PQ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect. Compared to the JPEG image is the DICOM fires are
    a) less appropriate for diagnostics.
    b) bigger.
    c) preferred more by the owner.
    d) cannot be inspected with a medical image viewer program.
A

b) bigger.

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2
Q
  1. What is not true for DICOM files?

They can be inspected with commercial image viewer programs

Contain images of TIFF format.

The x-ray images have a size of 10-30 megabytes.

They contain metadata besides the image.

A

They can be inspected with commercial image viewer programs

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3
Q
  1. What does “acquisition” mean in digital imaging?

The clouding of electrons around the cathode spiral.

The scatter of primary beams around the animal’s body.

The creation of picture from the electric signal.

The equilibrium of exposure factors to optimize the image quality.

A

The creation of picture from the electric signal.

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4
Q
  1. Which statement is true?

You can’t reach into the primary beam even with lead gloves on.

The lead glove protects from the primary beam.

If you don’t see the bones of your gloved hand on the radiograph, then no radiation was exposed to your hand.

Only pregnant women can’t reach into the primary beam.

A

The lead glove protects from the primary beam.

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5
Q
  1. The position of which image is correct for the interpretation?

A

B

Both

Neither of them.

A

Neither of them.

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6
Q
  1. Is the positioning correct in this picture?

Yes.

No, the chest is rotated.

No, the forelimbs are not pulled forward.

No, the entire lung is not visible.

A

Yes

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7
Q
  1. What if the object is not in the center of the detector plate?

The resulting image will be enlarged.

The resulting image will be distorted.

The resulting image will be unsharp.

The resulting image will be overexposed.

A

The resulting image will be distorted.

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8
Q
  1. Which statement is false?

The canine tooth is located rostral to the tympanic bulla.

The patella is located cranial to the fabella.

The sternum is located ventral to the heart.

The olecranon is located dorsal to the carpus

A

The patella is located cranial to the fabella.

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9
Q
  1. Using the usual recumbency, what is the name of the projection?
    a. laterolateral
    b. lateromedial
    c. mediolateral
    d. mediomedial
A

c. mediolateral

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10
Q
  1. Where is the bullet?

in the iliac bone

under the iliac bone

above the iliac bone

cannot be told

A

cannot be told

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11
Q
  1. Why can be a structure more radiopaque than the other?

It has the same diameter, but it consists of elements of lower atomic numbers

it has the same material. but it’s thinner

it consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter

it consists of elements of smaller atomic number and it is thinner

A

it consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter

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12
Q
  1. What opacity does the marked area have?

fat

metal

soft tissue

bone

A

soft tissue

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13
Q
  1. What opacity does the marked area have?

fat

fluid

soft tissue

bone

A

fat

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14
Q
  1. Was this dog in sternal or dorsal recumbency?

sternal

dorsal

cannot be told

only the professor knows that

A

cannot be told

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15
Q
  1. The structure of which tool is demonstrated in the picture?

intensifying screen

grid

collimator

cassette

A

grid

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16
Q
  1. X-ray photons in the body normally are NOT
    a. absorbed
    b. reflected
    c. scattered
    d. transmitted
A

reflected

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17
Q
  1. Radon

is incorporated after inhalation

is released from industrial fallout

is generated by X-ray

is absent in Europe

A

is incorporated after inhalation

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18
Q
  1. It is officially safe to put a hand in the primary X-ray beam with

lead gloves on

with nothing on

with a double layer of protective lead on

none of the above

A

none of the above

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19
Q
  1. In case of deterministic effects

severity is proportionate to dose

there is no threshold

the typical unit of measure is Sievert

the most common result is a malignant tumour

A

severity is proportionate to dose

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20
Q
  1. An especially sensitive tissue type to ionizing radiation is

the skin

the bone marrow

the nervous system

none

A

the bone marrow

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21
Q
  1. In veterinary diagnostic radiology adverse may include

stochastic effects

deterministic effects

radiation sickness

none

A

stochastic effects

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22
Q
  1. The X-ray beam does NOT

cause radioactivity

ionize matter

travel at the speed of light

require electric current to generate

A

cause radioactivity

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23
Q
  1. A personal dosimeter is

worn on the outer side of protective clothing

your decision to wear it or not

indicates overexposure with light and sound signal

records the effective dose

A

records the effective dose

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24
Q
  1. One of the following is NOT a form of protection against ionizing radiation

distance

shielding

dose equivalent

time

A

dose equivalent

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25
Q
  1. What type of error is visible in the picture?

it is overexposed

it is underexposed

it is blurry

it has low contrast

A

it is blurry

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26
Q
  1. The opacity of which organ differs from the others ?

Urinary bladder

Gallbladder

Trachea.

Heart

A

Trachea

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27
Q
  1. Which statement is true ?

You don’t have to use grid for the chest .

You don’t have to use grid above 10 centimeter object thickness .

The use of the grid is often not required in digital systems .

The create improves the image sharpness

A

The use of the grid is often not required in digital systems .

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28
Q
  1. What is true regarding the image ?

it is overexposed

it has low contrast

it is underexposed

it has too high contrast

A

it has low contrast

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29
Q
  1. Why can’t we see the stifle in this image ?

It is amputated .

It is too far from the cassette .

It is relatively overexposed .

It is relatively underexposed .

A

it is relatively overexposed

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30
Q
  1. Which statement is false ?

in case of wrong exposure factors the digital image will be mottled.

The S-value informs you about the exposure .

The image can be mottled both in over- and underexposed cases

Digital systems require much higher doses than analog systems

A

Digital systems require much higher doses than analog systems

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31
Q
  1. Which statement is true ?

the overexposed digital image will be too bright.

the overexposed analog image will be too dark.

the underexposed analog image will be too dark.

the under exposed digital image will be too bright.

A

the overexposed analog image will be too dark.

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an image parameter ?
    a. density
    b. sharpness
    c. magnification
    d. contrast
A

c. magnification

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33
Q
  1. Which exposure factors cause same blackening on the detector than 60kV/8mAs?

70 kV/ 16 mAs

50 kV/ 20 mAs

80kV/2mAs

40 kV/ 10 mAs

A

80kV/2mAs

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34
Q
  1. Which statement is false? In case of a chest radiograph

Longer exposure time is recommended

Smaller exposure values are needed compared to an abdominal radiograph of the same diameter

The contrast will be higher compared to the abdomen

Motion unsharpness is a common problem

A

Longer exposure time is recommended

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35
Q
  1. Which statement is false?

The mAs describes the number of x-ray photons .

Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time .

The contrast of the image is mainly based on the mAs .

Scatter radiation is mainly based on mAs .

A

Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time .

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36
Q
  1. Which exposure facture could be used in small animal radiography ?

8mAs

100 mAs

0,8 mAs

800 mAs

A

8mAs

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37
Q
  1. What conclusion can be drawn when comparing the opacity of the structure in the circle and the rib?

The structure is a malignant tumour .

The structure and the rib have the same diameter

The structure lies further from the cassette than the rib .

The structure probably contains calcium .

A

The structure probably contains calcium .

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38
Q
  1. Which statement is true?

Image acquisition is faster in CR, than in DR systems

CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems

In the DR systems the cassette contains a PSP plate

A reader or scanner is a normal component of a DR system

A

CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems

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39
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding the radiographic image?

The distortion is less on the periphery.

Distortion can be prevented by centralization.

Objects look smaller on radiograph then their real size.

Unsharpness may come only from motion.

A

Distortion can be prevented by centralization.

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40
Q
  1. The cause of an unsharp x-ray image cannot be :

motion

increased distance between the object and the detector

low kV

high mAs

A

high mAs

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41
Q
  1. What kind of radiopacity has the marked round structure in the picture?

gas

bone

soft tissue

metal

A

metal

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42
Q
  1. What kind of radiopacity has the marked organ in the picture?

gas

bone

soft tissue

fat

A

soft tissue

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43
Q
  1. Which statement is false ?

bones are more radiolucent than metals

fat is more radiopaque than fluids

gas is more radiolucent than fat

fluids and soft tissues have the same opacity

A

fat is more radiopaque than fluids

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44
Q
  1. What is the main source of the radiation exposure of the personnel?

leaking radiation from the x-ray tube

the primary beam

the secondary beam originating from the patient

none of them

A

the secondary beam originating from the patient

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45
Q
  1. Which components are different in conventional and digital radiography?

x-ray tube

generator

grid

detector

A

detector

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46
Q
  1. The attenuation of the X-ray beam does not depend on which parameter?

atomic number

object thickness

physical density

optical density

A

optical density

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47
Q
  1. What is not a normal component in the digital radiographic technology?

x-ray tube

intensifying screen

grid

collimator

A

intensifying screen

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48
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect? The x-ray (is)…

ionizing radiation.

electromagnetic radiation.

travels at the speed of light.

consists of charged particles.

A

consists of charged particles.

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49
Q
  1. With the use of a grid we can

reduce the radiation exposure

improve the image contrast

improve the image sharpness

reduce the exposure time

A

improve the image contrast

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50
Q
  1. Which one does not belong to the basic radiographic opacities
    a. metal
    b. wood
    c. stone
    d. gas
A

wood

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51
Q
  1. Which statement is false? The x-ray beam is

invisible

makes chemical changes in photoemulsions

produces light flash in fluorescent materials

penetrates bodies without losing energy

A

penetrates bodies without losing energy

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52
Q
  1. Which statement is false? The scattered beam

is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff

originates mostly from the patient’s body

is disadvantageous concerning the quality of the radiograph

is less intense than the primary beam

A

is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff

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53
Q
  1. Which statement is false?

The use of grid is recommended over 10 cm object diameter.

Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced

The grid filters the scatter radiation

The grid contains small lead strips standing vertically or in an angle facing toward the x-ray tube.

