PQ Flashcards by Anja Steinsholt

Which statement is incorrect. Compared to the JPEG image is the DICOM fires are
a) less appropriate for diagnostics.
b) bigger.
c) preferred more by the owner.
d) cannot be inspected with a medical image viewer program.

b) bigger.

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What is not true for DICOM files?

They can be inspected with commercial image viewer programs

Contain images of TIFF format.

The x-ray images have a size of 10-30 megabytes.

They contain metadata besides the image.

They can be inspected with commercial image viewer programs

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What does “acquisition” mean in digital imaging?

The clouding of electrons around the cathode spiral.

The scatter of primary beams around the animal’s body.

The creation of picture from the electric signal.

The equilibrium of exposure factors to optimize the image quality.

The creation of picture from the electric signal.

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Which statement is true?

You can’t reach into the primary beam even with lead gloves on.

The lead glove protects from the primary beam.

If you don’t see the bones of your gloved hand on the radiograph, then no radiation was exposed to your hand.

Only pregnant women can’t reach into the primary beam.

The lead glove protects from the primary beam.

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The position of which image is correct for the interpretation?

Both

Neither of them.

Neither of them.

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Is the positioning correct in this picture?

Yes.

No, the chest is rotated.

No, the forelimbs are not pulled forward.

No, the entire lung is not visible.

Yes

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What if the object is not in the center of the detector plate?

The resulting image will be enlarged.

The resulting image will be distorted.

The resulting image will be unsharp.

The resulting image will be overexposed.

The resulting image will be distorted.

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Which statement is false?

The canine tooth is located rostral to the tympanic bulla.

The patella is located cranial to the fabella.

The sternum is located ventral to the heart.

The olecranon is located dorsal to the carpus

The patella is located cranial to the fabella.

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Using the usual recumbency, what is the name of the projection?
a. laterolateral
b. lateromedial
c. mediolateral
d. mediomedial

c. mediolateral

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Where is the bullet?

in the iliac bone

under the iliac bone

above the iliac bone

cannot be told

cannot be told

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Why can be a structure more radiopaque than the other?

It has the same diameter, but it consists of elements of lower atomic numbers

it has the same material. but it’s thinner

it consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter

it consists of elements of smaller atomic number and it is thinner

it consists of elements of higher atomic number and has the same diameter

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What opacity does the marked area have?

fat

metal

soft tissue

bone

soft tissue

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What opacity does the marked area have?

fat

fluid

soft tissue

bone

fat

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Was this dog in sternal or dorsal recumbency?

sternal

dorsal

cannot be told

only the professor knows that

cannot be told

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The structure of which tool is demonstrated in the picture?

intensifying screen

grid

collimator

cassette

grid

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X-ray photons in the body normally are NOT
a. absorbed
b. reflected
c. scattered
d. transmitted

reflected

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Radon

is incorporated after inhalation

is released from industrial fallout

is generated by X-ray

is absent in Europe

is incorporated after inhalation

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It is officially safe to put a hand in the primary X-ray beam with

lead gloves on

with nothing on

with a double layer of protective lead on

none of the above

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In case of deterministic effects

severity is proportionate to dose

there is no threshold

the typical unit of measure is Sievert

the most common result is a malignant tumour

severity is proportionate to dose

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An especially sensitive tissue type to ionizing radiation is

the skin

the bone marrow

the nervous system

none

the bone marrow

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In veterinary diagnostic radiology adverse may include

stochastic effects

deterministic effects

radiation sickness

none

stochastic effects

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The X-ray beam does NOT

cause radioactivity

ionize matter

travel at the speed of light

require electric current to generate

cause radioactivity

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A personal dosimeter is

worn on the outer side of protective clothing

your decision to wear it or not

indicates overexposure with light and sound signal

records the effective dose

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One of the following is NOT a form of protection against ionizing radiation

distance

shielding

dose equivalent

time

dose equivalent

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63. What type of error is visible in the picture? it is overexposed it is underexposed it is blurry it has low contrast

it is blurry

62. The opacity of which organ differs from the others ? Urinary bladder Gallbladder Trachea. Heart

Trachea

61. Which statement is true ? You don't have to use grid for the chest . You don't have to use grid above 10 centimeter object thickness . The use of the grid is often not required in digital systems . The create improves the image sharpness

The use of the grid is often not required in digital systems .

60. What is true regarding the image ? it is overexposed it has low contrast it is underexposed it has too high contrast

it has low contrast

59. Why can't we see the stifle in this image ? It is amputated . It is too far from the cassette . It is relatively overexposed . It is relatively underexposed .

it is relatively overexposed

58. Which statement is false ? in case of wrong exposure factors the digital image will be mottled. The S-value informs you about the exposure . The image can be mottled both in over- and underexposed cases Digital systems require much higher doses than analog systems

Digital systems require much higher doses than analog systems

57. Which statement is true ? the overexposed digital image will be too bright. the overexposed analog image will be too dark. the underexposed analog image will be too dark. the under exposed digital image will be too bright.

the overexposed analog image will be too dark.

56. Which of the following is not an image parameter ? a. density b. sharpness c. magnification d. contrast

c. magnification

55. Which exposure factors cause same blackening on the detector than 60kV/8mAs? 70 kV/ 16 mAs 50 kV/ 20 mAs 80kV/2mAs 40 kV/ 10 mAs

80kV/2mAs

54. Which statement is false? In case of a chest radiograph Longer exposure time is recommended Smaller exposure values are needed compared to an abdominal radiograph of the same diameter The contrast will be higher compared to the abdomen Motion unsharpness is a common problem

Longer exposure time is recommended

53. Which statement is false? The mAs describes the number of x-ray photons . Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time . The contrast of the image is mainly based on the mAs . Scatter radiation is mainly based on mAs .

Higher capacity generators are required to produce longer exposure time .

52. Which exposure facture could be used in small animal radiography ? 8mAs 100 mAs 0,8 mAs 800 mAs

8mAs

51. What conclusion can be drawn when comparing the opacity of the structure in the circle and the rib? The structure is a malignant tumour . The structure and the rib have the same diameter The structure lies further from the cassette than the rib . The structure probably contains calcium .

The structure probably contains calcium .

50. Which statement is true? Image acquisition is faster in CR, than in DR systems CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems In the DR systems the cassette contains a PSP plate A reader or scanner is a normal component of a DR system

CR systems are cheaper, than DR systems

49. Which statement is true regarding the radiographic image? The distortion is less on the periphery. Distortion can be prevented by centralization. Objects look smaller on radiograph then their real size. Unsharpness may come only from motion.

Distortion can be prevented by centralization.

48. The cause of an unsharp x-ray image cannot be : motion increased distance between the object and the detector low kV high mAs

high mAs

47. What kind of radiopacity has the marked round structure in the picture? gas bone soft tissue metal

metal

46. What kind of radiopacity has the marked organ in the picture? gas bone soft tissue fat

soft tissue

45. Which statement is false ? bones are more radiolucent than metals fat is more radiopaque than fluids gas is more radiolucent than fat fluids and soft tissues have the same opacity

fat is more radiopaque than fluids

44. What is the main source of the radiation exposure of the personnel? leaking radiation from the x-ray tube the primary beam the secondary beam originating from the patient none of them

the secondary beam originating from the patient

43. Which components are different in conventional and digital radiography? x-ray tube generator grid detector

detector

42. The attenuation of the X-ray beam does not depend on which parameter? atomic number object thickness physical density optical density

optical density

41. What is not a normal component in the digital radiographic technology? x-ray tube intensifying screen grid collimator

intensifying screen

40. Which statement is incorrect? The x-ray (is)... ionizing radiation. electromagnetic radiation. travels at the speed of light. consists of charged particles.

consists of charged particles.

