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PQ 2021/22 Flashcards

1
Q

oestrus induction in pigs

A

eCG and hCg

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2
Q

Aujeszjy’s disease

A

PHV-1

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3
Q

Not a cause for hoflunds disease

A

Ruminal acidosis

Causes: injury, inflammation or pressure on vagus nerve, traumatic reticuloperitonitis (craniomedial region), reticular abscess

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4
Q

Hannover method

A 
standing restraint
right flank (or left) laparotomy
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5
Q

C-section in swine

A

right or left flank incision

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6
Q

in the treatment of milk fever

A

calcium injection in cattle IV

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7
Q

treatment of frothy bloat

A

antifoaming agents, tubing, hay, flaxseed

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8
Q

normal presentation in a cow

A

longitudinal anterior ( or posterior)

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9
Q

gastric ulcer in swine

A

teeth grinding

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10
Q

IM injeciton in pig

A

neck area

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11
Q

laparotomy layers in skin

A 
skin
SC
external
internal
transverse
peritoneum
abdomnial cavity
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12
Q

gilt puberty

A

180-210 (6-8m)

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13
Q

By which symptom can we differentiate CODD from foot rot in small ruminants (Contagious ovine digital dermatitis)

A

initial location of hoof wall sepration

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14
Q

lumbosacral in sheep

A

epidural space

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15
Q

ZnSO4 sheep disadvantage

A

action time

20-30 min, also expensive

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16
Q

bovine respiratory disease complex

A

multifactorial

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17
Q

sperm volume of boar

A

100-300ml

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18
Q

teat cistern anaesthesia

A

procedures only affecting the MM

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19
Q

which gives scoliosis

A

proximal paralumbar nerve block

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20
Q

uterine torsion palpation in the cow

  • Precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
  • Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
  • Precervical torsion can be only palpated on rectal palpation
  • by manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
A

Tror Post-cervial med vag palp
eller pre vag
https://www.ijset.net/journal/2129.pdf

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21
Q

cornual nerve

A

under the crista orbitotemporal

crest of frontal bone

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22
Q

consequence of abomasal displacement

A

hypokalemia

og hypochloremia, mild alkalosis

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23
Q

course of rabies

A

3-6 days

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24
Q

cause of lungworm disease in cattle

A

dictyocaulus viviparus

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25
Q

what can azeperone cause in pigs

A

peripheral vasodilation

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26
Q

transabdomnial US pregnancy check in the sheep

A

day 28-35

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27
Q

which symptom is not present in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A

tiptoing

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28
Q

which joint is affected most by osteochondrosis in swine?

A

elbow

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29
Q

what is the consequences of vasectomy

A

procedure that blocks t flow of spermatozoa

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30
Q

hepatosis dietica is caused by the deficiency of which vitmain

A

vitamin E

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31
Q

which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint in cattle

  • bulbar approach
  • axial approach
  • solar approach
  • abaxial approach
A

Axial approach

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32
Q

which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs

  • pityriasis rosea
  • greasy pig disease
  • epitheliogeneis imperfecta
  • PDNS
A

epitheliogenesis imperfetca

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33
Q

which statement is true about footrot in ruminant

  • Commonly occurs in mediterranean areas
  • Caused by Treponema spp.
  • Easily treated by antibiotic therapy
  • Severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing the illness
A

severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing th eillness

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34
Q

what causes interdigital hyperplasia

  • Treponema spp.
  • Genetic background
  • Harsh foot trimming
  • Irritant footbathing solution
A

genetic background

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35
Q

the obstipation of the swine can be caused by

  • Water intoxication
  • Long lasting fever
  • Can be a consequence of meningitis
  • The inadequate particle size of the granulated feed
A

long lasting fever

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36
Q

medicines/steps used in the treatment of swine gastric ulceration

  • Separating different ages of swine
  • The elimination of technological stress
  • Metoclopramid
  • Prostaglandin F2 alpha
A

eliminiation of technological stress

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37
Q

what cannot be the cause of vaginal prolaps in sheep?

  • Excess body condition
  • Multigravid uterus
  • High-fiber diets, particularly root crops
  • Low body condition
A

low body condition

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38
Q

which of the following agents causes bowel edema in swine?

  • Fumonisin B1
  • Verotoxin-producing E. coli
  • Haemophilus parasuis
  • Salt poisoning
A

verotox-producing E.coli

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39
Q

which is tru for azaperone in pigs?