A

Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced

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54
Q
  1. Any body part exceeding this measurement requires the use of a grid to reduce fog producing scatter radiation

20cm

10cm

2.5 cm

30cm

A

10cm

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55
Q
  1. When viewing a radiograph over laterally positioned animal

the head should be at the top of the viewbox /display

the head should face the viewer’s left with this spine at the top

they had shoot face with the viewer’s right with the spine at the top

the head should face the viewer’s left with the spine at the bottom

A

the head should face the viewer’s left with this spine at the top

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56
Q
  1. To prevent magnification and distortion of the object being radiographed, the patient must …

be as parallel to the film as possible

be as close to the film as possible

be as close to the x-ray tube as possible

both a and b are correct

A

both a and b are correct

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57
Q
  1. Where is a grid located?

between the patient and the cassette

between the patient and the x-ray tube

above the x-ray tube

under the cassette

A

between the patient and the cassette

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58
Q
  1. What do grids contain that controls scatter radiation?
    a. Molybdenum
    b. Aluminium
    c. Silver
    d. Lead
A

Lead

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59
Q
  1. The primary exposure factor that controls scatter radiation is

kVp

mAs

increased exposure time

the collimator setting

A

kVp

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast?

abdomen

thorax

femur

all are approximately equal

A

thorax

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61
Q
  1. Which of the following increases radiographic density?

thinner body parts

increased mAs

increased density of the bodypart being radiographed

decreased kVp

A

increased density of the bodypart being radiographed

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62
Q
  1. If we increase the kVp, we have to use ……..mAs, to get the same exposure.

higher

the same

lower

whatever

A

lower

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63
Q
  1. The potential difference between the anode and cathode is measured in
    a. kilovolts
    b. kilowatts
    c. milliamperes
    d. centimeters
A

a. kilovolts

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64
Q
  1. Which is a characteristic of x-rays?

Their total number produced is determined by kV

Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power.

Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases.

They diverge from a light source.

A

Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power.

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65
Q
  1. The temperature of the filament within the cathode is controlled by:

time setting.

the source-image distance.

kVp setting.

mA setting.

A

mA setting.

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66
Q
  1. One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of

heat

x-rays

light

none of the above.

A

x-rays

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67
Q
  1. Increasing the film-object distance:

The resulting image will be larger.

The resulting image will be sharper.

The resulting image will be distorted.

Both a and b is correct.

A

The resulting image will be distorted.

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68
Q
  1. According to Santes’ rule, if a cats abdomen measures 8 cm, FFD is 100 cm, kVp is:
    a. 72
    b. 56
    c. 66
    d. 52
A

b. 56

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69
Q
  1. The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100 mA and 1/10 sec is:

10 mAs

10000 mAs

100 mAs

1mAs

A

10 mAs

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70
Q
  1. Ways to increase penetrating power of x-rays include:

increasing kVp.

increasing the time setting.

increasing thermionic emission.

increasing mAs.

A

increasing kVp.

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71
Q
  1. X-ray photons travel:

toward the cathode in an x-ray tube.

away from the anode in an x-ray tube.

toward the anode in an x-ray tube.

None of them is true.

A

away from the anode in an x-ray tube.

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72
Q
  1. Electrons travel:

Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube

Away from the anode in an x-ray tube

Toward the anode in an x-ray tube

None of them is true

A

Toward the anode in an x-ray tube

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?

X-rays can be deflected by magnetic fields.

X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths.

Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter.

Gamma rays are required to produce a radiograph.

A

X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths.

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74
Q
  1. As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to:

cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light).

completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged.

cause biochemical changes that can kill cells.

all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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75
Q
  1. The negatively charged particle of an atom is the:
    a. proton.
    b. neutron.
    c. electron.
    d. nucleus.
A

electron

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76
Q
  1. Which statement is true?

Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure.

Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examinations.

During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal.

Fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”.

A

Fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”.

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77
Q
  1. Which statement is true?

Some digital technologies use x-ray films.

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog.

DR systems can be digital or analog.

The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic.

A

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog.

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78
Q
  1. Which part of the x-ray machine is marked in the picture?

generator

collimator

x-ray tube

control panel/computer

A

generator

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79
Q
  1. Which statement is false?

The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation.

X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a magnetic field.

Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power.

The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.

A

The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.

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80
Q
  1. What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)?

x-ray tube

x-ray film

collimator

PSP plate

A

x-ray film

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81
Q
  1. Which statement is true? The use of the grid

reduces the radiation exposure

improves the image contrast

improves the image sharpness

reduces the exposure time

A

improves the image contrast

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82
Q
  1. Which of the above x-ray tubes contains rotating anode?

A

B

both

none of them

A

B

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83
Q
  1. What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography?

0,1-2 kVp

1000-2000 kVp

40-100 kVp

4-10 kVp

A

40-100 kVp

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84
Q
  1. Which statement is false?

The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam.

The mA describes the number of x-ray photons

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too.

The same mAs can be created from different time components.

A

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too.

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85
Q
  1. Which one is not an exposure factor?
    a. kV
    b. mA
    c. kW
    d. s
A

c. kW

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86
Q
  1. What is the role of the collimator?

Filtration of the scattered beams

Setting the size of the x-ray beam

Setting the strength of the x-ray beam

Reduction of x-ray radiation

A

Setting the size of the x-ray beam

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87
Q
  1. Which statement is false?

The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine.

Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time.

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness

The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting.

A

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness

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88
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism in dogs: therapy

A

Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone

Later: fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

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89
Q

Breed predisposed for Addisons

A

Poodle

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90
Q

Most important nutritive vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is…

A

Cranial supf. epigastric artery and vein

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91
Q

Which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one?

A

Tubed/stent suture

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92
Q

Addisons disease in dogs: diagnosis

A

Na+/K+ <27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test

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93
Q

In which species is thyroid adenocarcinoma wo/ hormone alteration most common?

A

Dogs

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94
Q

Which disorder does not cause osmotic diuresis?

A

Pyometra

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95
Q

What is the classical indication for adrenalectomy?

A

Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma causing peripheral Cushing

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96
Q

Which nerve is most prone to iatrogenic injury durin ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) procedure?

A

Auriculotemporal branch of facial nerve

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97
Q

What disease is typical for this picture?

A

Hypercorticolism (Cushings)

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98
Q

Hypothyroidism of dogs: diagnosis

A

Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, TSH/TRH-stimulation test

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99
Q

Hypoadrenocorticolism (Addisons) of dogs: clinical manifistation

A

Dehydration, K increase, Ca decrease, weakness, tremor, shock, bradycardia

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100
Q

Breed predisposed for Cushings

A

Dachshound

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101
Q

Diagnosis

A

Alopecia-X

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102
Q

What is true regarding diabetes insipidus?

A

Partial or complete ADH deficiency

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103
Q

What is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at max effect of insulin?

A

4-7 mmol/L

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104
Q

Addisons disease in dogs: cause and pathogenesis

A

Primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of adrenals

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105
Q

Which procedure is most effective and appropriate in canine otitis external and media?

A

TECA LBO

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106
Q

Which breed is not predisposed for obesity?

A

Borzoi

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107
Q

Which factor plays a cricual role in the preoperative determination of surgical prognosis of adrenalectomy?

A

Tumorous involvement of caudal vena cava

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108
Q

Central form of diabetes insipidus: treatment

A

Desmopressin most effective

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109
Q

What is not a consequence of obesity?

A

Hypokalemia

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110
Q

Hyperthyroidism of cats

A

Thyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, polyphagia, weightloss, myocardial hypertrophy

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111
Q

In which endocrine disorder is there no PU/PD

A

Hyperthyroidism and Alopecia-X

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112
Q

Hyperthyroidism of cats: therapeutic options

A

Thyroidectomy, radiotherapy, methimazole, low iodine diet

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113
Q

Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms

A

Decr. activity, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, decr. fertility

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114
Q

What does W-plasty mean?

A

Scar correcting plastic procedure

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115
Q

What is the common cause of hyperthyroidism in cats?

A

Thyroid adenoma

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116
Q

Congenital hyposomatotropism: clinical features

A

German shepherd, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia

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117
Q

Acromegaly: causes

A

Dog: progestagen treatment, cat: pituitary tumor

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118
Q

In monogastric animals the energy content of which feed is utilized most efficiently?

A

Fat

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119
Q

Which of the following procedure is the most effective in feline otitis media?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy

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120
Q

Causes of insulin resistance?

A

Progesterone, hypercorticolism, hypersomatotropism

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121
Q

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

A

DI ( + spaying of bitch)

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122
Q

What may cause hyperglycaemia in diabetic patient treated with insulin?

A

Insulin resistance

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123
Q

3 most common causes of PU/PD in cats?

A

Chronic kidney disease, DM, hyperthyroidism

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124
Q

What is the pathognomic symptoms of Cushings?

A

Calcinosis cutis

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125
Q

Which have the widest indication area?

A

Reconstructive surgery

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126
Q

What is V-Y plasty?

A

Tension relieving plastic procedure

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127
Q

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters?

Cystoscopy

Double contrast cystography

IV pyrography pneumocystography

Urinary scintigraphy

A

Cystoscopy

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128
Q

This AB is not excreted with urine - and not proper treatment for UTI

Amoxicillin

Cephalosporin

Rifamipicin

Trimetoprim-sulphonamide

A

Rifampicin

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129
Q

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by:

renal diet

antihypertensive drugs

ACE-inhibitors

All 3

A

All 3

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130
Q

High-dose maintenance fluid therapy (>100ml/kg/day) for acute kidney injury:

increases diureses, thus flushes kidneys faster

may cause interstitial edema in kidneys, that decrease GFR and renal blood flow

Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in anorexic animals

In anuria, it ensures that renal function and urine production are restored quickly

A

may cause interstitial edema in kidneys, that decrease GFR and renal blood flow

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131
Q

Which one is the most likely diagnosis in dogs in case of hematuria?

Urolithiasis

Benign prostate hypertrophy

Bacterial cystitis

Neoplasm

A

Bacterial cystitis

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132
Q

What is the cause of purine urolithiasis?

Hyperuricoseuria

PSS

Chronic liver disease

All 3

A

All 3

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133
Q

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis?

1-2 weeks of AB therapy is requires

Aspiration of pus and rinsing of renal pelvis accelerated healing

Treatment if anemia should be started as soon as possible

Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, this unilat nephrectomy is the solution

A

Aspiration of pus and rinsing of renal pelvis accelerated healing

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134
Q

Typical symptom of tubular acidosis:

Incontinence

Metabolic acidosis

PU/PD

Bone development disorders

A

Metabolic acidosis

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135
Q

PD definition in dogs and cats

A

Dogs: >80-100 ml/bw/kg

Cat: > 50 ml/bw/kg

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136
Q

Which organ is not damaged due to hypertension?