39. With the use of a grid we can reduce the radiation exposure improve the image contrast improve the image sharpness reduce the exposure time

improve the image contrast

38. Which one does not belong to the basic radiographic opacities a. metal b. wood c. stone d. gas

wood

37. Which statement is false? The x-ray beam is invisible makes chemical changes in photoemulsions produces light flash in fluorescent materials penetrates bodies without losing energy

penetrates bodies without losing energy

36. Which statement is false? The scattered beam is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff originates mostly from the patient’s body is disadvantageous concerning the quality of the radiograph is less intense than the primary beam

is negligible concerning radiation safety of the staff

35. Which statement is false? The use of grid is recommended over 10 cm object diameter. Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced The grid filters the scatter radiation The grid contains small lead strips standing vertically or in an angle facing toward the x-ray tube.

Using a grid, the dose of the radiation should be reduced

34. Any body part exceeding this measurement requires the use of a grid to reduce fog producing scatter radiation 20cm 10cm 2.5 cm 30cm

10cm

33. When viewing a radiograph over laterally positioned animal the head should be at the top of the viewbox /display the head should face the viewer’s left with this spine at the top they had shoot face with the viewer’s right with the spine at the top the head should face the viewer’s left with the spine at the bottom

the head should face the viewer’s left with this spine at the top

32. To prevent magnification and distortion of the object being radiographed, the patient must ... be as parallel to the film as possible be as close to the film as possible be as close to the x-ray tube as possible both a and b are correct

both a and b are correct

31. Where is a grid located? between the patient and the cassette between the patient and the x-ray tube above the x-ray tube under the cassette

between the patient and the cassette

30. What do grids contain that controls scatter radiation? a. Molybdenum b. Aluminium c. Silver d. Lead

Lead

29. The primary exposure factor that controls scatter radiation is kVp mAs increased exposure time the collimator setting

kVp

28. Which of the following radiographs should have the shortest scale of contrast? abdomen thorax femur all are approximately equal

thorax

27. Which of the following increases radiographic density? thinner body parts increased mAs increased density of the bodypart being radiographed decreased kVp

increased density of the bodypart being radiographed

26. If we increase the kVp, we have to use ........mAs, to get the same exposure. higher the same lower whatever

lower

25. The potential difference between the anode and cathode is measured in a. kilovolts b. kilowatts c. milliamperes d. centimeters

a. kilovolts

24. Which is a characteristic of x-rays? Their total number produced is determined by kV Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power. Their intensity increases as SID (source-image distance) decreases. They diverge from a light source.

Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power.

23. The temperature of the filament within the cathode is controlled by: time setting. the source-image distance. kVp setting. mA setting.

mA setting.

22. One percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of heat x-rays light none of the above.

x-rays

21. Increasing the film-object distance: The resulting image will be larger. The resulting image will be sharper. The resulting image will be distorted. Both a and b is correct.

The resulting image will be distorted.

20. According to Santes’ rule, if a cats abdomen measures 8 cm, FFD is 100 cm, kVp is: a. 72 b. 56 c. 66 d. 52

b. 56

19. The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100 mA and 1/10 sec is: 10 mAs 10000 mAs 100 mAs 1mAs

10 mAs

18. Ways to increase penetrating power of x-rays include: increasing kVp. increasing the time setting. increasing thermionic emission. increasing mAs.

increasing kVp.

17. X-ray photons travel: toward the cathode in an x-ray tube. away from the anode in an x-ray tube. toward the anode in an x-ray tube. None of them is true.

away from the anode in an x-ray tube.

16. Electrons travel: Toward the cathode in an x-ray tube Away from the anode in an x-ray tube Toward the anode in an x-ray tube None of them is true

Toward the anode in an x-ray tube

15. Which of the following statements is true? X-rays can be deflected by magnetic fields. X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths. Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter. Gamma rays are required to produce a radiograph.

X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than rays with shorter wavelengths.

14. As x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to: cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light). completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged. cause biochemical changes that can kill cells. all of the above.

all of the above.

13. The negatively charged particle of an atom is the: a. proton. b. neutron. c. electron. d. nucleus.

electron

12. Which statement is true? Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure. Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examinations. During fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is generally above the animal. Fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”.

Fluoroscope is also called “C-arm”.

11. Which statement is true? Some digital technologies use x-ray films. Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog. DR systems can be digital or analog. The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic.

Fluoroscopy can be digital or analog.

10. Which part of the x-ray machine is marked in the picture? generator collimator x-ray tube control panel/computer

generator

9. Which statement is false? The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation. X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a magnetic field. Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power. The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.

The elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron.

8. What is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)? x-ray tube x-ray film collimator PSP plate

x-ray film

7. Which statement is true? The use of the grid reduces the radiation exposure improves the image contrast improves the image sharpness reduces the exposure time

improves the image contrast

6. Which of the above x-ray tubes contains rotating anode? A B both none of them

5. What is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography? 0,1-2 kVp 1000-2000 kVp 40-100 kVp 4-10 kVp

40-100 kVp

4. Which statement is false? The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam. The mA describes the number of x-ray photons To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too. The same mAs can be created from different time components.

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs you have to elevate the kVp too.

3. Which one is not an exposure factor? a. kV b. mA c. kW d. s

c. kW

2. What is the role of the collimator? Filtration of the scattered beams Setting the size of the x-ray beam Setting the strength of the x-ray beam Reduction of x-ray radiation

Setting the size of the x-ray beam

1. Which statement is false? The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine. Greater capacity allows shorter exposure time. Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness The most common reason for motion unsharpness is panting.

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion unsharpness

Hypoadrenocorticism in dogs: therapy

Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone Later: fludrocortisone, DOCP, prednisolone, salt

Breed predisposed for Addisons

Poodle

Most important nutritive vessel of the ventral abdominal skin is...

Cranial supf. epigastric artery and vein

Which of the following techniques is the most tension relieving one?

Tubed/stent suture

Addisons disease in dogs: diagnosis

Na+/K+ \<27, Cl- decrease, ACTH stimulation test

In which species is thyroid adenocarcinoma wo/ hormone alteration most common?

Dogs

Which disorder does not cause osmotic diuresis?

Pyometra

What is the classical indication for adrenalectomy?

Unilateral adrenal cortical adenoma causing peripheral Cushing

Which nerve is most prone to iatrogenic injury durin ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) procedure?

Auriculotemporal branch of facial nerve

What disease is typical for this picture?

Hypercorticolism (Cushings)

Hypothyroidism of dogs: diagnosis

Thyroxine decrease and TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA, TSH/TRH-stimulation test

Hypoadrenocorticolism (Addisons) of dogs: clinical manifistation

Dehydration, K increase, Ca decrease, weakness, tremor, shock, bradycardia

Breed predisposed for Cushings

Dachshound

Diagnosis

Alopecia-X

What is true regarding diabetes insipidus?

Partial or complete ADH deficiency

What is the target blood glucose level in the diabetic patient at max effect of insulin?

4-7 mmol/L

Addisons disease in dogs: cause and pathogenesis

Primary disease is due to autoimmune inflammation of adrenals

Which procedure is most effective and appropriate in canine otitis external and media?

TECA LBO

Which breed is not predisposed for obesity?

Borzoi

Which factor plays a cricual role in the preoperative determination of surgical prognosis of adrenalectomy?

Tumorous involvement of caudal vena cava

Central form of diabetes insipidus: treatment

Desmopressin most effective

What is not a consequence of obesity?

Hypokalemia

Hyperthyroidism of cats

Thyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, polyphagia, weightloss, myocardial hypertrophy

In which endocrine disorder is there no PU/PD

Hyperthyroidism and Alopecia-X

Hyperthyroidism of cats: therapeutic options

Thyroidectomy, radiotherapy, methimazole, low iodine diet

Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms

Decr. activity, weight gain, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, decr. fertility

What does W-plasty mean?