  • Cheap, not effective for pigs
  • Expensive, effective and licensed for pigs
  • Cheap, effective but not licensed for pigs
  • Cheap, effective and licensed for pigs
A

cheap, effective and licensed

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40
Q

what is acceptable pregnancy rate in a normal breeding season in sheep

  • > 90%
  • 50-60%
  • 60-70%
  • 40-50%
A

> 90%

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41
Q

what is the palpation of the vas deference

  • Bone
  • Cartilage
  • Swab
  • Soft
A

cartilage

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42
Q

what is the optimal pH of the rumen

  • 7.0-7.5
  • 5.5-6.3
  • 7.2-8.0
  • 6.3-7.1
A

6.3-7.1

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43
Q

what disorders are the most common in the period around farrowing

  • Uterine and cervical prolapse
  • Invagination of the uterus
  • Uterine torsion
  • Rupture of the uterus
A

uterine and cervical prolapse

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44
Q

where do we inject during proximal paravertebral anesthesia

  • Between the proc. Spinosus of the lumbar vertebrae, into the intervertebral joint
  • 1-2 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin
  • 4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin
  • 8-10 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin
A

4-5cm laterally from the midline, over and under the proc. transversus and under the skin

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45
Q

what is the sign of correct needle placement during epidural anesthesia of cattle

  • Blood can be aspirated to the syringe
  • The tip of the needle can move freely
  • Fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle
  • Hissing sound of the air coming out of the epidural space
A

fluid drop are sucked in fromt he conus of the needle

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46
Q 
when is the induction of parturition recommeneded in swine
After day 105 of the pregnancy
After day 107 of the pregnancy
After day 109 of the pregnancy
After day 112 of the pregnancy
A

after day 112 of the pregnancy

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47
Q 
how can flunixin-meglumine be administered to farm animals
PO
SC
IP
IV
A

IV

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48
Q

in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis, what will be the hemotology finding

  • Haemoconcentration, neutropenia, low levels of fibrinogen and total protein
  • Haemoconcentration, neutropenia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
  • Low red blood cell count, leukocytosis, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
  • Haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
A

haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein

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49
Q

which procedure cannot be done without anesthesis in calves

  • Opening abscesses
  • Ear tagging
  • Correction of umbilical hernia
  • Disbudding in newborns
A

correction of umbilical hernia

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50
Q

what are the characteristics of the discharge in clinical endometritis

  • Reddish-brown, watery, smelly
  • Yellowish-white (pus), watery
  • Reddish-brown, viscous
  • Yellowish-white (pus), viscous
A

yellowish-white (pus), viscous

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51
Q

the mulberry heart disease

  • Is manifesting only in special breeds of swine
  • Is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency
  • Means the flaccid paralysis of the smooth muscle of visceral organs
  • Means the stimulus something formation disease something heart
A

is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and selenium deficiency

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52
Q 
in which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocain in a therapeutic dose
Cow
Small ruminants
Both of them
None of them
A

small ruminants

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53
Q

the position of the fetus

  • The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of fetal spinal axis
  • The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
A

relation of the vertebral column of the fetus to that of the dam

the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis

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54
Q

how can we store boar semen
Native ejaculate, frozen
Native ejaculate, cooled (16-17 degrees C)
Diluted ejaculate, cooled (16-17 degrees C)
Diluted ejaculate, chilled (4 degrees C)

A

diluted ejaculate, cooled 16-17

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55
Q

which of the following statements is false regarding osteoporosis

  • it is caused by Ca-P or vitamin-D deficiency in growing animals
  • A frequent clinical sign is sudden, severe lameness
  • It causes a decrease in both trabecular and cortical bone thickness
  • Articular cartilage is usually not affected
A

it is caused by a Ca, P or vitamin d deficiency in GROWING animals

(lactating)

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56
Q

what is the place of the intercoccygeal epidural anesthesia
Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)

A

between the first C1 and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)

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57
Q

the peripartal insulin resisitance in ruminants

Under farm circumstances measurable with the HEC cow-side test
A calculated index measures it from blood parameters e.g. RQUICKI
If blood glucose concentration is <3 mmol/liter
It happens around 3 months after calving

A

a calculated index measureds it from blood parameters: RQUICKI

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58
Q

what is the consitency of the ruminal content in case of anterior funcitonal stenosis

Foamy, cream-like
Watery
Doughy
Solid

A

foamy, cream like

hmm
står det blir mer watery
blir creamy i hoflund

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59
Q

how do we store boar semen

A

diluted ejaculate, cooled 16-17 degrees

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60
Q

how long is oestrus in pigs

A

2-3 days

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61
Q

what drug can be used for oestrus synchronization in gilts

A

long form pr os teratment with altrenogest

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62
Q

which period does the porcine oestrus cycle disappear

A

the summer heat

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63
Q

In which is the prognosis if c section good in pigs:

A

In labour for a max of 6-12h

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64
Q

when should we have intervention during the parturition of pigs?

