz-Celsus procedure

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16
Q

Which procedure would you choose in the therapeutic steps of a melting ulcer?

A: The grid keratotomy
B: The direct suturing of the cornea
C: To perform chemical coagulation first
D: To transpose the parotideal duct finally

A

C: To perform chemical coagulation first

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17
Q

Which combination would you choose for glaucoma therapy?

A: Prostaglandin like eye drops + carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops

B: Glycerin per os + NSAID eye drops

C: Prostaglandin like eye drops + Atropine eye drop occasionally

D: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drop + mannitol eye drop

A

A: Prostaglandin like eye drops + carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops

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18
Q

What is the advantage of an acellular matrix patch in corneal surgery?

A: It can induce neovascularization of the cornea

B: It can produce better transparency of the cornea after the healing

C: General anaesthesia is not always needed to place it on the cornea

D: The integration of such a patch into the corneal tissue is quick

A

B: It can produce better transparency of the cornea after the healing

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19
Q

Which intervention would you choose in the treatment of a potentially visual glaucomatous eye?

A: An intrascleral prosthesis insertion
B: The pharmacological cycloablation
C: The phacoemulisification
D: The cyclophotocoagulation

A

D: The cyclophotocoagulation

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20
Q

What is not a type of cataract?

Cataracta intumestentia
Cataracta immatura
Cataracta hypermatura
Cataracta Desmares

A

Cataracta Desmares

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21
Q

The iris bombe means :

A: A mass like neoplasticism change if the iris

B: The iris is bulging anteriorly due to posterior synechia

C: The anteriorly luxated lens pushes the iris cranially

D: There is an adhesion between the iris and cornea

A

B: The iris is bulging anteriorly due to posterior synechia

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22
Q

What kind of drug can produce mydriasis?

A: Pilocarpine
B: Brinzolamide
C; Tropicamide

A

C; Tropicamide

23
Q

Which statement is true?

A: The quantity of the PTF depends on the lipid layer

B: The quality of the PTF depends on the water layer

C: The quantity of the PTF depends on the water layer

D: The quantity of the PTF depends on the mucin layer

A

C: The quantity of the PTF depends on the water layer

24
Q

Which statement is true referring the descemetocele?

A: Best to treat by chemical coagulation

B: Protease activity is present at the site of the defect

C: Medical therapy is an option in the treatment

D: It has a staining with fluorescein

A

D: It has a staining with fluorescein

25
Q

What is a corneal dermoid?

A: Scar formation in the cornea due to irritation

B: Special and rare form corneal ulcers

C: Hairy skin in the corneal tissue

D: White blood cells in the stromal layer of the cornea

A

C: Hairy skin in the corneal tissue

26
Q

Which statement is not true to the pigmentation of the cornea?

A: The background can be KCS

B: The background can be any irritation to the cornea

C: It is frequently seen in pugs with brachycephalic ocular syndrome

D: It can be effectively treated with artificial tear drops

A

D: It can be effectively treated with artificial tear drops

27
Q

Which pathogen can cause corneal melting?

A: Chlamydia sp.
B: Pseudomonas sp.
C: Herpes virus
D: Streptococcus sp.

A

B: Pseudomonas sp

28
Q

Which surgical procedure would you choose in the therapy of SCCED?

A: Pedicle conjunctival graft transplantion
B: Acellular matrix patch placement
C: DBD surgery
D: Pedicle conjunctival graft transposition

A

C: DBD surgery

29
Q

The wide field of view and small magnification is feature of the…

A: Fundus camera
B: Direct ophthalmoscope
C: Plane mirror
D: Indirect ophthalmoscope

A

D: Indirect ophthalmoscope

30
Q

How would you treat entropion?

A: By the Khunt-Szymanowsky method
B: By the resection of the T-shape cartilage
C: By the resection of the tarsal plate of the tarsal eyelid
D: With pinch technique

A

With pinch technique
AND: Hotz-Celsius

Khunt-Szymanowsky method = ECtropion

31
Q

The sign of episcleral congestion is feature of…

A: Ulcerative keratitis
B: Conjunctivitis
C: Überreiter syndrome
D: Glaucoma

A

D: Glaucoma

32
Q

Which answer is not true?

A: Production of the aqueous depends on the thermoconvection

B: Production of the aqueous depends on the blood pressure

C: Production of the aqueous depends on the inflammation

D: Production of the aqueous depends on the drugs

A

A: Production of the aqueous depends on the thermoconvection

33
Q

What is not requirement of the examination of the ocular fundus in small animals?

A: Darkened examination room
B: Examiner in sitting position
C: Slit lamp biomicroscope
D: Tropicamide induced mydriasis

A

B: Examiner in sitting position

34
Q

What is a feature of the canine retina?

A: Retina vessels are originated from the periphery of the optic nerve head

B: Retinal vessels are originated from the choroid

C: Retinal vessels are originated from the centre of the optic nerve head

D: There are four main pairs of the retinal vessels

A

C: Retinal vessels are originated from the centre of the optic nerve head

34
Q

What is the effect of the atropine?

A: Mitosis and cyclospasm
B: Mydriasis and cyclopiegia
C: Mitosis alone
D: Mydriasis alone

A

B: Mydriasis and cyclopiegia

35
Q

What is dacryocystitis?