Scar correcting plastic procedure

What is the common cause of hyperthyroidism in cats?

Thyroid adenoma

Congenital hyposomatotropism: clinical features

German shepherd, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia

Acromegaly: causes

Dog: progestagen treatment, cat: pituitary tumor

In monogastric animals the energy content of which feed is utilized most efficiently?

Fat

Which of the following procedure is the most effective in feline otitis media?

Ventral bulla osteotomy

Causes of insulin resistance?

Progesterone, hypercorticolism, hypersomatotropism

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

DI ( + spaying of bitch)

What may cause hyperglycaemia in diabetic patient treated with insulin?

Insulin resistance

3 most common causes of PU/PD in cats?

Chronic kidney disease, DM, hyperthyroidism

What is the pathognomic symptoms of Cushings?

Calcinosis cutis

Which have the widest indication area?

Reconstructive surgery

What is V-Y plasty?

Tension relieving plastic procedure

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters? Cystoscopy Double contrast cystography IV pyrography pneumocystography Urinary scintigraphy

Cystoscopy

This AB is not excreted with urine - and not proper treatment for UTI Amoxicillin Cephalosporin Rifamipicin Trimetoprim-sulphonamide

Rifampicin

Renal proteinuria can be decreased by: renal diet antihypertensive drugs ACE-inhibitors All 3

All 3

High-dose maintenance fluid therapy (\>100ml/kg/day) for acute kidney injury: increases diureses, thus flushes kidneys faster may cause interstitial edema in kidneys, that decrease GFR and renal blood flow Ensures adequate daily fluid intake in anorexic animals In anuria, it ensures that renal function and urine production are restored quickly

may cause interstitial edema in kidneys, that decrease GFR and renal blood flow

Which one is the most likely diagnosis in dogs in case of hematuria? Urolithiasis Benign prostate hypertrophy Bacterial cystitis Neoplasm

Bacterial cystitis

What is the cause of purine urolithiasis? Hyperuricoseuria PSS Chronic liver disease All 3

All 3

Which statement is true about the treatment of pyelonephritis? 1-2 weeks of AB therapy is requires Aspiration of pus and rinsing of renal pelvis accelerated healing Treatment if anemia should be started as soon as possible Conservative treatment is usually unsuccessful, this unilat nephrectomy is the solution

Aspiration of pus and rinsing of renal pelvis accelerated healing

Typical symptom of tubular acidosis: Incontinence Metabolic acidosis PU/PD Bone development disorders

Metabolic acidosis

PD definition in dogs and cats

Dogs: \>80-100 ml/bw/kg Cat: \> 50 ml/bw/kg

Which organ is not damaged due to hypertension? Lungs Brain Kidneys Eyes

Lungs

Which of the following suture patters is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure? Double layer continuous lembert Double layer (penetrating lembert) suture Single layer seromuscular continous Double layer interrupted lembert

Double layer (penetrating lembert) suture

Ectopic ureters ..... Which answer is wrong? Are usually causing constant urine dripping Are occurring only in females Can be diagnosed by x-ray or CT Can be diagnosed with cystocsopy

Are occuring only in females

Which statement is true about progression of CKD? Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons Renal fibrosis is primarily caused by the excessive production of PTH Is generally reversible with specific therapy Loss of functional nephrons leads to an increase in GFR

Hypertension and proteinuria can increase the hyperfiltration of the nephrons

Which is not true for feline idiopathic cystitis? Antibiotics are useless Affected cats are mostly fed dry food Affected cats are mostly outdoors Affects mostly neutered cats

Affected cats are mostly outdoors

Which of the following breed is usually not affected by ectopic ureters? Labrador Husky German shepherd Westie

German shepherd

Which of the following is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts? Marsupialisation Omentalisation Drainage Puncture

Puncture

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy... The kidney is occluded via clamping both renal artery and vein Renal vein is to be occluded so that the arterial blood supply remains intact Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact The ureter is also occluded

Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact

What is not typical for acute kidney injury? Azotemia Hypokalemia Oliguria, anuria Metabolic acidosis

Hypokalemia

Treatment of pyelonephritis: which answer is wrong? Ace-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis Systemic AB Fluid therapy

Ace-inhibitors, omega 3 fatty acids

When is it recommended to start EPO/darbepoetin therapy in CKD?

When hematocrit drops to 18-20%

Which is not an indication for dialysis treatment? Polyuric acute kidney injury inresponsive to fluid therapy Anuric acute kidney injury Chronic renal failure, renal fibrosis Removal of toxins in case of acute toxicosis

Polyuric acute kidney injury inresponsive to fluid therapy

Which is not a contributing factor concering lower UTI? Incontinence GCC therapy FIC Fanconi syndrome

Fanconi

Which feline lower UTI disease can be accompanied by crystalluria? Idiopathic cystitis Urolithiasis Bacterial cystitis All 3

All 3

Recommended concomitant with EPO/darbepoetin?

Iron + B12

What type of proteins are detected with sulfosalicylic acid test? Albumin Globulin None Both

Both

Which of the following means urination not at the proper place? Stranguria Pollikuria Dysuria Periuria

Periuria

Which statement is false? In case of subclinical bacteriuria: Usually a predisp. factor for UTI is present AB therapy will be prescribes Urine sediment can be active Microbiological examination of urine is positive

AB therapy will be prescribed

Which is not correct: Treatment of CKD patients include.... Renal diet, phosphate binders ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs EPO inj., potassium supplementation Diuretics PO

ACE-inhibitors, antihypertensive drugs

Second common UTI disease in dogs

Urolithiasis

Persistant, prerenal proteinuria.. Is a typical characteristics of UTI infection Occurs after heavy physical activity Bence-jones protein are typical examples Typical characteristics of leptospirosis

Bence-jones protein are typical examples

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal peritonitis? Precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication Diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication definitely requires emergency care Caused by morphological and/or functional disorder of abdominal organs

Precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunction is necessary for surgical indication

You can diagnose pyelonephritis by... Which answer is wrong? Hemoculture in case of azotemia Histological examination of a renal biopsy specimen Visualizing pelvis dilation with imaging methods and performing urine cultures Microbiological examination of a renal pelvis puncture

Hemoculture in case of azotemia

What is the cause of urine urolithiasis? Hyperuricosuria PSS Chronic liver disease All 3

All 3

Monitoring blood pressure is particularly important In young animals In FIC In kidney disease In case of heart failure

In kidney disease

To determine the urine concentrating ability of kidneys we use? Blod/urea level Urinary total protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) Urine specific gravity with a refractometer Blood creating and SDMA levels

Specific gravity

Most likely diagnosis in cats in case of hematuria? FIC Urolithiasis Neoplasia Bacterial cystitis

FIC

Which statement is correct abount glumerulopathies? 75% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis 50% of glomerulopathies is amyloidosis 15% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin 50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

50% of glomerulopathies is of immune complex origin

Renal amyloidosis in typically not caused by?

Chronic liver disease

Not typical of IRIS stage 1 CKD?

Acute blindness because of hypertension

Antidote for ethylene glycol toxicosis?

Ethyl-alcohol and fomepizole

When should you think about leptospirosis in a dog?

Elevated liver enzymes and creatinine level

What is the most effective gastric protectant for dogs with chronic kidney failure?

Pantoprazole

How do you treat a cat with FIC?

Increased water intake

Until what level is it recommended fo increase Ht with EPO therapy in CKD?

Until Ht at ca. 30%

Which drug is not recommended to improve appetite in cats with CKD?

Pantoprazole

IRIS classification, wrong answer? 4 stages determined by serum creatinin levels Stage 1 creatinine is only mildly elevated Substages based on presence of proteinuria Substages based on degree of hypertension

Stage 1 creatinine is only mildly elevated

What is true about urohydropropulsion? Require good surgical skills No sedation is required Renal pelvis is connected to the bladder with special shunt Suitable for removing small stones from the bladder

The technique may be suitable for removing small stones from urinary bladder

Fanconi syndrome is not characterised by?