A

6-12h into labor

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65
Q

why is tail docking needed

A

to prevent tail biting

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66
Q

clinical signs of iron deficiency piglets

A

sudden death

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67
Q

what is true for the megacolon of swine

A

secondary is more common as consequences of chronic peritonitis

(also secondary to rectal prolapse)

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68
Q

the position of the fetus |

A

the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetus spinal axis

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69
Q

traumatic reticulopericardidits expected fluid like

A

in 99/ exudate - water viscous, smelly, high protein

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70
Q

which agent is characterized by immune complex mediated vasculitis

A

PDNS

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71
Q

the epiphyseolysis in gilt, which bone is most affected

A

femur

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72
Q

estrus in cattle, uterine horn is

A

rigid due to high level of estrogen

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73
Q

in healthy animal hoof trimmin, which structure does not need to be cut

A

heel

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74
Q

in swine acepromazine will cause

A

hypotension, hypthermia

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75
Q

false in swine pox

  • It is a sporadic disease, notifiable in hungary
  • It can spread vertically (congenital pox)
  • It causes the formation of vesicles, pustules, then crusts on the skin and the mucous membranes of the respiratory and digestive tract
  • Affected animals usually contract secondary infections (s.hyicus)
A

it is a sporadic disease, notifiable in hungary

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76
Q

proximal lumbar paravertebral erveblock in cattle

A

NT13, NL1, NL2

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77
Q

position of fetus in cattle

A

upright dorsal is normal

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78
Q

not notifiable diseases in small ru

  • Poxvisrus infection of sheep and goat
  • Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
  • Scabies
  • Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
A

IBR

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79
Q

not a sign of chronic traumatic reticuloperitonitis

A

diarrrhea

signs: decreased feed intake and fecal output. low milk prod

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80
Q

induction of farrowing

A

PGF2a

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81
Q

fog fever

A

sudden onset, more animals

3-methylindole

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82
Q

sacrococcygeal injection

A

S5 and C1

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83
Q

eartag

A

before day 7

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84
Q

worst case in IV regional anesthesia on extremeties in small ruminants

A

phlebitis

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85
Q

when vaginal prolapse

A

last month of pregnancy

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86
Q

thinner part of birth canal (narrowing)

A

correct: cervix, hymen, vulva
incorrect: bifurcaiton

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87
Q

carbohydrates gets digested to

A

VFA

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88
Q

white line abscess in small ruminants can cause

A

DIP inflammaiton

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89
Q

method for abomasal torsion recumbent sugery

A

ventral paramedian abomasopexy

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90
Q

injection site for vena cranial in piglets

A

right side (vagus on left)

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91
Q

incubation of rabies

A

2weeks-4 months

92
Q

not used for anesthesia of teat:

A

L block

are used: V, ring and regional Iv

93
Q

false about thrombocytopaenic purpura

A

most common in gilts

94
Q

treat hypoglycemia in piglets

A

intraperitoneal glucose injection, oral tube/formulation, colostrum (not auricular IV injection)

95
Q

treat hypocalcemia in cattle

A

Ca-borogluconae IV

96
Q

what can not be used for pregnancy check in a sow

A

uterine biopsy

97
Q

TIVA in small Ru should be used seldomly because is causes

A

regugitation of rumen content –> aspiration –> pneumonia

ruminal bloat –> resp funciton

98
Q

zearalenone toxicosis - affecting estrus signs

A

the apperance of a red and swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortion and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of the feed

99
Q

what is not used to check the efficiency of colostrum

A

not routine hematology

100
Q

method for closure of uterus

A

seromuscularily

101
Q

last palpable vertebrae in a cow?