Lungs

Brain

Kidneys

Eyes

A

Lungs

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137
Q

Which of the following suture patters is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

Double layer continuous lembert

Double layer (penetrating lembert) suture

Single layer seromuscular continous

Double layer interrupted lembert

A

Double layer (penetrating lembert) suture

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138
Q

Ectopic ureters ….. Which answer is wrong?

Are usually causing constant urine dripping

Are occurring only in females

Can be diagnosed by x-ray or CT

Can be diagnosed with cystocsopy

A

Are occuring only in females

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139
Q

Which statement is true about progression of CKD?

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons

Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive production of PTH

Is generally reversible with specific therapy

Loss of functional nephrons leads to an increase in GFR

A

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons

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140
Q

Which is not true for feline idiopathic cystitis?

Antibiotics are useless

Affected cats are mostly fed dry food

Affected cats are mostly outdoors

Affects mostly neutered cats

A

Affected cats are mostly outdoors

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141
Q

Which of the following breed is usually not affected by ectopic ureters?

Labrador

Husky

German shepherd

Westie

A

German shepherd

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142
Q

Which of the following is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

Marsupialisation

Omentalisation

Drainage

Puncture

A

Puncture

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143
Q

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy…

The kidney is occluded via clamping both renal artery and vein

Renal vein is to be occluded so that the arterial blood supply remains intact

Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact

The ureter is also occluded

A

Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact

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144
Q

What is not typical for acute kidney injury?

Azotemia

Hypokalemia

Oliguria, anuria

Metabolic acidosis

A

Hypokalemia

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145
Q

Treatment of pyelonephritis: which answer is wrong?

Ace-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis

Systemic AB

Fluid therapy

A

Ace-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

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146
Q

When is it recommended to start EPO/darbepoetin therapy in CKD?

A

When hematocrit drops to 18-20%

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147
Q

Which is not an indication for dialysis treatment?

Polyuric acute kidney injury inresponsive to fluid therapy

Anuric acute kidney injury

Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis

Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

A

Polyuric acute kidney injury inresponsive to fluid therapy

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148
Q

Which is not a contributing factor concering lower UTI?

Incontinence

GCC therapy

FIC

Fanconi syndrome

A

Fanconi

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149
Q

Which feline lower UTI disease can be accompanied by crystalluria?

Idiopathic cystitis

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

All 3

A

All 3

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150
Q

Recommended concomitant with EPO/darbepoetin?

A

Iron + B12

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151
Q

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicylic acid test?

Albumin

Globulin

None

Both

A

Both

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152
Q

Which of the following means urination not at the proper place?

Stranguria

Pollikuria

Dysuria

Periuria

A

Periuria

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153
Q

Which statement is false? In case of subclinical bacteriuria:

Usually a predisp. factor for UTI is present

AB therapy will be prescribes

Urine sediment can be active

Microbiological examination of urine is positive

A

AB therapy will be prescribed

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154
Q

Which is not correct: Treatment of CKD patients include….

Renal diet, phosphate binders

ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs

EPO inj., potassium supplementation

Diuretics PO

A

ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs

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155
Q

Second common UTI disease in dogs

A

Urolithiasis

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156
Q

Persistant, prerenal proteinuria..

Is a typical characteristics of UTI infection

Occurs after heavy physical activity

Bence-jones protein are typical examples

Typical characteristics of leptospirosis

A

Bence-jones protein are typical examples

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157
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal peritonitis?

Precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

Diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication

definitely requires emergency care

Caused by morphological and/or functional disorder of abdominal organs

A

Precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

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158
Q

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by… Which answer is wrong?

Hemoculture in case of azotemia

Histological examination of a renal biopsy specimen

Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods and performing urine cultures

Microbiological examination of a renal pelvis puncture

A

Hemoculture in case of azotemia

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159
Q

What is the cause of urine urolithiasis?

Hyperuricosuria

PSS

Chronic liver disease

All 3

A

All 3

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160
Q

Monitoring blood pressure is particularly important

In young animals

In FIC

In kidney disease

In case of heart failure

A

In kidney disease

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161
Q

To determine the urine concentrating ability of kidneys we use?

Blod/urea level

Urinary total protein/creatinine ratio (UPC)

Urine specific gravity with a refractometer

Blood creating and SDMA levels

A

Specific gravity

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162
Q

Most likely diagnosis in cats in case of hematuria?

FIC

Urolithiasis

Neoplasia

Bacterial cystitis

A

FIC

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163
Q

Which statement is correct abount glumerulopathies?

75% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis

50% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis

15% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

A

50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

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164
Q

Renal amyloidosis in typically not caused by?

A

Chronic liver disease

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165
Q

Not typical of IRIS stage 1 CKD?

A

Acute blindness because of hypertension

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166
Q

Antidote for ethylene glycol toxicosis?

A

Ethyl-alcohol and fomepizole

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167
Q

When should you think about leptospirosis in a dog?

A

Elevated liver enzymes and creatinine level

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168
Q

What is the most effective gastric protectant for dogs with chronic kidney failure?

A

Pantoprazole

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169
Q

How do you treat a cat with FIC?

A

Increased water intake

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170
Q

Until what level is it recommended fo increase Ht with EPO therapy in CKD?

A

Until Ht at ca. 30%

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171
Q

Which drug is not recommended to improve appetite in cats with CKD?

A

Pantoprazole

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172
Q

IRIS classification, wrong answer?

4 stages determined by serum creatinin levels

Stage 1 creatinine is only mildly elevated

Substages based on presence of proteinuria

Substages based on degree of hypertension

A

Stage 1 creatinine is only mildly elevated

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173
Q

What is true about urohydropropulsion?

Require good surgical skills

No sedation is required

Renal pelvis is connected to the bladder with special shunt

Suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

A

The technique may be suitable for removing small stones from urinary bladder

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174
Q

Fanconi syndrome is not characterised by?

A

Central DI

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175
Q

Which statement is false?

In glomerular proteinuria, large proteins are excreted

Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high

Borderline proteinuria means UPC is between 0.2 and 0.4/5

Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy

A

Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high

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176
Q

Most common cause of lower UTI in dogs?

Bladder tumor, prostate alterations

Anatomical disorders, foreign body

Bacterial cystitis, urolithiasis

Interstitial cystitis, mycoplasma

A

Bacterial cystitis, urolithiasis

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177
Q

Not true about polycystic kidney disease?

Painful kidneys

Hematuria

Do not have > 1 year to live

Inherited

A

Do not have > 1 year to live

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178
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals?

E.coli/Proteus

Antifreeze

Leptospirosis

Ureter stones

A

Leptospirosis

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179
Q

What is trua about subclinical bacteruria?

Asymptomatic

Only mild lower UTI symptoms

Pyelonephritis may be suspected

Bacteria in urine is usually multidrug resistant

A

Asymptomatic

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180
Q

Which statement is true about pyelonephritis?

Bacteria usually reach renal pelvis from systemic circulation

We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

On US we find shrunken kidneys

Usually urinary sediment is unchanged, because the inflammation is limited to renal pelvis

A

We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

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181
Q

Which uroliths are radiodense?

A

Calcium oxalate and struvite

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182
Q

Which of the following toold/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in diagnosis of urinary bladder tumors?

Double contrast cystography

Ultrasonography

Urine sediment analysis/cytology

Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

A

Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

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183
Q

Which suture material is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

A

Poliglecaprone

PDS, polyglyconate, glycomer are recommended

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184
Q

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not true?

Lack of EPO

GI bleeding/ulcers

Decreased survivaltime of RBC

Hemolysis

A

Hemolysis

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185
Q

Causes of glomerular disease in small animals. Which is not correct?

Adhesions of immune complexes to basement membr.

Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials

Amyloidosis

Congenital/aquired basement membr/podocyte injury

A

Congenital/aquired basement membr/podocyte injury

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186
Q

Which of the following factors does not affect the success of feline perineal urethrostomy?

Transection of bulbospongiosis muscle

Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma

Transection of isciocavernosus muscle

Type of suture material

A

Transection of bulbospongiosis muscle

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187
Q

Most common lower UTI of cats?

Prostate disease

Idiopathic cystitis

Urolithiasis

Bacterial cystitis

A

Idiopathic cystitis

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188
Q

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in acute obstruction FLUTD?

A

Stabilisation of urethral obstruction

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189
Q

What is your diagnosis if glucosuria appears in case of euglycemia?

A

Addisons

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190
Q

Not typical alteration in CKD

Hypokalemia

Anemia

Hyperphosphatemia

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis

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191
Q

What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?

Determination of blood creatinine and urea values

Determination of specific gravity by refractometer

Detection of severe proteinuria

Examination of urine sediment

A

Detection of severe proteinuria

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192
Q

Prerenal azotemia…. Which is the wrong answer?

May be due to dehydration

May cause kidney damage without treatment

Can be corrected with fluid therapy

May be caused by urine leakage into abdomen

A

May be caused by urine leakage into abdomen

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193
Q

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, what diagnosis is not probable?

PKD

Hydronephrosis

Lymphoma

Renal fibrosis

A

Renal fibrosis

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194
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding prostate US?

A

It can differentiate cysts from abscess

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195
Q

Which statement is correct regarding traumatic renal bleeding?

Abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)

Plain abd. radiograph is usually pathognomic

Retroperitoneal blood loss may lead to exsanguination

Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually it does not lead to life-threatening circulatory changes

A

Retroperitoneal blood loss may lead to exsanguination

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196
Q

Which treatment does not affect the PTH level in chronic renal cases?

Feeding renal diet

Adding phosphorus binders to diet

ACE inhibitor therapy

Vit. D administration

A

ACE inhibitor therapy

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197
Q

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy?

A

Easily dissectable urethra, enlarged section, wide and safe stroma

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198
Q

Which of the following findings indicate urinary bladder rupture?

If catheterization cannot harvest urine in traumatized patient

Urine contains blood during catheterisation of traumatised patient

Contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography

Contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

A

Contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

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199
Q

Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?