Central DI

Which statement is false? In glomerular proteinuria, large proteins are excreted Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high Borderline proteinuria means UPC is between 0.2 and 0.4/5 Proteinuria of glomerular or tubular origin can be differentiated by renal biopsy

Tubular proteinuria, urinary protein/creatinine ratio is very high

Most common cause of lower UTI in dogs? Bladder tumor, prostate alterations Anatomical disorders, foreign body Bacterial cystitis, urolithiasis Interstitial cystitis, mycoplasma

Bacterial cystitis, urolithiasis

Not true about polycystic kidney disease? Painful kidneys Hematuria Do not have \> 1 year to live Inherited

Do not have \> 1 year to live

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals? E.coli/Proteus Antifreeze Leptospirosis Ureter stones

Leptospirosis

What is trua about subclinical bacteruria? Asymptomatic Only mild lower UTI symptoms Pyelonephritis may be suspected Bacteria in urine is usually multidrug resistant

Asymptomatic

Which statement is true about pyelonephritis? Bacteria usually reach renal pelvis from systemic circulation We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis On US we find shrunken kidneys Usually urinary sediment is unchanged, because the inflammation is limited to renal pelvis

We can get a sample for diagnostic tests by aspirating the renal pelvis

Which uroliths are radiodense?

Calcium oxalate and struvite

Which of the following toold/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in diagnosis of urinary bladder tumors? Double contrast cystography Ultrasonography Urine sediment analysis/cytology Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

Which suture material is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

Poliglecaprone ## Footnote PDS, polyglyconate, glycomer are recommended

Causes of anemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is not true? Lack of EPO GI bleeding/ulcers Decreased survivaltime of RBC Hemolysis

Hemolysis

Causes of glomerular disease in small animals. Which is not correct? Adhesions of immune complexes to basement membr. Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials Amyloidosis Congenital/aquired basement membr/podocyte injury

Congenital/aquired basement membr/podocyte injury

Which of the following factors does not affect the success of feline perineal urethrostomy? Transection of bulbospongiosis muscle Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma Transection of isciocavernosus muscle Type of suture material

Transection of bulbospongiosis muscle

Most common lower UTI of cats? Prostate disease Idiopathic cystitis Urolithiasis Bacterial cystitis

Idiopathic cystitis

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in acute obstruction FLUTD?

Stabilisation of urethral obstruction

What is your diagnosis if glucosuria appears in case of euglycemia?

Addisons

Not typical alteration in CKD Hypokalemia Anemia Hyperphosphatemia Metabolic alkalosis

Metabolic alkalosis

What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies? Determination of blood creatinine and urea values Determination of specific gravity by refractometer Detection of severe proteinuria Examination of urine sediment

Detection of severe proteinuria

Prerenal azotemia.... Which is the wrong answer? May be due to dehydration May cause kidney damage without treatment Can be corrected with fluid therapy May be caused by urine leakage into abdomen

May be caused by urine leakage into abdomen

If a cat has enlarged kidneys, what diagnosis is not probable? PKD Hydronephrosis Lymphoma Renal fibrosis

Renal fibrosis

Which statement is incorrect regarding prostate US?

It can differentiate cysts from abscess

Which statement is correct regarding traumatic renal bleeding? Abdominocentesis is always positive (blood) Plain abd. radiograph is usually pathognomic Retroperitoneal blood loss may lead to exsanguination Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually it does not lead to life-threatening circulatory changes

Retroperitoneal blood loss may lead to exsanguination

Which treatment does not affect the PTH level in chronic renal cases? Feeding renal diet Adding phosphorus binders to diet ACE inhibitor therapy Vit. D administration

ACE inhibitor therapy

What is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy?

Easily dissectable urethra, enlarged section, wide and safe stroma

Which of the following findings indicate urinary bladder rupture? If catheterization cannot harvest urine in traumatized patient Urine contains blood during catheterisation of traumatised patient Contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography Contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

Contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis? Occurs bilaterally Can lead to ureterolithiasis Caused by congenital disorder Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureters? May cause dysuria In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring Urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes Urinary incontinence is always constant

Urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

Which statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis? Diagnosis can be made based in typical US image of the kidneys Urine protein/creatinine ratio is typically high An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment Serum albumin level is increased

An important element of therapy is broad-spectrum AB treatment

Amyloidosis is not typically caused by? Chronic inflammatory processes Neoplasia Chronic liver disease Genetic causes

Chronic liver disease

Hypercholesterolemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease.. Glomerulopathies in dogs Chronic kidney disease of cats Acute kidney injury in dogs Fanconi syndrome

Glomerulopathies in dogs

Oliguria in dog, etiology Chronic renal disease, nephrosis/nephritis, pyometra Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease Endocrine disorders, hepatopathies

Dehydration, renal insufficiency, chronic liver disease

Renal amyloidosis is typically found in which dog breed? Basenji Shar-pei Vizsla Poodle

Shar-pei

Which treatment is not recommended in FIC? Increased water intake Pheromones Urine acidification Toys, scratching posts, hiding places, additional, litters

Urine acidification

What typically causes "acute on chronic" kidney disease? Polypoid cystitis Hemodynamic disturbances Hyperthyroidism Hepatopathy

Hemodynamic disturbances

Possible causes of hydronephrosis, which one is wrong? Ureter stones Granuloma formation following neurtalization Ascending infection TCC in bladder

Ascending infection

Which stone appears in case of bacterial cystitis in dogs? Urate Ca-oxalate Cysteine Struvite

Struvite

It typically causes "acute on chronic" kidney disease? Polypoid cysts Hemodynamic disturbance Hyperthyroidism Hepatopathy

Hemodynamic disturbance

Postrenal azotemia... Which answer is wrong? May be due to urethral obstruction May cause kidney damage if not treated May be due to severe dehydration May be due to ureter rupture

May be due to severe dehydration

Which urinary stone can not be dissolved medically?

Ca-oxalate

What is not true about polycystic kidney disease? Often asymptomatic Renal abscess can develop due to bacterial infection US examination is required for diagnosis Treatment is often surgical

Treatment is often surgical

Renal cysts are.... Always congenital Always bilateral Mainly accidental findings Generally causing renal failure

Mainly accidental finding

In dogs, which type of urolith can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle etc.?

Ca-oxalate

What is the main initiating cause of Ca/P imbalance in chronic renal failure? Inadequate vit. D production Poor absorption of Ca from GI tract Retention of P Nephrocalcinosis

Retention of P

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood P level during treatment of hyperkalemia? Choose the wrong answer IV calcium Potassium free infusion and furosemide Glucose containing infusions Rapid acting insulin applicators

IV calcium

Which statement is true about animals with renal dysplasia? Kidneys are typically enlarges on US with thin cortex Usually no changes in urine, only in blood Common symptoms are PU/PD Physical examination, kidneys are painful

Common symptoms are PU/PD

Creatinine level of dogs and cats with IRIS stage 1 CKD is? Normal: \<140 umol/l \>240 umol/l \>340 umol/l \>440 umol/l

Normal: \<140 umol/l

How would you treat a cat diagnosed with idiopathic cystitis? AB Urine acidifying diet Catheterisation, flushing bladder with isotonic saline Increase water intake

Increase water intake

What is not true about renal glucosuria? Caused by glomerular disease Plasma glucose levels are normal Can be genetic May be part of Fanconi syndrome

Caused by glomerular disease

Renal amyloidosis is typically found in which cat breed? Persian Siamese Abyssinian Bengal

Abyssinian

What therapy is not recommended for treatment of dehydration in CKD? Adm. of IV infusion Adm. of SC infusion Incr. water consumption Dialysis