102
Q

malignant catarrhal fever

103
Q

What is a vasectomy

A

cutting vas deferens

104
Q

when is the corpus luteum sensitive to prostaglandin

105
Q

vaginal prolaps, which phase is necrotic

106
Q

rumen pH in SARA

A

pH 5.5-6.5

107
Q

newborn calf body temperature

A

39-40 degree celcius

108
Q 
which of the following is zoonotic?
Streptococcus suis
Aujeszky
Teschen
glasser disease
A

streptococcus suis

109
Q

what is the consequence of ruminal reflux?

A

Cl ion concentration increases

110
Q 
which of the following diseases is caused by the disturbance of endochondral ossification?
Osteochondrosis
osteoporosis 
rickets 
gout
A

osteochondrosis

111
Q

what do you not give to treat subclinical ketosis?

A

gamitrhomycin

112
Q

which parameter is used for early disease detection on herd level?

A

milk produciton

113
Q

which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs

A

epitheliogenesis imperfecta

114
Q

xylazine efficacy in cows

A

10 times more efficient in cow than in horse

115
Q

the position of the fetus is

A

maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis

116
Q

TRP occurence in modern farms compared to traditional farms?

A

decreased incidence since 1954. better in modern farms only when renovating

117
Q

the posture

A

is the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus

118
Q

which statement is false about the development of reticuloperitonitis

A

the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum

119
Q 
What is the recommended breeding age for gilts
150-170
180-210
220-240
fler 250
A

220-240 days FEIL

tuva svarte dette og fikk minuspoeng

120
Q

which disease can not cause hoflund syndrome

A

acute ruminal acidosis

121
Q

where do we make a uterine incision in a pig during c-section

A

near the bifurcation, but on the horn, on the large cuvature

122
Q

what is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrane is diagnosed in cows

123
Q

zoonotic in swine

A

streptococcus suis

124
Q

zoonotic in cattle

A

bovine variola (pox)
trichophytiasis (ringworm)
rabies
chlamydia psittaci

125
Q

the differential diagnosis of enteritis according to the age of the animal

A

E. coli infecion typically occurs in sows after weaning (?)

126
Q

Neonatal infections in swine

127
Q

infections in newborn piglet

A

rotavirus, clostridium perfringens, clostridium dificile, cryptosporidium, isospora suis

128
Q

infections occuring after weaning

A

E.coli, PCV-2, gastric ulceration, lawsonia intercellulrains, brachyspira, salmonella, oesophagostomaum dentatum, trichuris suis, yersinia spp

129
Q

how can a toe granuloma be treated in small ru

A

compression bandage after excision

130
Q

vasectomy means

A

vas deferens is ligated an a section is removed

131
Q

which disorders are the most common i the period around farrowing

A

uterine and cervical prolapse

132
Q

Pet pigs injection

  • thigh
  • neck
  • both
  • none
133
Q

what type of transduer is used for the detection of early pregnancy in cows

A

linear rectal 5-7.5

134
Q

which statement is false about the development of TRP

A

the foreign body can reach the retiuclum from the omasum

135
Q

what is the recommended breeding age for gilts

A

180-210 days ???

137
Q

when does the cyclic corpus luteum become sensitive to prostaglandin in swine

A

after day 12

138
Q

therapy of the mulberry heart

A

vit E and selenum supplementation with the feed

139
Q

which is true for azeperone in pigs

A

cheap, effective and lisenced for pigs

140
Q

what is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrance is diagnosed in cows

141
Q

the differential diagnosis of enteritis according tot he age of the animal

A

coccidiosis occurs in a few days of age

142
Q

which of the following disease is caused by disturbance of endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis

143
Q

What can be a consequence ofa white line abscess in small ruminants

A

inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint

144
Q

causes of aujeszkys disease

145
Q

pyometra in cattle

A

occurs after day 21 post partum

trueperella pyogens

146
Q

why does pyometra occur

A

after endometritis, the inflammation leads to decreased produciton of PGF2a which means there is not enough to cause luteolysis.