Occurs bilaterally

Can lead to ureterolithiasis

Caused by congenital disorder

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

A

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

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200
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureters?

May cause dysuria

In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring

Urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

Urinary incontinence is always constant

A

Urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

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201
Q

Which statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis?

Diagnosis can be made based in typical US image of the kidneys

Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high

An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment

Serum albumin level is increased

A

An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment

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202
Q

Amyloidosis is not typically caused by?

Chronic inflammatory processes

Neoplasia

Chronic liver disease

Genetic causes

A

Chronic liver disease

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203
Q

Hypercholesterolemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease..

Glomerulopathies in dogs

Chronic kidney disease of cats

Acute kidney injury in dogs

Fanconi syndrome

A

Glomerulopathies in dogs

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204
Q

Oliguria in dog, etiology

Chronic renal disease, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra

Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease

Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies

A

Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease

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205
Q

Renal amyloidosis is typically found in which dog breed?

Basenji

Shar-pei

Vizsla

Poodle

A

Shar-pei

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206
Q

Which treatment is not recommended in FIC?

Increased water intake

Pheromones

Urine acidification

Toys, scratching posts, hiding places, additional, litters

A

Urine acidification

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207
Q

What typically causes “acute on chronic” kidney disease?

Polypoid cystitis

Hemodynamic disturbances

Hyperthyroidism

Hepatopathy

A

Hemodynamic disturbances

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208
Q

Possible causes of hydronephrosis, which one is wrong?

Ureter stones

Granuloma formation following neurtalization

Ascending infection

TCC in bladder

A

Ascending infection

209
Q

Which stone appears in case of bacterial cystitis in dogs?

Urate

Ca-oxalate

Cysteine

Struvite

A

Struvite

210
Q

It typically causes “acute on chronic” kidney disease?

Polypoid cysts

Hemodynamic disturbance

Hyperthyroidism

Hepatopathy

A

Hemodynamic disturbance

211
Q

Postrenal azotemia… Which answer is wrong?

May be due to urethral obstruction

May cause kidney damage if not treated

May be due to severe dehydration

May be due to ureter rupture

A

May be due to severe dehydration

212
Q

Which urinary stone can not be dissolved medically?

A

Ca-oxalate

213
Q

What is not true about polycystic kidney disease?

Often asymptomatic

Renal abscess can develop due to bacterial infection

US examination is required for diagnosis

Treatment is often surgical

A

Treatment is often surgical

214
Q

Renal cysts are….

Always congenital

Always bilateral

Mainly accidental findings

Generally causing renal failure

A

Mainly accidental finding

215
Q

In dogs, which type of urolith can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle etc.?

A

Ca-oxalate

216
Q

What is the main initiating cause of Ca/P imbalance in chronic renal failure?

Inadequate vit. D production

Poor absorption of Ca from GI tract

Retention of P

Nephrocalcinosis

A

Retention of P

217
Q

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood P level during treatment of hyperkalemia? Choose the wrong answer

IV calcium

Potassium free infusion and furosemide

Glucose containing infusions

Rapid acting insulin applicators

A

IV calcium

218
Q

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia?

Kidneys are typically enlarges on US with thin cortex

Usually no changes in urine, only in blood

Common symptoms are PU/PD

Physical examination, kidneys are painful

A

Common symptoms are PU/PD

219
Q

Creatinine level of dogs and cats with IRIS stage 1 CKD is?

Normal: <140 umol/l

>240 umol/l

>340 umol/l

>440 umol/l

A

Normal: <140 umol/l

220
Q

How would you treat a cat diagnosed with idiopathic cystitis?

AB

Urine acidifying diet

Catheterisation, flushing bladder with isotonic saline

Increase water intake

A

Increase water intake

221
Q

What is not true about renal glucosuria?

Caused by glomerular disease

Plasma glucose levels are normal

Can be genetic

May be part of Fanconi syndrome

A

Caused by glomerular disease

222
Q

Renal amyloidosis is typically found in which cat breed?

Persian

Siamese

Abyssinian

Bengal

A

Abyssinian

223
Q

What therapy is not recommended for treatment of dehydration in CKD?

Adm. of IV infusion

Adm. of SC infusion

Incr. water consumption

Dialysis

A

Dialysis

224
Q

What is the most common cause of struvite uroliths in dogs?

Neutering in bitches

Chronic bacterial UTI

Dietary anomaly

Inadequate response to stressors

A

Chronic bacterial UTI

225
Q

Renal cysts…

Are mainly accidental findings

Always congenital

Always bilateral

Generally cause renal failure

A

Are mainly accidental finidngs

226
Q

IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is usually associated with

Azotemia

Anemia, metabolic acidosis

Uremia

Decreased specific gravity of urine

A

Decreased specific gravity of urine

227
Q

Causes of acute nephrosis… Which is wrong?

Immune-complex deposition

Renal ischemia

Neprotoxic material

Hemoglobin, myoglobin

A

Immune-complex deposition

228
Q

Fanconi syndrome in dogs, which answer is wrong?

Glucosuria

Metabolic acidosis

Aminoaciduria

Ketonuria

A

Ketonuria

229
Q

Oliguria definition?

Output less than 50 ml/kg/day

Output less than 100 ml/kg/day

Output less than 30 ml/kg/day

Output less than 6-10 ml/kg/day

A

Output less than 6-10 ml/kg/day

230
Q

Most important aspect of struvite urolith treatment in dogs

Diet

AB

Urine acidification

All 3

A

All 3

231
Q

Which of the following stones appear in case of ethylene glycol toxicosis?

Struvite

Ca-oxalate dihydrate

Ca-oxalate monohydrate

Purine

A

Ca-oxalate monohydrate

232
Q

Symptoms of lower UTI in small animals, which is wrong?

Hematuria, pollakiuria

Stranguria, dysuria

Polyuria, azotemia

Periuria, incontinence

A

Polyuria, azotemia

233
Q

Which of the following does not cause hydronephrosis?

Stricture associated with previous surgery

Urethral torsion

Urethral tumors

Ureterolithiasis

A

Urethral torsion

234
Q

Suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supprted by… Which answer is wrong?

Demonstration of Ca-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment

Detection of ethylene glycol in blood

Detection of ethylene glycol in urine

Observation of halo-signs in kidneys during US

A

Demonstration of Ca-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment

235
Q

Treatment of nephritis

Ace-inhibitors

Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis

Systemic AB

Fluid therapy

A

Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis

236
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?

Can occur bilaterally

Can lead to ureterolithiasis

Caused by congenital disorders

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

A

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

237
Q

Which circumstances may cause nephrosis/AKI.. Which is wrong?

Hypotension, dehydration

Overhydration w/ crystalloid infusion

Hypothermia, NSAIDs

AB, chemotherapeutics

A

Hypothermia, NSAIDs

238
Q

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis?

Partial nephrectomy

Unilateral nephroureteroectomy

Kidney drainage

Euthanasia

A

Unilateral nephroureteroectomy

239
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obstruction in a male dog?

Urethral hydropropulsion

Prescrotal urethrostomy

Scrotal urethrostomy

Perineal urethrostomy

A

Urethral hydropropulsion

240
Q

Which of the following is not typical in case of babesiosis?

Myoglobinuria

Icterus

Vomitus

Acute kidney injury

A

Myoglobinuria

241
Q

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction of feline lower UTI?

Stabilisation perineal urethrostomy

Stabilisation cystocentesis

Stabilisation urinary bladder expression

Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

A

Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

242
Q

Which of the following is not typical in case of AKI?

Cahexia

Vomitus

Metabolic acidosis

Uraemic ulcers

A

Cahexia

243
Q

Abnormalities that are typical for chornic renal disease. Which is wrong?

Hypertension

PU/PD

Hypophosphatemia

Hypokalemia

A

Hypophosphatemia

244
Q

IRIS stage 1 CKD is associated with?

Azotemia

Anemia, metabolic acidosis

Uremia

Decreased specific gravity of urine

A

Decreased specific gravity of urine

245
Q

In case of elevated blood creatining conc.?

Animal is uremic azotemic

Animal has kidney disease

Animal has azotemia

Animal was fed with too much protein

A

Animal has azotemia

246
Q

It prolongs the survival of dogs and cats with CKD?

Increased P intake

Medical reduction of proteinuria

Urinary diet

All 3

A

Urinary diet

247
Q

Progression of renal disease is caused by… Which is wrong?

Proteinuria

Isothenuria

Hyperparathyroidism

Glomerular hypertension

A

Isothenuria

248
Q

Which of the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria?

Small sized protein appear in urine

UPC >2

UPC <0

Ketonuria

A

Small sized protein appear in urine

249
Q

Where is the most common location for vertebral body tumors?

In the ventral body, middle third

On en plates

On processus multifidarius

On processus articularis

A

In the ventral body, middle third

250
Q

What is not true for degenerative myelopathy?

Nutritional origin

Slow, progressive disease in which the axon degenerates and there is demyelination

The most common disease in old german shepherd

Currently no known therapy

A

Nutritional origin

251
Q

In case of cerebral origin symptoms, which cerebral areas can be separated?

Forebrain, brain stem, cerebellum

Forebrain, cerebellum, …

Myeloencephalon, Pons, Hemisphere

Forebrain, …., bone marrow

A

Forebrain, brain stem, cerebellum

252
Q

Which antiepileptic drug is a primary choice for chronic treatment of dogs?

Phenobarbital, imepitoin

Ka-bromide

Levatriacetam

Diazepam

A

Phenobarbital, imepitoin

253
Q

Which one means cervical malformation and malarcticulation?

Wobbler syndrome

Cauda equina syndrome

Perthes disease

Several types of diseases

A

Wobbler syndrome

254
Q

A 3 year old lab has had 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Other than that the dog has been acting normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Idiopathic epilepsy

Structural epilepsy, following congenital brain lesions

Reactive epileptic seizures are known in labradors

PSS

A

Idiopathic epilepsy

255
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding spleen hemangiosarcoma?