Dialysis

What is the most common cause of struvite uroliths in dogs? Neutering in bitches Chronic bacterial UTI Dietary anomaly Inadequate response to stressors

Chronic bacterial UTI

Renal cysts... Are mainly accidental findings Always congenital Always bilateral Generally cause renal failure

Are mainly accidental finidngs

IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is usually associated with Azotemia Anemia, metabolic acidosis Uremia Decreased specific gravity of urine

Decreased specific gravity of urine

Causes of acute nephrosis... Which is wrong? Immune-complex deposition Renal ischemia Neprotoxic material Hemoglobin, myoglobin

Immune-complex deposition

Fanconi syndrome in dogs, which answer is wrong? Glucosuria Metabolic acidosis Aminoaciduria Ketonuria

Ketonuria

Oliguria definition? Output less than 50 ml/kg/day Output less than 100 ml/kg/day Output less than 30 ml/kg/day Output less than 6-10 ml/kg/day

Output less than 6-10 ml/kg/day

Most important aspect of struvite urolith treatment in dogs Diet AB Urine acidification All 3

All 3

Which of the following stones appear in case of ethylene glycol toxicosis? Struvite Ca-oxalate dihydrate Ca-oxalate monohydrate Purine

Ca-oxalate monohydrate

Symptoms of lower UTI in small animals, which is wrong? Hematuria, pollakiuria Stranguria, dysuria Polyuria, azotemia Periuria, incontinence

Polyuria, azotemia

Which of the following does not cause hydronephrosis? Stricture associated with previous surgery Urethral torsion Urethral tumors Ureterolithiasis

Urethral torsion

Suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supprted by... Which answer is wrong? Demonstration of Ca-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment Detection of ethylene glycol in blood Detection of ethylene glycol in urine Observation of halo-signs in kidneys during US

Demonstration of Ca-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment

Treatment of nephritis Ace-inhibitors Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis Systemic AB Fluid therapy

Puncture and flushing of renal pelvis

Which statement is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis? Can occur bilaterally Can lead to ureterolithiasis Caused by congenital disorders Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

Which circumstances may cause nephrosis/AKI.. Which is wrong? Hypotension, dehydration Overhydration w/ crystalloid infusion Hypothermia, NSAIDs AB, chemotherapeutics

Hypothermia, NSAIDs

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis? Partial nephrectomy Unilateral nephroureteroectomy Kidney drainage Euthanasia

Unilateral nephroureteroectomy

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obstruction in a male dog? Urethral hydropropulsion Prescrotal urethrostomy Scrotal urethrostomy Perineal urethrostomy

Urethral hydropropulsion

Which of the following is not typical in case of babesiosis? Myoglobinuria Icterus Vomitus Acute kidney injury

Myoglobinuria

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction of feline lower UTI? Stabilisation perineal urethrostomy Stabilisation cystocentesis Stabilisation urinary bladder expression Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

Stabilisation urethral catheterisation

Which of the following is not typical in case of AKI? Cahexia Vomitus Metabolic acidosis Uraemic ulcers

Cahexia

Abnormalities that are typical for chornic renal disease. Which is wrong? Hypertension PU/PD Hypophosphatemia Hypokalemia

Hypophosphatemia

IRIS stage 1 CKD is associated with? Azotemia Anemia, metabolic acidosis Uremia Decreased specific gravity of urine

Decreased specific gravity of urine

In case of elevated blood creatining conc.? Animal is uremic azotemic Animal has kidney disease Animal has azotemia Animal was fed with too much protein

Animal has azotemia

It prolongs the survival of dogs and cats with CKD? Increased P intake Medical reduction of proteinuria Urinary diet All 3

Urinary diet

Progression of renal disease is caused by... Which is wrong? Proteinuria Isothenuria Hyperparathyroidism Glomerular hypertension

Isothenuria

Which of the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria? Small sized protein appear in urine UPC \>2 UPC \<0 Ketonuria

Small sized protein appear in urine

Where is the most common location for vertebral body tumors? In the ventral body, middle third On en plates On processus multifidarius On processus articularis

In the ventral body, middle third

What is not true for degenerative myelopathy? Nutritional origin Slow, progressive disease in which the axon degenerates and there is demyelination The most common disease in old german shepherd Currently no known therapy

Nutritional origin

In case of cerebral origin symptoms, which cerebral areas can be separated? Forebrain, brain stem, cerebellum Forebrain, cerebellum, ... Myeloencephalon, Pons, Hemisphere Forebrain, ...., bone marrow

Forebrain, brain stem, cerebellum

Which antiepileptic drug is a primary choice for chronic treatment of dogs? Phenobarbital, imepitoin Ka-bromide Levatriacetam Diazepam

Phenobarbital, imepitoin

Which one means cervical malformation and malarcticulation? Wobbler syndrome Cauda equina syndrome Perthes disease Several types of diseases

Wobbler syndrome

A 3 year old lab has had 2 seizures in the last 2 months. Other than that the dog has been acting normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? Idiopathic epilepsy Structural epilepsy, following congenital brain lesions Reactive epileptic seizures are known in labradors PSS

Idiopathic epilepsy

Which of the following statements is not true regarding spleen hemangiosarcoma? Tumor splenectomy is only considered palliative surgery Chemotherapy does not increase significantly the survival time Tumor rupture does not worsen the prognosis Does not cause metastasis in the liver

Tumor rupture does not worsen the prognosis

Which of the following diseases causing non-regenerative anemia has the best prognosis? Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Addisons Sertoli cell testicular tumor with hypererstrogenism Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Addisons

How can we diagnose deep pain sensation? Squeeze patients paw and it will pull away Squeeze patients paw and it will extent opposite limb Squeeze patients paw and it will pull away, head turn to same direction and trying to bite Following painful stimuli m. cutaenus trunci contracts

Squeeze patients paw and it will pull away, head turn to same direction and trying to bite

What is not true regarding acute gastric catastrophe? For surgical indication, its important to establish the exact organ definition For surgical indication, it is important to have an acute diagnosis Requires emergency care Abdominal organs morphology ix caused by functional lesion

For surgical indication, its important to establish the exact organ definition

Which cannot cause secondary immune mediated hemolytic anemia? Microsporum Mycoplasma Babesia Hemangiosarcoma

Microsporum

For enterotomy closure: Monofilament, absorbable, only knots, 2 layers Multifilament, absorbable, only knots, 2 layers Monofilament, absorbable, simple knot/continous suture, 1 layer (seromuscular) Monofilament, non-absorbable, simple knot/continous suture, 1 layer

Monofilament, absorbable, simple knot/continous suture, 1 layer (seromuscular)

Which is not a common symptom of acute gastric catastrophe? Abdominal pain DIC Shock phases Vomiting

Vomiting

Which is most likely causing spasms in young, adult dog? Congenital heart disease Primary epilepsy PSS Brain tumor

Primary epilepsy

Rabies and Aujeszky symptoms, difference in dogs and cats Paresthesia common in Aujeszky, aggressive behavior common in Rabies Strabism and ascending limb paralysis common in Aujeszky, paresthesia common in Rabies Swallowing disturbance don't occur in Aujeszky, just in Rabies. Lung edema is typical for Aujeszky Rabies does not occur in cats, only Aujeszky

Swallowing disturbance don't occur in Aujeszky, just in Rabies. Lung edema is typical for Aujeszky

Lyssencephalon Is the congenital underdevelopment of cerebral cortex grooves Is a consequence of hydrocephalus Is a form of cerebral storage disorder Rabies (lyssa) histopathological consequence in cerebrum

Is the congenital underdevelopment of cerebral cortex grooves

Where can you take bone marrow sample from? Humerus Wing of ilium Both None

Both

Deviations for thrombocytopenia? Hemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time inc., thrombocyte inc. Petechia, hemothorax, bleeding time incr., trombocyte incr. Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time incr., thrombocyte decr. Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time decr., thrombocyte decr.

Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time incr., thrombocyte decr.

Which statement is true regarding congenital hydrocephalus? Hydrocephalus in common in young, big sized breeds under the age of 1 year In dogs, the ventriculoperitoneal shunt insertion is possible as palliative, symptomatic treatment GCC therapy, diuretics therapy is contraindicated for patients with high intracranial pressure Hydrocephalus is very rare for small sized dogs under the age of 1 year

In dogs, the ventriculoperitoneal shunt insertion is possible as palliative, symptomatic treatment

Which platelet number (G/l) will suggest thrombocytopenia caused bleeding?

\<50 G/l | (G = x 10^9)

Rabies incubation/latency period?

Usually 2-3 moths, but can be shorter or longer, depending on the location of the wound

What do we use DAMN-IT V acronym for?

For considering differential diagnosis

Which statement is true? Botulism caused by coli bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis Tetanus is caused by Clostridium bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis Tetanus is caused by coli bacteria and causes muscle spasms

Botulism is caused by Clostridium bacteria and causes flaccid paralysis

Which medication can be used as antispasmodic? Diazepam Propofol Both Neither

Both

Which statement is true? In case of hemolytic anemia, the blood plasma can be clear In case of pancytopenia, the thrombocyte count is elevated In case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs in a few hours Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regnerative anemia

In case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs in a few hours

From the following, which causes regenerative anemia? Lack of EPO Iron def. anemia Hemolytic anemia Aplastic anemia

Hemolytic anemia

Why do we not use multifilament suture in gastric and intestinal surgery? Expensive Occurence of septic complications is increased, due to threading danger threath Tensile strength is worse Knot tolerance is not good

Occurence of septic complications is increased, due to threading danger threath

What cannot be a symptom of transversal myelopathy?

Lameness

What drug can cause bone marrow damage?

Phenobarbital

In case on anemic condition, which cells are indicating a regenerative capacity of the disease?

Reticulocytes

What is not true for LMN function?

Controlling movement of extremities

Which surgical technique is the best for Hansen type 1 disc herniation?

Hemilaminectomia

Which condition has absolute surgical indication? (neuro)

Acute Hansen 1 discus prolapse, paraplegia without deep pain sensation

In what case can cytology of liquor evaluation be helpful? Hansen type 3 discopathy Wobbler syndrome Hemivertebra Meningomyelitis

Meningomyelitis

Which artery is not directly participating in blood supply of the spleen? A. gastrica sin. A gastroepiploica sin. A gastricae breves A. lienalis

A. gastrica sin.

Which diagnostic tool is great for diagnosing fibrocartilago embolism? X-ray CT MRI Liquor cytology

MRI

Which is the appropriate diagnostics / therepeutics protocol for GDV? Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrcocentesis adequate narcosis surgery stabilization and gasstrocentesis adequate narcosis orogastric tubation and gastric lavage surgery stabilization gastric lavage gastrocentesis surgery stabilizatzion gastrocentesis adequate narcosis surgery orogastric tubation and gastric lavage

Stabilization orogastric tubation and gastric lavage gastrcocentesis adequate narcosis surgery

Which procedure is controversial for preparation for colorectal surgery? manual evacuation of rectum enema stool softening ( oral lavage solution) preoperative antibiotics

manual evacuation of rectum

What does sceletonisation mean? cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected V-shaped excision of the mesentery excision of the affected intestinal section suturing of the v-shaped mesenteric defect

cessation of the mesenterial blood supply of the intestinal section to be resected

Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body caused caudal thoracic ( prediaphragmatic) oseophagal obstruction? Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation endoscopic removal laparotomy+gastrotomy+transluminal foreign body removal thoracotomy+oseophagotomy

endoscopic removal

Which suture technique is recommended for the closure of the colon in cats? Single-layer simple interrupted single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous single or double layer but always simple interrupted single or double layer but always simple continuous

single or double layer simple interrupted or continuous

According to Vasanjee et al Vet surg paper ( 2006) which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage? ligature biopsy laparoscopic pinch biopsy needle biopsy none of them

laparoscopic pinch biopsy

Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma? it is uncommon in females It mostly occurs in males it mainly originates from circumanal glands it originates from the anal sac in females

It mostly occurs in males

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gastric Dilation and Volvulus GDV? The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders There is also a chronic form of GDV GDV is usually of acute onset GDV starts right after last feeding

There is also a chronic form of GDV

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of diffuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery? Bilroth I gastroduodenostomy Partial gastrectomy Euthanasia Reposition and gastroplexy

Euthanasia

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands? zone cutanea linea anorectalis zona intermedia zona columnaris

zone cutanea

Which of the following procedures has a modification called Roux-en-Y technique? Choledochotomy Cholecystectomy Cholecystoduodenostomy Cholecystojejunostomy

Cholecystoduodenostomy

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostics value in intestinal intussusception? Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section Positive contrast abdominal radiography lack of feces vomit

Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning gastric foreign body? The success rate of gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 90% The gastrotomy is a contaminated / septic procedure Gastric foregn body may cause perforation Oral feeding can be started 4 to 6 hours after gastrotomy

The gastrotomy is a contaminated / septic procedure

Which hepatic division possesses the gall bladder? Right division central division left division caudal division

central division

NOT suggested medication in IBD ( idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease) Azathioprine for cats prednisolone cyclosporine budesonide

Azathioprine for cats

Suturing of an enterotomy wound Monofil, non absorbable suture material, simple interrupted/ continuous suture pattern, in 1 layer ( all layers) Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupter/ continuus suture patter in 1 layer ( seromuscular) Multifil absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern in 2 layers Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupted suture pattern in 2 layers

Monofil absorbable suture material, simple interrupter/ continuus suture patter in 1 layer ( seromuscular)

Granulomatous colitis is caused by Campylobacter coli Enteropathogenic E coli EPEC Adherent invasive E coli AIEC Clostridium perfringens

Adherent invasive E coli AIEC

In which of the following does megaesophagus not occur? Cushing disease Myesthenia gravis Addison disease Hypothyreosis

Cushing disease

Which is associated with portal hypertension Hepatic microvascular dysplasia Arterio portal / arterio venous fistula Congenital portosystemic shunt Hepatic lipidosis

Arterio portal / arterio venous fistula

The chronic inflammatory enteropathy ( CIE) involves lymphangiectasia as its subgroup is one of the chronic form of bacterial enteritis can result in protein loosing enteropathy is not known in cats

can result in protein loosing enteropathy

Which clinical signs are characteristics for gastric disease? vomit, hematemesis, anorexia hematemesis, abdominal pain, regurgitation dyspnea, vomit, fever odynophagia, hematemesis, weight loss

vomit, hematemesis, anorexia

In case of intestinal obstruction acute vomiting is the most characteristics symptom urgent gastric lavage is required profuse bloody diarrhea is the most characteristics symptom most of the cases can be managed with conservative therapy

acute vomiting is the most characteristics symptom

Which is the first drug choice in the treatment of primer Cu accumulation? D-penicillamine N-acetylcystein Cyclosporine Amoxycillin

D-penicillamine

Which BAOS surgery technique causes less wide soft palate? FFFP(folded flap palatoplasty) Soft palate resection Tonsillectomy Sacculectomy

FFFP(folded flap palatoplasty)

Which breed is not predisposed for primary Cu accumulation? Bedlington terrier german shepherd Labrador retriever dalmatian

german shepherd

Which of the statements is correct for the clinical signs of oseophageal disease in general? Appetite is always decreased appetite is always increased appetite is never changed appetite can be decreased or increased

Appetite is always decreased

Which disease is acute? Type 1 discopathy Type 2 discopathy Lumbo-sacral instability Tumor