The cervic is closed, there is a persistent CL which induces fluid secretion

147
Q

how to treat pyometra

A

be sure not pregnant, but PGF2a, and after 3 days the cervix opens and treat as a clinical endometritis (AB: uterine infusion
(e.g. Metricure – cephapirin)
o iodofoam/ozone
o PGF2α

148
Q

posterior stenosis

A

pylorus

vet ikke hva de er ute etter
enlargement of omasum and abomasum
reflux - further accumulation of feed in forestomachs
enlargement of rumen

149
Q

anterior stenosis

A

reticulo-omasal orifice

150
Q

TIVA risk small Ru

A

abomasal bloat, reflux

151
Q

hypoglycemia pig not in

A

auricular IV ear vein

152
Q

infusion drop in pig

A

auricular vessels

153
Q

what is the age they get glassers disease

  • 1-2 weeks
  • 4-8 weeks
  • 6-8 months
  • Breeding boars
154
Q

induction farowing

155
Q

what if the head and neck in the birth canal is visible

A

bilateral shoulder flexion?

foot nape posture?

156
Q

injectino site in commercial pig

  • Thigh muscle
  • Neck region
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above
157
Q

in swine acepromazine will cause

A

hypotension and hypothermia

158
Q

which structure on hoofs does not need to be cut in small Ru

159
Q

False regarding thrombocytopenia

A

-The litter of gilts are the most affected

160
Q

how do we treat uroliths

A

In struvite cases - Feeding with NH4Cl – modification of pH and dissolve struvite.
Vit A also good, and spasmolytic in partial obstruction and water.

161
Q

hepatosis dietetica

162
Q

azeperone in pigs

A

peripheral vasodilation

163
Q

reasons for scoliosis in prox vertebral

A

unilateral desensitization of the longissiums dorsi muscle

164
Q

content of anterior/posterior stenosis

A

foamy, creamy

165
Q

:)

166
Q

not used for pregnancy check

A

uterine biopsy

167
Q

which of these statements are true regarding splayleg disease

  • It is caused by the abnormal development of the hooves
  • It is more frequent in the forelegs than in the hindlegs
  • Affected piglets can be trampled by the sow
  • The problem is treated by binding the legs tightly with strong, thin material for at least a week
A

affected piglets can die by starvation or be trampled by the sow

168
Q

:P

169
Q

which i not true for flunixin (what is true)

  • Sedative
  • Analgesic
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Antipyretic
A

sedative

antipyretic, analgesic, antiinflammatory, anti-endotoxin

170
Q

what is true of rolling used to solve the abomasal displacement

  • Quick, easy and invasive technique but the probability of the redisplacement is high 50-70%
  • Quick, easy and non invasive technique but the probability of the redisplacement is low 5-7%
  • Quick, easy and invasive technique but the probability of the redisplacement is low 5-7%
  • Quick, easy and non invasive technique but the probability of the redisplacement id high – 50-70%
A

quick, easy and non invasive technique, but the probability of the redisplacement is high 50-70%

171
Q

the clinical signs of rabies is

A

behavioural change, donkey-like roaring, ascending paralysis ??

172
Q

What causes the traumatic injury of the liver in calves during birth?

  • Pressure inside the birth canal
  • Excessive force during forced extraction
  • Abnormal presentation of the calf
  • Yanking the umbilical cord
A

Excessive force during forced extraction

173
Q

what is the consequence of ruminal reflux
in all cases, it causes rumen acidosis
hyperchloraemia
the concentration of CL ion in the rumen increases

A

cl ion in rumen increase?

174
Q 
which vertebrae has last palpebral transverse process in cow 
l4 
l3 
l5
l6
175
Q

which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle
horses are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle
a cow is as sensitive as horse
cattle are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
none of the above are true

A

cattle 10 more than horse

176
Q

the posture of fetus is
the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
the longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
the situation of the head and extremities to the body of fetus
the placement of fetus in soft birth canal

A

the situation of the head and extremities to the body of fetus

177
Q

which statement is false about the development of reticuloperitonitis
in modern circumstances it appears after constructions
its prevalence is lower in modern farms than in traditional farm
the oral papillas of cattle play a role in its development
the foreignbody can reach the reticulum from the omasum

A

the foreignbody can reach the reticulum from the omasum

178
Q 
we do not use this in the treatment of clinical ketosis 
gluconeoplastic substances 
glucose 
glucocorticoids 
gamithromycin
A

gamithromycin

179
Q 
what is the first step in neonatal care of calves 
disinfection of the navel 
stimulation of breathing 
drying the calf 
colostrum feeding
180
Q

Cause of ineffective IM injection in swine

A
  • injection in adipose tissue
181
Q

Cause of ineffective IM injection in swine

A
  • injection in adipose tissue
182
Q

kuzco kuzco

183
Q

inhalational anasthesia in swine false

A

short soft palate

184
Q

TIVA small ru infusion drop

A

v auricularis?