Tumor splenectomy is only considered palliative surgery

Chemotherapy does not increase significantly the survival time

Tumor rupture does not worsen the prognosis

Does not cause metastasis in the liver

A

Tumor rupture does not worsen the prognosis

256
Q

Which of the following diseases causing non-regenerative anemia has the best prognosis?

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Addisons

Sertoli cell testicular tumor with hypererstrogenism

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

Addisons

257
Q

How can we diagnose deep pain sensation?

Squeeze patients paw and it will pull away

Squeeze patients paw and it will extent opposite limb

Squeeze patients paw and it will pull away, head turn to same direction and trying to bite

Following painful stimuli m. cutaenus trunci contracts

A

Squeeze patients paw and it will pull away, head turn to same direction and trying to bite

258
Q

What is not true regarding acute gastric catastrophe?

For surgical indication, its important to establish the exact organ definition

For surgical indication, it is important to have an acute diagnosis

Requires emergency care

Abdominal organs morphology ix caused by functional lesion

A

For surgical indication, its important to establish the exact organ definition

259
Q

Which cannot cause secondary immune mediated hemolytic anemia?

Microsporum

Mycoplasma

Babesia

Hemangiosarcoma

A

Microsporum

260
Q

For enterotomy closure:

Monofilament, absorbable, only knots, 2 layers

Multifilament, absorbable, only knots, 2 layers

Monofilament, absorbable, simple knot/continous suture, 1 layer (seromuscular)

Monofilament, non-absorbable, simple knot/continous suture, 1 layer

A

Monofilament, absorbable, simple knot/continous suture, 1 layer (seromuscular)

261
Q

Which is not a common symptom of acute gastric catastrophe?

Abdominal pain

DIC

Shock phases

Vomiting

A

Vomiting

262
Q

Which is most likely causing spasms in young, adult dog?

Congenital heart disease

Primary epilepsy

PSS

Brain tumor

A

Primary epilepsy

263
Q

Rabies and Aujeszky symptoms, difference in dogs and cats

Paresthesia common in Aujeszky, aggressive behavior common in Rabies

Strabism and ascending limb paralysis common in Aujeszky, paresthesia common in Rabies

Swallowing disturbance don’t occur in Aujeszky, just in Rabies. Lung edema is typical for Aujeszky

Rabies does not occur in cats, only Aujeszky

A

Swallowing disturbance don’t occur in Aujeszky, just in Rabies. Lung edema is typical for Aujeszky

264
Q

Lyssencephalon

Is the congenital underdevelopment of cerebral cortex grooves

Is a consequence of hydrocephalus

Is a form of cerebral storage disorder

Rabies (lyssa) histopathological consequence in cerebrum

A

Is the congenital underdevelopment of cerebral cortex grooves

265
Q

Where can you take bone marrow sample from?

Humerus

Wing of ilium

Both

None

A

Both

266
Q

Deviations for thrombocytopenia?

Hemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time inc., thrombocyte inc.

Petechia, hemothorax, bleeding time incr., trombocyte incr.

Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time incr., thrombocyte decr.

Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time decr., thrombocyte decr.

A

Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time incr., thrombocyte decr.

267
Q

Which statement is true regarding congenital hydrocephalus?

Hydrocephalus in common in young, big sized breeds under the age of 1 year

In dogs, the ventriculoperitoneal shunt insertion is possible as palliative, symptomatic treatment

GCC therapy, diuretics therapy is contraindicated for patients with high intracranial pressure

Hydrocephalus is very rare for small sized dogs under the age of 1 year

A

In dogs, the ventriculoperitoneal shunt insertion is possible as palliative, symptomatic treatment

268
Q

Which platelet number (G/l) will suggest thrombocytopenia caused bleeding?

A

<50 G/l

(G = x 10^9)

269
Q

Rabies incubation/latency period?

A

Usually 2-3 moths, but can be shorter or longer, depending on the location of the wound

270
Q

What do we use DAMN-IT V acronym for?

A

For considering differential diagnosis

271
Q

Which statement is true?

Botulism caused by coli bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis

Tetanus is caused by Clostridium bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis

Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis

Tetanus is caused by coli bacteria and causes muscle spasms

A

Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis

272
Q

Which medication can be used as antispasmodic?

Diazepam

Propofol

Both

Neither

A

Both

273
Q

Which statement is true?

In case of hemolytic anemia, the blood plasma can be clear

In case of pancytopenia, the thrombocyte count is elevated

In case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs in a few hours

Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regnerative anemia

A

In case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs in a few hours

274
Q

From the following, which causes regenerative anemia?

Lack of EPO

Iron def. anemia

Hemolytic anemia

Aplastic anemia

A

Hemolytic anemia

275
Q

Why do we not use multifilament suture in gastric and intestinal surgery?

Expensive

Occurence of septic complications is increased, due to threading danger threath

Tensile strength is worse

Knot tolerance is not good

A

Occurence of septic complications is increased, due to threading danger threath

276
Q

What cannot be a symptom of transversal myelopathy?

A

Lameness

277
Q

What drug can cause bone marrow damage?

A

Phenobarbital

278
Q

In case on anemic condition, which cells are indicating a regenerative capacity of the disease?

A

Reticulocytes

279
Q

What is not true for LMN function?

A

Controlling movement of extremities

280
Q

Which surgical technique is the best for Hansen type 1 disc herniation?

A

Hemilaminectomia

281
Q

Which condition has absolute surgical indication? (neuro)

A

Acute Hansen 1 discus prolapse, paraplegia without deep pain sensation

282
Q

In what case can cytology of liquor evaluation be helpful?

Hansen type 3 discopathy

Wobbler syndrome

Hemivertebra

Meningomyelitis

A

Meningomyelitis

283
Q

Which artery is not directly participating in blood supply of the spleen?

A. gastrica sin.

A gastroepiploica sin.

A gastricae breves

A. lienalis

A

A. gastrica sin.

284
Q

Which diagnostic tool is great for diagnosing fibrocartilago embolism?

X-ray

CT

MRI

Liquor cytology

A

MRI

285
Q

Which is the appropriate diagnostics / therepeutics protocol for GDV?

Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrcocentesis adequate narcosis surgery

stabilization and gasstrocentesis adequate narcosis orogastric tubation and gastric lavage

surgery stabilization gastric lavage gastrocentesis surgery

stabilizatzion gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery orogastric tubation and gastric lavage

A

Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrcocentesis adequate narcosis surgery

286
Q

Which procedure is controversial for preparation for colorectal surgery?

manual evacuation of rectum

enema

stool softening ( oral lavage solution)

preoperative antibiotics

A

manual evacuation of rectum

287
Q

What does sceletonisation mean?

cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected

V-shaped excision of the mesentery

excision of the affected intestinal section

suturing of the v-shaped mesenteric defect

A

cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected

288
Q

Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body caused caudal thoracic ( prediaphragmatic) oseophagal obstruction?

Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation

endoscopic removal

laparotomy+gastrotomy+transluminal foreign body removal

thoracotomy+oseophagotomy

A

endoscopic removal

289
Q

Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cats?

Single-layer simple interrupted

single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous

single or double layer but always simple interrupted

single or double layer but always simple continuous

A

single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous

290
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet surg paper ( 2006) which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?

ligature biopsy

laparoscopic pinch biopsy

needle biopsy

none of them

A

laparoscopic pinch biopsy

291
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma?

it is uncommon in females

It mostly occurs in males

it mainly originates from circumanal glands

it originates from the anal sac in females

A

It mostly occurs in males

292
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gastric Dilation and Volvulus GDV?

The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders

There is also a chronic form of GDV

GDV is usually of acute onset

GDV starts right after last feeding

A

There is also a chronic form of GDV

293
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery?

Bilroth I gastroduodenostomy

Partial gastrectomy

Euthanasia

Reposition and gastroplexy

A

Euthanasia

294
Q

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands?

zone cutanea

linea anorectalis

zona intermedia

zona columnaris

A

zone cutanea

295
Q

Which of the following procedures has a modification called Roux-en-Y technique?

Choledochotomy

Cholecystectomy

Cholecystoduodenostomy

Cholecystojejunostomy

A

Cholecystoduodenostomy

296
Q

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostics value in intestinal intussusception?

Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

Positive contrast abdominal radiography

lack of feces
vomit

A

Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

297
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning gastric foreign body?

The success rate of gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 90%

The gastrotomy is a contaminated / septic procedure

Gastric foregn body may cause perforation

Oral feeding can be started 4 to 6 hours after gastrotomy

A

The gastrotomy is a contaminated / septic procedure

298
Q

Which hepatic division possesses the gall bladder?

Right division

central division

left division

caudal division

A

central division

299
Q

NOT suggested medication in IBD ( idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease)

Azathioprine for cats

prednisolone

cyclosporine

budesonide

A

Azathioprine for cats

300
Q

Suturing of an enterotomy wound

Monofil, non absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous suture pattern, in 1 layer ( all layers)

Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupter/ continuus suture patter in 1 layer ( seromuscular)

Multifil absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern in 2 layers

Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern in 2 layers

A

Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupter/ continuus suture patter in 1 layer ( seromuscular)

301
Q

Granulomatous colitis is caused by

Campylobacter coli

Enteropathogenic E coli EPEC

Adherent invasive E coli AIEC

Clostridium perfringens

A

Adherent invasive E coli AIEC

302
Q

In which of the following does megaesophagus not occur?

Cushing disease

Myesthenia gravis

Addison disease

Hypothyreosis

A

Cushing disease

303
Q

Which is associated with portal hypertension

Hepatic microvascular dysplasia

Arterio portal / arterio venous fistula

Congenital portosystemic shunt

Hepatic lipidosis

A

Arterio portal / arterio venous fistula

304
Q

The chronic inflammatory enteropathy ( CIE)

involves lymphangiectasia as its subgroup

is one of the chronic form of bacterial enteritis

can result in protein loosing enteropathy

is not known in cats

A

can result in protein loosing enteropathy

305
Q

Which clinical signs are characteristics for gastric disease?

vomit, hematemesis, anorexia

hematemesis, abdominal pain, regurgitation

dyspnea, vomit, fever

odynophagia, hematemesis, weight loss

A

vomit, hematemesis, anorexia

306
Q

In case of intestinal obstruction

acute vomiting is the most characteristics symptom

urgent gastric lavage is required

profuse bloody diarrhea is the most characteristics symptom

most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

A

acute vomiting is the most characteristics symptom

307
Q

Which is the first drug choice in the treatment of primer Cu accumulation?