A: Inflammation of the third eyelid
B: Inflammation of the gland if the third eyelid
C: Inflammation of the openings of the lacrimal gland
D: Inflammation of the tear drainage system

A

D: Inflammation of the tear drainage system

36
Q

Which technique is the best to treat cataract?

A: Phacoemulsification
B: ICE
C: ECE
D: Reclinatiom

A

A: Phacoemulsification

??

37
Q

Which answer is not true?

A: The connection between the lens and the vitreous is poor in the human being

B: Lens cells are produced by the anterior epithelium of the lens

C: The connection between the posterior lens capsule and the fossa hyaloidea is poor in animals

D: The size of the lens nucleus will be bigger by the age

A

C: The connection between the posterior lens capsule and the fossa hyaloidea is poor in animals

38
Q

Which statement is true of tropicamide?

A: A long term mydriasis
B: A strong cycloplegic effect
C: A good diagnosis mydriatic
D: Regularly used for therapeutic purpose

A

C: A good diagnosis mydriatic

39
Q

What is the correct answer?

A: The Schiotz tonometer is an applamation tonometer

B: The Tonopen is an indentation tonometer

C: The Schiotz tonometer is an indentation tonometer

D: The Tonopen is a rebound tonometer

A

C: The Schiotz tonometer is an indentation tonometer

40
Q

Which test can be used to evaluate the quality of the PTF?

A: The rose bengal staining test
B: The fluorescein staining test
C: The Schirmer test
D: The Lissamine green staining test

A

B: The fluorescein staining test

41
Q

What is not true to the KCS?

A: The length of the therapy of this disease is approx. 6-8 months

B: It can be developed due to the change in the quality of the PTF

C: It can be developed due to the change in the volume of the PTF

D: It can diagnose due to the change in the quantity and quality of the PTF

A

A: The length of the therapy of this disease is approx. 6-8 months

Length of medical therapy is 3 months

42
Q

Choose the correct answer

A: Überreiter syndrome has two forms

B: A given firm of the Überreiter syndrome can cause blindness

C: The first two statements are true

D: The first two statement are false

A

D: The first two statements are false

43
Q

What statement is not true to an anterior lens luxation?

A: It can cause optic nerve atrophy
B: It can cause glaucoma
C: It can cause corneal oedema
D: It can cause uveitis

A

C: It can cause corneal oedema

Think: It can cause optic nerve atrophy

44
Q

The dazzle reflex

A: Is a subcortical reflex
B: Is present in an anaesthetised animal
C: Is a cortical reflex
D: Is a conditional reflex

A

A: Is a subcortical reflex

45
Q

Which is true? The dazzle reflex..

A: Can correlate with the visual capability
B: Is present in an anaesthetised animal
C: Is a cortical reflex
D: Is named as pupillary response as well

A

A: Can correlate with the visual capability

46
Q

What is microphakia?

A: The lack of the lens
B: A narrow iridocorneal angle
C: A smaller lens than anatomical
D: The underdevelopment of the zonules

A

C: A smaller lens than anatomical

Aphakia= lack of lens

47
Q

What statement is not true in the conjunctivitis of cats?

A: A common cause can be Chlamydia infection

B: A common cause can be Herpes infection

C: A common cause can be the Mycoplasma infection

D: A common cause can be Symblepharon

A

D: A common cause can be Symblepharon

48
Q

What is the most important step of the eye examination in animals?

A: Slit lamp biomicroscope
B: Ophthalmoscope
C: Tonometer
D: Fluorescein staining

A

A: Slit lamp biomicroscope

49
Q

What are beta blocker eye drops used for?

A: For medical therapy of cataract
B: For medical therapy of glaucoma
C: For medical therapy of KCS
D: For medical therapy of Überreiter syndrome

A

B: For medical therapy of glaucoma

50
Q

The wide field of view and small magnification is a feature of the

A: Fundus camera
B: Direct ophthalmoscope
C: Place mirror
D: Indirect ophthalmoscope

A

D: Indirect ophthalmoscope

51
Q

With a direct ophthalmoscope:

A: We can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus

B: We can examine almost the entire surface of the fundu

C: The fundus can be examined sharply with +20 D lens if the examiner is emmetrope

D: The image is magnified and upside-down

A

A: We can observe an erected magnified image of the fundus

52
Q

Choose the correct answer. The direct ophthalmoscope…

A: Is primarily designed for the examination of the anterior segment of the eye

B: Is a binocular instrument

C: Can be used if the examination of the cornea

D: Is used with a condensing lens during the examination

A

D: Is used with a condensing lens during the examination

53
Q

What is kerectasia?

A: This is an indolent ulcer

B: Forming a granulation tissue in the cornea due to chronic irritation

C: Special kind of microsurgical procedure of the cornea

D: A type of the autoimmune keratitis

A

B: Forming a granulation tissue in the cornea due to chronic irritation

54
Q

Which cannot result in the disturbance in the flow of the aqueous?

A: Posterior synechia
B: Posterior lens luxation
C: Anterior lens luxation
D: Anterior synechia

A

B: Posterior lens luxation

55
Q

Choose the correct answer:

A: Überreiter syndrome has two forms

B: A given form of the Überreiter syndrome can cause blindness

C: The first two statements are true

D: The first two statements are false

A

D: The first two statements are false

Opthalmology (6 decks)

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