185
Q

how to check if fetus is alive or dead in posterior presentation false

A

v. jugularis

186
Q

Induction of acyclic to cyclic pigs synchronization

187
Q

Swine enteritis WRONG

A

subcutaneous edema

188
Q

swine sperm amount

A

3 billion in 80 ml

189
Q

dominant follicle

A

fluid filled 1-2 cm

190
Q

ruminal acidosis prevention

A

buffers NaHCO3

191
Q

which nsaid mostly used in cattle

A

ketoprofen - cheaper than meloxicam

meloxicam ?

192
Q

cause of interdigital dermatitis

A

f. necrophorum

193
Q

not a cause of acute reticuloperitonitis

A

anything other than a sharp long object

194
Q

What causes the traumatic injury of the liver in calves during birth?

a. Pressure inside the birth canal
b. Excessive force during forced extraction
c. Abnormal presentation of the calf
d. Yanking the umbilical cord

A

b. Excessive force during forced extraction

195
Q
  1. Causes Arthritis in swine
A

Erysipelas, Haemophilus parasuis, Mycoplasma hyorhinis,( M. Hyosynoviae, was not on list, but for completion)

196
Q

16.Standing restraint incision

197
Q

22.megacolon in swine

A

Secondary due to chronic peritonitis

198
Q

Which statement is true in sheep?

  • Sacrococcygeal anesthesia: insert the needle btw the last sacral and the first coccygeal vertebra
  • Sacrococcygeal anesthesia: insert the needle btw the last sacral and the second coccygeal vertebra (S5, C2)
  • Sacrococcygeal anesthesia: insert the needle btw the first and second coccygeal vertebra (C1, C2)
  • Sacrococcygeal anesthesia: Insert the needle btw the second and the third coccygeal vertebra (C2, C3)
A
  • Sacrococcygeal anesthesia: insert the needle btw the last sacral and the first coccygeal vertebra
199
Q

On which side of the scrotum are incisions made during vasectomy?

  • On the caudal side
  • On the cranial side
  • On the lateral side
  • On the ventral side
A
  • On the cranial side ????
200
Q

What could you predict if you see only the tail of the lamb in the vaginal gap?

  • Two-sided carpal flexion
  • Two-sided hip flexion
  • One-sided hip flexion
  • Two-sided shoulder flexion
A
  • Two-sided hip flexion
201
Q

Which clinical sign is not valid for metritis in sheep?

  • Ewe spends long periods in sternal recumbancy
  • Depressed and anorexic ewe
  • Hungry lambs
  • Normal milk production
A
  • Normal milk production
202
Q

Which statement is TRUE about footrot in small ru?

  • Commonly occurs in mediterranean areas
  • Caused by Treponema spp
  • Easily treated by antibiotic therapy
  • Severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing the illness
A
  • Severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing the illness
203
Q

Which of the following cannot be used to determine if a fetus in anterior presentation is alive during obstetrical aid?

  • The suckling reflex
  • The twisting of the phalanges
  • The swallowing reflex
  • The palpation of the a. carotis
A
  • The palpation of the a. carotis
204
Q

Which grade of vaginal prolapse is characterized by the necrosis of the vaginal wall?

  • Grade one
  • Grade two
  • Grade three
  • Grade four
A
  • Grade four
205
Q

Which if the following is false regarding subclinical endometritis in cows?

  • It causes infertility in affected animals
  • It is characterized by a marked increase if neutrophils in the uterine lumen without pus formation
  • It is usually caused by Trueperella pyogenes
  • It is characterized by yellowish white discharge (ser ikke hele setningen)
A
  • It is characterized by yellowish white discharge (ser ikke hele setningen)

yellowish-white discharge with pus, uterus is bigger than normal, filled with thick, echodense fluid

206
Q

What is NOT a physiological narrowment of the soft birth canal?