D-penicillamine

N-acetylcystein

Cyclosporine

Amoxycillin

A

D-penicillamine

308
Q

Which BAOS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate?

FFFP(folded flap palatoplasty)

Soft palate resection

Tonsillectomy

Sacculectomy

A

FFFP(folded flap palatoplasty)

309
Q

Which breed is not predisposed for primary Cu accumulation?

Bedlington terrier

german shepherd

Labrador retriever

dalmatian

A

german shepherd

310
Q

Which of the statements is correct for the clinical signs of oseophageal disease in general?

Appetite is always decreased

appetite is always increased

appetite is never changed

appetite can be decreased or increased

A

Appetite is always decreased

311
Q

Which disease is acute?

Type 1 discopathy

Type 2 discopathy

Lumbo-sacral instability

Tumor

A

Type 1 discopathy

312
Q

Brain tissue damage in order of severity:

Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, lacerta viridis

Comorbidiatas cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceratio cerebri

Laceratio cerebri, commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri

Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceratio cerebri

A

Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceratio cerebri

313
Q

Which statement is false?

The UMN cell bodies are located in the cerebellum and brain stem

The UMN could stimulate or inhibit the LMN

In case of UMN dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes

In case of UMN dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyperreflexia, muscle hypertonia, abnormal reflexes

A

In case of UMN dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes

314
Q

On the basis on Modified Glasgow Coma Scale we can evaluate the prognosis of a patient with head trauma according to:

Pupil size, motor activity, conciousness

Pupil size, motor activity, brainstem reflexes

Motor activity, brain stem reflexes, conciousness

Pupil size, brain stem reflexes, conciousness

A

Motor activity, brain stem reflexes, conciousness

315
Q

What is the final step of small intestine anastomosis surgery?

Omentalisation

Suturing mesenterium

Pressure test over anastomosis wound

Ligations of the mesenterial blood vessels

A

Omentalisation

316
Q

Suggested treatment for FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesion)?

A

Removal of teeth

317
Q
  1. Which is not true for perianal adenoma?
A

Malignancy

318
Q

Which is false for primary copper storage disease?

A

Cholestasis

319
Q

What can cause stomach symptoms?

A

NSAIDs

320
Q

What is an indication for lobectomy?

A

Abscess

321
Q

Light, acute small intestinal diarrhea - what is recommended extra examinations?

A

Fecal analysis

322
Q

What is gastropexy?

A

Surgical procedure where stomach is sutured to abdominal wall or diaphragma

323
Q

What are predisposing factors for stomach ulcer?

A

NSAIDs, metabolic disorders, GCC

324
Q

Which is false? EOGC:

Eosinophilia could be in the blood

Allergy has a role in pathogenesis

Could be diagnosed with rtg/xray

Cyclosporine is a possible therapy

A

Could be diagnosed with rtg/xray

325
Q

What are the characteristics of lymphagiectasia?

A

Ascites (!), hydrothorax, weight loss, emaciation

326
Q

Where is it advisable to infiltrate the area of tonsils before tonsillectomy performed under anesthesia?

A

Use Adrenaline –> causing vasoconstriction and reduced bleeding

327
Q

What can cyanotic mucos membranes indicate?

A

Shock

328
Q

What surgical technique is used for resolution of cleft palate?

A

Rotational flap

Advancement flap

329
Q

What are the indications for tonsillectomy?

A

Chronic tonsillitis, tumors (carcinoma, lymphosarcoma)

330
Q

Vena cava syndrome caused by heartworm can be clearly identifies by?

A

Echocardiography

331
Q

Closed system for blood collection?

A

For mandatory blood count

332
Q

What instrument is not a member of the abdominal surgical instrument kit?

A

Finchetto wound dressing (used in thoracic)

333
Q

What diseases can cause aspiration pneumonia?

A

Megaesophagus, laryngeal dysfunction

334
Q

What to do if wound infection is suscpected?

A

Bacterial culture + AB resistance testing should be perfomed

335
Q

What type of injection cannot be administered SC?

A

Glucose containing injections

336
Q

Clinical signs of dogs/cats with bacterial pneumonia?

A

Lethargy, fever, dyspnea, cough, exercise intolerance, nasal discharge, hemoptysis, dysphagia, regurgitation, vomiting, muscular weakness, increased lung sounds

337
Q

At what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs?

A

6-8 weeks

338
Q

What type of infusion should be used in case of hypovolemic shock?

A

HAES infusion

339
Q

Which contact layer is best to cover the wound in exudative phase?

A

Hydrogel

340
Q

Normal CRT

A

<1-2 sec

341
Q

In complex treatment of heartworm, what is the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS?

A

Melarsomine (?)

342
Q

Muscles used for IM drug administration?

A

M. quadriceps femoris, M. supra/infraspinatus, M. triceps brachii, M. semitendinosus/semimembranosus, dorsal lumbar epaxial muscles

343
Q

Which material used as a contact layer has an antibacterial effect?

A

Silver

344
Q

What happens in case of paravenous injection?

A

Swelling at injection site

345
Q

What is the concept of wet wound treatment?

A

Based on retention of wound secretion on the wound surface

346
Q

Appropriate resp. rate for CPR?

A

10-12/min

347
Q

What is the advantages of IV catheter?

A

Continous access to peripheral circulation, multiple blood samples

348
Q

What nasal excision is recommended in brachycephalic dogs?

A

Ventral rhinotomy

349
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmia on ECG?

A

QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmias

350
Q

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed via US?

A

Yes, and also x-ray

351
Q

Which drug does not have significant diuretic effect in small animals?

A

Spironolactone

352
Q

Most common heart disease in cat?

A

HCM

353
Q

Which drug has no afterload decreasing effect?

A

Digoxin

354
Q

What is true about surgical scrubbing?

A

The efficiency is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength of the scrubbing

355
Q

What is not correct regarding knot techniques?

A

Synthetic monofil.: less knot (3-4), Multifil.: more knots (5-6) are needed for safe tie

356
Q

When is ECG most appropriatly indicated?

A

When cat arriving for flea treatment has 120 bpm HR

357
Q

What cannot be determined by Doppler US?

A

The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

358
Q

Should drugs be given to a dog with B1 stage mitral valve disease?

A

No - only start treatment from B2

B1 does have heart disease, but does not have enlarged heart or clinical signs

359
Q

What are the consequences of left heart failure?

A) pulmonary oedema

B) Thoracic fluid accumulaton in dogs

C) Congestve liver

D) Ascites

A

A) pulmonary oedema

360
Q

What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

a) may cause thromboembolism
b) May cause sudden death
c) Often has long survival
d) Causes right-sided heart dilaton

A

d) Causes right-sided heart dilaton

361
Q

Which of the following drugs has not afterload reducing effect?

a) Amlodipine
b) Pimobendan
c) Digoxin
d) Hydralazine

A

c) Digoxin

362
Q

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair?

a) Laparotomy
b) Later thoracotomy
c) Laparotomy lateral thoracotomy
d) Sternotomy

A

a) Laparotomy

363
Q

What can not be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs?

a) Chemodectoma
b) Idiopathic inflammation
c) Thromboembolism
d) Coagulopathy

A

??

364
Q

What is the goal of asepsis?

a) to prevent contamination
b) To reduce contamination
c) To allow contamination
d) All of the above

A

a) to prevent contamination

365
Q

Which answer is false?

a) During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile
b) The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on
c) the open gloving method is used for minor interventions (e.g. catheterization)
d) when performing the open gloving method, the folded-back inner surface of the glove cuff can be found with your bare hands

A

a) During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

366
Q

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure?

a) because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia
b) Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
c) Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
d) Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

A

b) Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output

367
Q

The administration of digoxin may be justified to treat:

a) III-degree AV block
b) Ventricular tachycardia
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) Sinus tachycardia

A

c) Atrial fibrillation

368
Q

Classification of pimobendan:

A) ACE inhibitor

B) Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

C) A bipyridine derivative

D) Ca-channel sensitiser and alpha-adrenergic blocker

A

B) Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

369
Q

Tying surgical knots. Pick the false answer (more than one is possible)

A) in surgery, at least two-half knots with opposite direction are considered to be knot

B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening

C) two-handed, one-handed and instrumental knotting may be performed

D) Instrumental knotting is safer for ligating large vessels and bundle of tissues

A

B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening

370
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a) Thoracocentesis
b) Abdominocentesis
c) Ultrasonography
d) Respiratory endoscopy

A

c) Ultrasonography

371
Q

Reduction of ventricular afterload during heart failure:

a) always beneficial
b) Should only be used in mild heart failure
c) Should only be used in severe heart failure
d) Extremely risky

A

c) Should only be used in severe heart failure

372
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

a) small intestine
b) Large intestine
c) Uterus
d) Urinary bladder

A

d) Urinary bladder

373
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia:

a) blood test, abdominal ultrasound
b) cTroponon-I measurement
c) Administration of digoxin
d) Echocardiography

A

b) cTroponon-I measurement
c) Administration of digoxin ???

374
Q

The upper border of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is:

a) Concave
b) Convey
c) Horizontal
d) Changing in direction but never horizontal

A

c) Horizontal

375
Q

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning surgery?

a) surgical glove
b) Artery clamp
c) The skin of patient
d) Gauze sponges

A

c) The skin of patient

376
Q

What is the most common cardiac disease in cats?

A) ARVC

B) DCM

C) HCM

D) RCM

A

C) HCM

377
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of Canine heartworm disease?

a) doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
b) fenbendazole, doramectine, clopidrogel
c) doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
d) doxycycline, milbemycin-oxime, melarsomine

A

c) doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine

378
Q

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?

a) honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture
b) thin, water-like flu during puncture
c) Bloody fluid during puncture
d) None of them

A

a) honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture

379
Q

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion?

a) in pleural effusion
b) During pneumonia
c) In pulmonary neoplastic diseases
d) During cardiac enlargement

A

a) in pleural effusion

380
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university as part of the complex treatment of heart worm disease?