Type 1 discopathy

Brain tissue damage in order of severity: Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, lacerta viridis Comorbidiatas cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceratio cerebri Laceratio cerebri, commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceratio cerebri

Commotio cerebri, contusio cerebri, laceratio cerebri

Which statement is false? The UMN cell bodies are located in the cerebellum and brain stem The UMN could stimulate or inhibit the LMN In case of UMN dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes In case of UMN dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyperreflexia, muscle hypertonia, abnormal reflexes

In case of UMN dysfunction the clinical findings are: hyporeflexia, muscle hypotonia, abnormal reflexes

On the basis on Modified Glasgow Coma Scale we can evaluate the prognosis of a patient with head trauma according to: Pupil size, motor activity, conciousness Pupil size, motor activity, brainstem reflexes Motor activity, brain stem reflexes, conciousness Pupil size, brain stem reflexes, conciousness

Motor activity, brain stem reflexes, conciousness

What is the final step of small intestine anastomosis surgery? Omentalisation Suturing mesenterium Pressure test over anastomosis wound Ligations of the mesenterial blood vessels

Omentalisation

Suggested treatment for FORL (feline odontoclastic resorptive lesion)?

Removal of teeth

36. Which is not true for perianal adenoma?

Malignancy

Which is false for primary copper storage disease?

Cholestasis

What can cause stomach symptoms?

NSAIDs

What is an indication for lobectomy?

Abscess

Light, acute small intestinal diarrhea - what is recommended extra examinations?

Fecal analysis

What is gastropexy?

Surgical procedure where stomach is sutured to abdominal wall or diaphragma

What are predisposing factors for stomach ulcer?

NSAIDs, metabolic disorders, GCC

Which is false? EOGC: Eosinophilia could be in the blood Allergy has a role in pathogenesis Could be diagnosed with rtg/xray Cyclosporine is a possible therapy

Could be diagnosed with rtg/xray

What are the characteristics of lymphagiectasia?

Ascites (!), hydrothorax, weight loss, emaciation

Where is it advisable to infiltrate the area of tonsils before tonsillectomy performed under anesthesia?

Use Adrenaline --\> causing vasoconstriction and reduced bleeding

What can cyanotic mucos membranes indicate?

Shock

What surgical technique is used for resolution of cleft palate?

Rotational flap Advancement flap

What are the indications for tonsillectomy?

Chronic tonsillitis, tumors (carcinoma, lymphosarcoma)

Vena cava syndrome caused by heartworm can be clearly identifies by?

Echocardiography

Closed system for blood collection?

For mandatory blood count

What instrument is not a member of the abdominal surgical instrument kit?

Finchetto wound dressing (used in thoracic)

What diseases can cause aspiration pneumonia?

Megaesophagus, laryngeal dysfunction

What to do if wound infection is suscpected?

Bacterial culture + AB resistance testing should be perfomed

What type of injection cannot be administered SC?

Glucose containing injections

Clinical signs of dogs/cats with bacterial pneumonia?

Lethargy, fever, dyspnea, cough, exercise intolerance, nasal discharge, hemoptysis, dysphagia, regurgitation, vomiting, muscular weakness, increased lung sounds

At what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs?

6-8 weeks

What type of infusion should be used in case of hypovolemic shock?

HAES infusion

Which contact layer is best to cover the wound in exudative phase?

Hydrogel

Normal CRT

\<1-2 sec

In complex treatment of heartworm, what is the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS?

Melarsomine (?)

Muscles used for IM drug administration?

M. quadriceps femoris, M. supra/infraspinatus, M. triceps brachii, M. semitendinosus/semimembranosus, dorsal lumbar epaxial muscles

Which material used as a contact layer has an antibacterial effect?

Silver

What happens in case of paravenous injection?

Swelling at injection site

What is the concept of wet wound treatment?

Based on retention of wound secretion on the wound surface

Appropriate resp. rate for CPR?

10-12/min

What is the advantages of IV catheter?

Continous access to peripheral circulation, multiple blood samples

What nasal excision is recommended in brachycephalic dogs?

Ventral rhinotomy

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmia on ECG?

QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmias

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed via US?

Yes, and also x-ray

Which drug does not have significant diuretic effect in small animals?

Spironolactone

Most common heart disease in cat?

HCM

Which drug has no afterload decreasing effect?

Digoxin

What is true about surgical scrubbing?

The efficiency is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength of the scrubbing

What is not correct regarding knot techniques?

Synthetic monofil.: less knot (3-4), Multifil.: more knots (5-6) are needed for safe tie

When is ECG most appropriatly indicated?

When cat arriving for flea treatment has 120 bpm HR

What cannot be determined by Doppler US?

The character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

Should drugs be given to a dog with B1 stage mitral valve disease?

No - only start treatment from B2 B1 does have heart disease, but does not have enlarged heart or clinical signs

What are the consequences of left heart failure? A) pulmonary oedema B) Thoracic fluid accumulaton in dogs C) Congestve liver D) Ascites

A) pulmonary oedema

What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)? a) may cause thromboembolism b) May cause sudden death c) Often has long survival d) Causes right-sided heart dilaton

d) Causes right-sided heart dilaton

Which of the following drugs has not afterload reducing effect? a) Amlodipine b) Pimobendan c) Digoxin d) Hydralazine

c) Digoxin

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair? a) Laparotomy b) Later thoracotomy c) Laparotomy lateral thoracotomy d) Sternotomy

a) Laparotomy

What can not be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs? a) Chemodectoma b) Idiopathic inflammation c) Thromboembolism d) Coagulopathy

What is the goal of asepsis? a) to prevent contamination b) To reduce contamination c) To allow contamination d) All of the above

a) to prevent contamination

Which answer is false? a) During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile b) The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on c) the open gloving method is used for minor interventions (e.g. catheterization) d) when performing the open gloving method, the folded-back inner surface of the glove cuff can be found with your bare hands

a) During surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure? a) because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia b) Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output c) Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear d) Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

b) Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output

The administration of digoxin may be justified to treat: a) III-degree AV block b) Ventricular tachycardia c) Atrial fibrillation d) Sinus tachycardia

c) Atrial fibrillation

Classification of pimobendan: A) ACE inhibitor B) Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor C) A bipyridine derivative D) Ca-channel sensitiser and alpha-adrenergic blocker

B) Ca-channel sensitiser and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Tying surgical knots. Pick the false answer (more than one is possible) A) in surgery, at least two-half knots with opposite direction are considered to be knot B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening C) two-handed, one-handed and instrumental knotting may be performed D) Instrumental knotting is safer for ligating large vessels and bundle of tissues

B) Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia? a) Thoracocentesis b) Abdominocentesis c) Ultrasonography d) Respiratory endoscopy

c) Ultrasonography

Reduction of ventricular afterload during heart failure: a) always beneficial b) Should only be used in mild heart failure c) Should only be used in severe heart failure d) Extremely risky

c) Should only be used in severe heart failure

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia? a) small intestine b) Large intestine c) Uterus d) Urinary bladder

d) Urinary bladder

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of an animal with ventricular arrhythmia: a) blood test, abdominal ultrasound b) cTroponon-I measurement c) Administration of digoxin d) Echocardiography

b) cTroponon-I measurement c) Administration of digoxin ???