  • The bifurcation
  • The cervix
  • The remaining tissue if the hymen
  • The vulva
A
  • The bifurcation
207
Q

The position of the fetus is

  • The situation of the head and extremities to the body if the fetus
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
A
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
208
Q

Diagnosis of subclinical ketosis

  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
  • RQUICKI calculated index calculation
  • Insulin measurement from peripheral blood
  • Non esterified fatty acid (NEFA) measurement from peripheral blood
A
  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
209
Q

The peripartal insulin resistancy in ruminants

  • Under farm circumstances measurable with the HEC cow-side test
  • A calculated index measures it from blood parameters e.g.: RQUICKI
  • If blood glucose concentration is <3 mmol/liter
  • It happens around 3 months after calving
A
  • A calculated index measures it from blood parameters e.g.: RQUICKI
210
Q

In treatment of milk fever the administration of calcium compound is advised in the following route

  • Per os
  • Intraperitonally
  • Subcutaneously
  • Intravenously
A
  • Intravenously
211
Q

The pathogen causing malignant catarrhal fever is…

  • OHV-1
  • OHV-2
  • OHV-3
  • OHV-5
212
Q

The course of rabies

  • 1-2 months
  • 1-2 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 3-6 days
213
Q

Next to which vertebrae should lidocain be injected in case of distal paralumbar anesthesia?

  • L1, L2, L3
  • L1, L2, L4
  • L2, L3, L4
  • L2, L3, L5
A
  • L1, L2, L4
214
Q

What is the sign of correct needle placement during epidural anesthesia of cattle?

  • Blood can be aspirated to the syringe
  • The tip of the needle can move freely
  • Fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle
  • Hissing sound of the air coming out of the epidural space
A
  • Fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle
215
Q

What could be the position of the incision line for the cow’s C-section in standing restraint?

  • Horizontal
  • Vertical
  • Oblique: caudo-ventral
  • None of the above
A

none of the above

Cranioventral

216
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding the 4-point nerve block in cattle?

  • It is less frequently used than the intravenous anesthesia of the foot
  • It is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis
  • One of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites
  • It is easy to administer due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot
A
  • It is easy to administer due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of the foot
217
Q

Which solution uses recumbency in case of abomasal displacement?

a. Hanover method
b. Ventral paramedian abomasopexy
c. Utrecht method
d. Laparoscopy (1 step form)

A

b. Ventral paramedian abomasopexy

218
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by disturbance of endochondral ossification?

a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteochondrosis
c. Rickets
d. Gout

A

b. Osteochondrosis

219
Q

The obstipation of the swine can be caused by?

a. Water intoxication
b. Long lasting fever
c. Can be a consequence of meningitis
d. The inadequate particle size of the granulated feed

A

b. Long lasting fever

220
Q

Clinical signs of the irion-deficient anemia in piglets?

a. Salvation
b. Melena in feces
c. Sudden death
d. Erythema

A

c. Sudden death

221
Q

What can azaperone cause in pigs?

a. Malignant hypothermia
b. Malignant hyperthermia
c. Peripheral vasodilation
d. Cardiac arrest

A

c. Peripheral vasodilation

222
Q

Which statement is true about porcine anesthesia?

a. Feed withdrawal for at least 4 hours (abdominal surgery 6 hours)
b. Feed withdrawal for at least 6 hours (abdominal surgery 4 hours)
c. Feed withdrawal for at least 12 hours (abdominal surgery 6 hours)
d. Feed withdrawal for at least 6 hours (abdominal surgery 12 hours)

A

d. Feed withdrawal for at least 6 hours (abdominal surgery 12 hours)

223
Q

Which vessel is suitable for TIVA drop infusion in pigs?

a. V. cava caudalis
b. V. cava cranialis
c. V. jugularis
d. Auricular vessel (ear vein)

A

d. Auricular vessel (ear vein)

224
Q

When does the cyclic corpus luteum become sensitive to prostaglandin in swine?

a. After day 5 of the cycle
b. After day 8 of the cycle
c. After day 12 of the cycle
d. Throughout the entire luteal phase

A

c. After day 12 of the cycle

225
Q

Which diagnostic method is the most practical one for diagnosing porcine uterine disorders?

a. Rectal palpation
b. Ultrasonography -
c. Bacteriological examination
d. Cytological examination

226
Q

What is the ”back pressure test”?

a. During estrus, the sow stands still, if we apply pressure on its back.
b. During pregnancy, the sow stands still if we apply pressure on its back. This is a method for early pregnancy detection.
c. If we turn a newborn piglet on its back, it will turn to sternal position quickly. We can judge their vitality with this method.
d. If we apply pressure on the back of a healthy pig while laying down, it will stand up. This way, we can select the sick ones.

A

a. During estrus, the sow stands still, if we apply pressure on its back.

227
Q
  1. Hypoglycaemia pig NOT
A

auriular glucose iv ear vein

PAM PQ (4 decks)

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