A) Selamectin

B) Ivermectin

C) Moxidectin

D) Milbemycin oxime

A

C) Moxidectin

381
Q

ECG characteristics of atrial fibrillation:

a) The R-R distance varies and the ventricular complexes are greatly deformed
b) There are no P-waves and R-R distances are regular
c) There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies
d) The atria and the ventricles operate separately with different P-wave and QRS frequencies

A

c) There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies

382
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia?

A) small intestine

B) Large intestine

C) Uterus

D) Urinary bladde

A

A) small intestine

383
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?

A) it is a iatrogenic complication

B) It might be suppurative

C) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

D) It may be cause by surgical technical error

A

C) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

384
Q

Which modality is used to measure linear chamber sizes and display their alteration as a function of time in echocardiography?

a) Color Doppler
b) Pulsed wave Doppler
c) B-mode
d) M-mode

A

c) B-mode

385
Q

PRAA means…

A) abnormally directed Botallo ligament

B) Latency of the Botallo duct

C) Abnormally directed aortic arch

D) Abnormally directed subclavian artery

A

C) Abnormally directed aortic arch

386
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis?

a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c) Left ventricular dilatation
d) Right ventricular dilatation

A

b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

387
Q

Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer!

a) in monopolar systems, a large-surface return electrode must be placed on the patient’s body
b) In monopolar systems, if the contact surface between the return electrode and body is small, burns may occur
c) Forceps-like bipolar systems do not require large-surface return electrode
d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system in better

A

d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system in better

388
Q

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease?

a) PPDH
b) PHDP
c) PHPD
d) PDHP

A

a) PPDH

389
Q

Which statement is not characteristic for the radiograph finding of pneumothorax?

a) elevation of the heart from the sternum
b) Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs
c) Compression of the lung lobes
d) Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

A

b) Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs

390
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)?

a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c) Left ventricular dilatation
d) Right ventricular dilatation

A

c) Left ventricular dilatation

391
Q

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heart worm disease?

a) pulmonary arteries
b) Pulmonary veins
c) Both can altered
d) None of them

A

a) pulmonary arteries

392
Q

Typical clinical findings in case of dog’s haemopericardium:

a) strong pulse
b) Systolic heart murmur
c) Reddish mucosal membranes
d) Distant (muffled) heart sounds

A

d) Distant (muffled) heart sounds

393
Q

The most common heart disease in dogs:

a) mitral endocardosis
b) Dilated cardiomyopathy
c) Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS)
d) PDA

A

a) mitral endocardosis

394
Q

Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA?

a) vomiting 30 min after feeding
b) Vomiting 1-2 hours after feeding
c) Vomiting 4-5 hours after feeding
d) Regurgitation

A

d) Regurgitation

395
Q

Which answer is false?

a) during surgical scrubbing, the hand should be higher than the elbow
b) During autoclave, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic microbes may remind on the surface of the devices
c) Sterile devices in soaked packaging should not be used
d) In the operating room, the sterile person should not lower the hands below table level

A

b) During autoclave, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic microbes may remind on the surface of the devices

396
Q

Consequences of heart failure

a) pulmonary oedema
b) Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
c) Congestive liver
d) Ascites

A

LSFH: pulmonary edema

RSHF: ascites

397
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock?

a) methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate
b) Prednisolone Na-succinate
c) Dexamethasone
d) Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

A

d) Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

398
Q

What colour is typical of the compensatory stage of shock?

a) Pale
b) Cyanotic
c) Dirty red
d) Bright red

A

d) Bright red

399
Q

Which of the following types of a shock SIRS is rated in?

a) Hypovolemic
b) cardiogenic/obstructive
c) Distributive
d) Hypoxic

A

c) Distributive

400
Q

How can you determine the left atrial-aortic ratio (LA/Ao) during the echocardiography?

a) measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view
b) Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view
c) Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in long axis view
d) Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

A

d) Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

401
Q

Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC?

a) Fibrinogen
b) D-dimer
c) APTT
d) FDP

A

a) Fibrinogen

402
Q

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle is

A) the scapula

B) The cranial part of the heart

C) The descendent aorta

D) The caudal part of the heart

A

A) the scapula??

B) cranial part of heart ??

403
Q

What is NOT needed to do a standard echocardiographic examination?

a) phased array transducer
b) Right lateral recumbency
c) Using standard planes
d) Linear transducer

A

d) Linear transducer

404
Q

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include:

a) ventricular preload and afterload
b) contractility, distensibility
c) Heart rate and synchronisation of contractions
d) The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

A

a) ventricular preload and afterload

405
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia?

a) to perform a vagus manoeuvre
b) Administration of atropine
c) Administration of diltiazem
d) Echocardiography, blood test

A

b) Administration of atropine

406
Q

Suture types. Pick the false answer!

a) one or more tissue layers may be used according to the tissue type
b) For wound closure, ‘layer to layer’, inverting and relaxing techniques may be used
c) The pattern may be interrupted or continuous
d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

A

d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

407
Q

Which is the wrong answer? May play a role in the progression of heart failure:

a) chronic activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and the sympathetic nervous system
b) Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation)
c) The production of inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d) Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy demands

A

d) Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy demands

408
Q

Which solution of the mostly potentially alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis?

a) NaCl solution
b) NaHCO3 solution
c) Lactated ringer’s
d) Acetated ringer’s

A

b) NaHCO3 solution

409
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG?

a) the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias
b) The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrhythmia
c) P-wave is always visible in front of the QRS complex in supraventricular arrhythmias
d) P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrhythmias before QRS complex

A

a) the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

410
Q

How can you distinguish a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular one on the ECG?

a) a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
b) The supraventricular extrasystole is always of normal width
c) In front of the QRS complex, a p-wave is always seen in a supraventricular beat
d) A p-wave is never seen before the QRS complex in a supraventricular beat

A

a) a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

411
Q

During an echocardiographic examination we can use…

a) short axis view
b) Longitudinal views
c) Both of them
d) None of them

A

c) Both of them

412
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

A) small intestine

B) Large intestine

C) Uterus

D) Urinary bladder

A

D) Urinary bladder

413
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a spaniel 3-rd degree AV block?

a) determination of the potassium level
b) Administration of atropine
c) Administration of diltiazem
d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

A

d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

414
Q

Which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease?

a) cats are occasionally infected
b) Cats are often infected
c) Cats are never infected
d) None of the statements are true

A

a) cats are occasionally infected

415
Q

The most important medications to treat congestive heart failure?

A) ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril)

B) Beta receptor blockers (atelonol, carvedilol)

C) Loop diuretics (Furosemide, torsemide)

D) Pimobendan, Levosimendan

A

C) Loop diuretics (Furosemide, torsemide)

416
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias?

A) they take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias

B) Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para—oesophageal

C) The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

D) The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum

A

A) they take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias

417
Q

Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic root ratio?

a) short axis at heart base from right side
b) Long axis at right side
c) Apical view
d) Subcostal view

A

a) short axis at heart base from right side ???

418
Q

In which stage of HWD can ascites happen in dogs?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 2and3
d. in none

A

b. 3

419
Q

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?

pulmonic stenosis

ventricular septal defect

Fallot-tetralogy

PDA

A

PDA

420
Q

The most common color code meaning in color Doppler echocardiography:

red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer
blue: bloodflow towards the transducer; red: bloodflow away from the transducer
blue: venous bloodflow; red: arterial bloodflow
blue: decreasing speed bloodflow; red: increasing speed bloodflow

A

red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer

421
Q

What is the shock organ in cat?

Liver

Lungs

Small intestines

Pancreas

A

Lungs

422
Q

Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs?

a. lateral
b. dorsal
c. ventral
d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

A

d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

423
Q

What is the common shock organ in horse and dogs?

liver

lung

GI tract

pancreas

A

GI tract

424
Q

Which congenital heart disease has a specific “machinery” murmur?

pulmonic stenosis

ventricular septal defect

tetralogy of fallot

PDA

A

PDA

425
Q

After physical and auxiliary examinations we diagnose mitral endocardosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?

a. AHA-A
b. AHA-B
c. AHA-C
d. AHA-D

A

b. AHA-B

426
Q

Name of surgical instruments: scissors (sharp)

A

Metzenbaum, Iris, Mayo

427
Q

Name of surgical instruments: needle holders

A

Mathieu, Olsen-Hegar, Mayo-Hegar, Castroviejo

428
Q

Name of surgical instruments: tissue forceps

A

Adson, Adson-Brown, Allis

429
Q

Name of surgical instruments: vessel forceps

A

Kocher, Mosquito

430
Q

Name of surgical instruments: towel clamps

A

Cross action, Backhaus

431
Q

Surgical instruments: GI set

A

Retractors, bowel clamps, “staplers”

432
Q

Surgical instruments: thoracic set

A

Finochietto retractor, atrumatic instruments, “staplers”

433
Q

Surgical instruments: microsurgery

A

“De Bakey” instruments (atraumatic)

434
Q

Suture material: absorbable

A

Natural: catgut, collagen

Synthetic: polyvlycolic acid, polyglactin (vicryl), polydiaxnone (PDS)

435
Q

Suture material: non-absorbable

A

Natural: silk, cotton

Synthetic: polyamide, polyester, polyolefins

436
Q

Which condition leads to the shift of cardiac dullness?

pulmonary oedema

pulmonary fibrosis

space occupying structure in the mediastinum

pleural effusion

A

space occupying structure in the mediastinum

437
Q

Which is not part of the pathological remodeling of the heart?

MHC receptor formation on the membranes of myocardial cells

the macroscopic transformation of the heart (dilation, hypertrophy)

change of the myocardial cell function (contractility, arrhythmias)

change in the myocardial cell connections

A

change in the myocardial cell connections

438
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardosis?

ACE-I

pimobendan

furosemide

none of the above

A

Pimobendan

439
Q

Which organ is the source of MDF in shock?

liver

lung

GI tract

pancreas

A

Pancreas

440
Q

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis?

left ventricular hypertrophy

right ventricular hypertrophy

left heart distension

right heart distension

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

441
Q

What lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy?

left ventricular hypertrophy

right ventricular hypertrophy

left heart distension

right heart distension

A

left heart distension

442
Q

Which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia?

a. cardia
b. fundus
c. corpus
d. antrum pylori

A

a. cardia

443
Q

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography?

the MAP

the direction of flow

the pressure difference between the heart chambers

the character of flow (laminal or turbulent)

A

the pressure difference between the heart chambers

444
Q

In case of PPDH, the dislocation of which abdominal organ is NOT common?

a. spleen
b. omentum
c. liver
d. small intestines

A

b. omentum

445
Q

What is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneumothorax?

a. x-rays
b. physical exam
c. ultrasound
d. thoracoscopy

A

a. x-rays

446
Q

When does cardiac dullness occur during percussion of the thorax?

a. thoracic fluid accumulation
b. pneumonia
c. lung tumors
d. enlargement of the heart

A

a. thoracic fluid accumulation

447
Q

Which is not a typical symptom in cats in case of a riding thrombus:

paralysis of the hindlimbs

loud (painful) vocalization

dyspnoe

loss of femoral pulse

A

dyspnoe

448
Q

Which parameter is the most specific for DIC?

fibrinogen

APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)

PTT (partial thromboplastin time)

FDP (fibrin degradation products)

A

fibrinogen

449
Q
  1. Characteristics of reverse sneezing

Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

Indicates a serious, life-threatening illness

Usually caused by irritation of the anterior of the nasal cavity

indicates a laryngeal lesion

A

Usually caused by irritation of the anterior of the nasal cavity

450
Q

Characteristics of laryngeal paralysis

A

usually old, large breed dogs are affected, and the background is usually idiopathic

451
Q

Characteristics of feline asthma

A

the cytological and microbiological examination of bronchoalveolar lavage is highly important in its diagnosis

452
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis

Bronchial pattern on x ray

mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy

cytology and microbiology of BAL are required

A

mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy

453
Q

What is spongostan TM ?

A

Gelatin sponge

454
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material?

0

2-0

2

3-0

A

2

455
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability?

Monofilament vs multifilament

tensile strength

knot security

absorption

A

Monofilament vs multifilament

456
Q

Normal heart rate in dog

A

60-120/min

457
Q

When should a puppy have its latest puppy vaccine?

A

At 16 weeks

458
Q

External fixation is good for

Septic fractures

Temporary joint immobilisation

Both

None

A

Both

459
Q

Which fixation method does not have a remodeling phase

a. plate osteosynthesis
b. external fixator frame
c. internal fixator frame
d. intramedullary pinning

A

b. external fixator frame

460
Q

Advantages of the light cast are

quick application possible - fluid impregnation , not heavy

quick application possible-no fluid impregnation, light

quick application possible - fluid impregnation , cheap

slow application , no fluid impregnation

A

quick application possible-no fluid impregnation, light

461
Q

Where is/are the scrotal incision(s) made for castration ?

a. along the line of raphe scroti
b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions

A

c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions

462
Q

Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics ?

a. they are flammable and explosive agents
b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp
c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the long run (occupational risk)

d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask
induction

A

b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp

463
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism

the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying
endocrine changes

the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary
condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism )

pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia

limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

A

limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
​necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

464
Q

Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog

a. joint cartilage
b. subchondral bone
c. periosteum
d. adrenal gland

A

b. subchondral bone

465
Q

Which is NOT correct regarding balance anaesthesia

a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia
b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia
c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia
d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

A

d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

466
Q
  1. Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog
    a. Osteochondrosis dissecans
    b. Osteomyelitis
    c. Osteoporosis
    d. Osteomalacia
A

b. Osteomyelitis

467
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding plate fixation

Its good for SH fracture treatment

It’s a dynamic fixation method

Can do temporary joint fixation with it

It is a rigid fixation method

A

It is a rigid fixation method

468
Q

Which of the following radiographic densities look the same?

Bone and metal

Fat and soft tissue

Fluid and soft tissue

Fluid and fat

A

Fluid and soft tissue

469
Q
  1. Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature
    a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
    b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
    c. Distal surface faces to the apex
    d. Distal surface faces to the crown
A

b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

470
Q

Which of the following does not contraindicate the use of NSAIDs?

Shock

Prolonged MM bleeding time

Immaturity of musculoskeletal system

Active GI ulceration

A

Immaturity of musculoskeletal system

471
Q
  1. Which statement is correct

Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound

The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound

Both

None

A

None

472
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning capnometry
    a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
    b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
    c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
    d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture
A

d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

473
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in cat?

30

32

40

42

A

30

474
Q
  1. Which statement is correct
    a. It is preferable to suture the edges of a bite wound
    b. The bite wounds usually heal by primary intention
    c. Both
    d. None
A

None

475
Q
  1. Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation
    a. Adrenal gland
    b. Skin
    c. Brain
    d. Bone marrow
A

Brain

476
Q
  1. Which one is not a postural reaction
    a. Hopping
    b. Placing
    c. Wheelbarrowing
    d. Panniculus reflex
A

d. Panniculus reflex

477
Q
  1. Which does not belong to the arthrosis signs on the radiograph
    a. Perichondral osteophyte formation
    b. Irregular subchondral bone
    c. Widened joint space
    d. Cortical osteolysis
A

c. Widened joint space

478
Q
  1. Which statement is correct

The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing

Both

None

A

The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

479
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients

Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are
increased

The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged

Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

A

Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

480
Q
  1. Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature
    a. Autoclave (steam)
    b. Gamma-beam radiation
    c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
    d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation
A

a. Autoclave (steam)

481
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning preanesthetic assessment

Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the
patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses

Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and
hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken

Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
Urea, ALT and AST

The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance, blood glucose and urinalysis

A

Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
​Urea, ALT and AST

482
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning pulse oxymetry

The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry
values

Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

A

Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

483
Q
  1. Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumors
    a. Soft palate
    b. Hard palate
    c. Gingiva
    d. Tongue
A

c. Gingiva

484
Q
  1. In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common
    a. French bulldog
    b. German shepherd
    c. Yorkshire terrier
    d. Hungarian vizsla
A

a. French bulldog

485
Q
  1. Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomonic in case of cranial cruciate ligament rupture
    a. Radiology
    b. Cranial drawer test
    c. Gait analysis
    d. Historical date
A

b. Cranial drawer test

486
Q
  1. General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats

1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h

10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h

10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

A

1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

487
Q
  1. Barium-sulphate can be used for which of the following procedures
    a. Myelography
    b. Gastric emptying study
    c. Retrograde cystography
    d. Arthrography
A

b. Gastric emptying study

488
Q
  1. Stadium analgesia
    a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
    b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
    c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
    d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation
A

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

489
Q
  1. Which activity is to be done first in case of pneumothorax
    a. Thoracocentesis
    b. Percutaneous chest drainage
    c. Oxygenisation
    d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy
A

a. Thoracocentesis

490
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals

Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine

High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action

It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
general condition

It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

A

It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
​general condition

491
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia
    a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
    b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left inflated on extubation
    c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered
    d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation
A

c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered

492
Q
  1. Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy
    a. Rectus sheet
    b. Falciform ligament
    c. Peritoneum
    d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle
A

a. Rectus sheet

493
Q

Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy

a. Liver abscess
b. Superficial liver rupture
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Diffuse hepatomegaly

A

a. Liver abscess

494
Q
  1. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone involvement of oral tumors

Radiography

FNA

CT

US

A

Radiography

495
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder

A

Small intestines

496
Q

Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate ligament repair

a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

A

a. The suture material is non-absorbable

497
Q

Which local anesthetic technique is the safest from the patient ́s aspect

a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral

A

a. Infiltrational

498
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning pain

During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia is only required pre-, and postoperatively

Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation

Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

A

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

499
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain
    a. Is always a single exit drain
    b. Can only be used as double exit drain
    c. Is mostly used for flushing
    d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it
A

a. Is always a single exit drain

500
Q

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is

A tube drain

Made of latex

A multi-lumen drain

Mostly used as an active drain

A

A tube drain

501
Q

Which is the upper most muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

a. Dorsal latissimus m
b. Dorsal serratus m
c. Ventral serratus m
d. M.cutaneus trunci

A

d. M.cutaneus trunci

502
Q

How many lung lobes has a dog?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

A

c. 7

503
Q

. Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure (Greenberg, Am J Vets Res, 2004)

a. PDS
b. Polyglyconate
c. Glycomer
d. Polyglecaprone

A

d. Polyglecaprone

504
Q
  1. Which sign of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 is less than 60mmHg)
    a. Dyspnoe
    b. Cyanosis
    c. Hyperventilation
    d. Labial breathing
A

b. Cyanosis

505
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs
    a. Panosteitis
    b. Perthes disease
    c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy
    d. Achilles tendineopathy
A

c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy

506
Q

What does “epulis” mean?

A

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

507
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? An active drain

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain
b. Can be open suction-drain
c. Can be closed suction-drain
d. Is used as flushing drain

A

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain

508
Q

Which statement is correct regarding dentine in dog

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth
b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production
c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false)
d. It is continuously narrowing during aging

A

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth

509
Q

Phases of wound healing

A

Acute inflammation

Resorption

Proliferation

Remodelling

510
Q
  1. Which statement is not correct regarding the tracheal collapse
    a. The entire trachea is affected
    b. The radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase
    c. Its cause is the weakening of the cartilage
    d. Mostly small breed dogs are affected
A

a. The entire trachea is affected

511
Q

Current concepts of pain management/analgesia is

Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of action)

Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients

A

Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

512
Q

Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material

a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophob feature

A

b. Good tensile strength

513
Q

What statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)

a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

A

d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

514
Q

Number of permanent teeth in dog

A

42

515
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: small vulva, red vaginal mucosa, rosetta-like appearance

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Dioestrus
516
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: slight swollen vulva, the vaginal mucosa is whitish “dry” and wrinkled?

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Oestrus
517
Q

In which cycle is it typical: small vulva, pink, flat mucosa?

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Anoestrus
518
Q

In which cycle phase is it typical: in the vaginal smear the rate of cornified cells is higher than 80-90%

  • Prooestrus
  • Oestrus
  • Dioestrus
  • Anoestrus
A
  • Oestrus