The upper border of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is: a) Concave b) Convey c) Horizontal d) Changing in direction but never horizontal

c) Horizontal

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning surgery? a) surgical glove b) Artery clamp c) The skin of patient d) Gauze sponges

c) The skin of patient

What is the most common cardiac disease in cats? A) ARVC B) DCM C) HCM D) RCM

C) HCM

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of Canine heartworm disease? a) doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine b) fenbendazole, doramectine, clopidrogel c) doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine d) doxycycline, milbemycin-oxime, melarsomine

c) doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation? a) honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture b) thin, water-like flu during puncture c) Bloody fluid during puncture d) None of them

a) honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture

When can a horizontal dullness occur during thoracic percussion? a) in pleural effusion b) During pneumonia c) In pulmonary neoplastic diseases d) During cardiac enlargement

a) in pleural effusion

Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university as part of the complex treatment of heart worm disease? A) Selamectin B) Ivermectin C) Moxidectin D) Milbemycin oxime

C) Moxidectin

ECG characteristics of atrial fibrillation: a) The R-R distance varies and the ventricular complexes are greatly deformed b) There are no P-waves and R-R distances are regular c) There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies d) The atria and the ventricles operate separately with different P-wave and QRS frequencies

c) There are no P-waves and the R-R distance varies

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia? A) small intestine B) Large intestine C) Uterus D) Urinary bladde

A) small intestine

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia? A) it is a iatrogenic complication B) It might be suppurative C) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases D) It may be cause by surgical technical error

C) It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

Which modality is used to measure linear chamber sizes and display their alteration as a function of time in echocardiography? a) Color Doppler b) Pulsed wave Doppler c) B-mode d) M-mode

c) B-mode

PRAA means... A) abnormally directed Botallo ligament B) Latency of the Botallo duct C) Abnormally directed aortic arch D) Abnormally directed subclavian artery

C) Abnormally directed aortic arch

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis? a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy c) Left ventricular dilatation d) Right ventricular dilatation

b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

Electrosurgery. Pick the false answer! a) in monopolar systems, a large-surface return electrode must be placed on the patient’s body b) In monopolar systems, if the contact surface between the return electrode and body is small, burns may occur c) Forceps-like bipolar systems do not require large-surface return electrode d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system in better

d) The efficient and patient safety of the monopolar system in better

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease? a) PPDH b) PHDP c) PHPD d) PDHP

a) PPDH

Which statement is not characteristic for the radiograph finding of pneumothorax? a) elevation of the heart from the sternum b) Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs c) Compression of the lung lobes d) Dorsal dislocation of the trachea

b) Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)? a) left ventricular concentric hypertrophy b) Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy c) Left ventricular dilatation d) Right ventricular dilatation

c) Left ventricular dilatation

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heart worm disease? a) pulmonary arteries b) Pulmonary veins c) Both can altered d) None of them

a) pulmonary arteries

Typical clinical findings in case of dog’s haemopericardium: a) strong pulse b) Systolic heart murmur c) Reddish mucosal membranes d) Distant (muffled) heart sounds

d) Distant (muffled) heart sounds

The most common heart disease in dogs: a) mitral endocardosis b) Dilated cardiomyopathy c) Subvalvular aortic stenosis (SAS) d) PDA

a) mitral endocardosis

Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA? a) vomiting 30 min after feeding b) Vomiting 1-2 hours after feeding c) Vomiting 4-5 hours after feeding d) Regurgitation

d) Regurgitation

Which answer is false? a) during surgical scrubbing, the hand should be higher than the elbow b) During autoclave, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic microbes may remind on the surface of the devices c) Sterile devices in soaked packaging should not be used d) In the operating room, the sterile person should not lower the hands below table level

b) During autoclave, all pathogenic germs are destroyed, however, apathogenic microbes may remind on the surface of the devices

Consequences of heart failure a) pulmonary oedema b) Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs c) Congestive liver d) Ascites

LSFH: pulmonary edema RSHF: ascites

Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock? a) methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate b) Prednisolone Na-succinate c) Dexamethasone d) Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

d) Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

What colour is typical of the compensatory stage of shock? a) Pale b) Cyanotic c) Dirty red d) Bright red

d) Bright red

Which of the following types of a shock SIRS is rated in? a) Hypovolemic b) cardiogenic/obstructive c) Distributive d) Hypoxic

c) Distributive

How can you determine the left atrial-aortic ratio (LA/Ao) during the echocardiography? a) measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same long axis view b) Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of the left atrium in the same short axis view c) Measure the diameter of the aorta in short axis and measure the diameter of the left atrium in long axis view d) Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

d) Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short axis and measure the diameter of the aorta in long axis view

Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC? a) Fibrinogen b) D-dimer c) APTT d) FDP

a) Fibrinogen

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle is A) the scapula B) The cranial part of the heart C) The descendent aorta D) The caudal part of the heart

A) the scapula?? B) cranial part of heart ??

What is NOT needed to do a standard echocardiographic examination? a) phased array transducer b) Right lateral recumbency c) Using standard planes d) Linear transducer

d) Linear transducer

Which answer is not good? The hemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include: a) ventricular preload and afterload b) contractility, distensibility c) Heart rate and synchronisation of contractions d) The relative ratio of the amount of blood pumped by the two sides of the heart

a) ventricular preload and afterload

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia? a) to perform a vagus manoeuvre b) Administration of atropine c) Administration of diltiazem d) Echocardiography, blood test

b) Administration of atropine

Suture types. Pick the false answer! a) one or more tissue layers may be used according to the tissue type b) For wound closure, ‘layer to layer’, inverting and relaxing techniques may be used c) The pattern may be interrupted or continuous d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

d) Regardless of the suture type, the knots should be places on the wound line

Which is the wrong answer? May play a role in the progression of heart failure: a) chronic activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and the sympathetic nervous system b) Decrease number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation) c) The production of inflammatory mediators and free radicals d) Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy demands

d) Poor blood supply to the heart muscle despite increased oxygen and energy demands

Which solution of the mostly potentially alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis? a) NaCl solution b) NaHCO3 solution c) Lactated ringer’s d) Acetated ringer’s

b) NaHCO3 solution

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrhythmia on the ECG? a) the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias b) The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrhythmia c) P-wave is always visible in front of the QRS complex in supraventricular arrhythmias d) P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrhythmias before QRS complex

a) the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

How can you distinguish a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular one on the ECG? a) a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause b) The supraventricular extrasystole is always of normal width c) In front of the QRS complex, a p-wave is always seen in a supraventricular beat d) A p-wave is never seen before the QRS complex in a supraventricular beat

a) a ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

During an echocardiographic examination we can use... a) short axis view b) Longitudinal views c) Both of them d) None of them

c) Both of them

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia? A) small intestine B) Large intestine C) Uterus D) Urinary bladder

D) Urinary bladder

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a spaniel 3-rd degree AV block? a) determination of the potassium level b) Administration of atropine c) Administration of diltiazem d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

d) Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

Which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease? a) cats are occasionally infected b) Cats are often infected c) Cats are never infected d) None of the statements are true

a) cats are occasionally infected

The most important medications to treat congestive heart failure? A) ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril) B) Beta receptor blockers (atelonol, carvedilol) C) Loop diuretics (Furosemide, torsemide) D) Pimobendan, Levosimendan

C) Loop diuretics (Furosemide, torsemide)

Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic hernias? A) they take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias B) Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para—oesophageal C) The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited D) The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum

A) they take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias

Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic root ratio? a) short axis at heart base from right side b) Long axis at right side c) Apical view d) Subcostal view

a) short axis at heart base from right side ???

In which stage of HWD can ascites happen in dogs? a. 2 b. 3 c. 2and3 d. in none

b. 3

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs? pulmonic stenosis ventricular septal defect Fallot-tetralogy PDA

PDA

The most common color code meaning in color Doppler echocardiography: red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer blue: bloodflow towards the transducer; red: bloodflow away from the transducer blue: venous bloodflow; red: arterial bloodflow blue: decreasing speed bloodflow; red: increasing speed bloodflow

red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer

What is the shock organ in cat? Liver Lungs Small intestines Pancreas

Lungs

Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs? a. lateral b. dorsal c. ventral d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

What is the common shock organ in horse and dogs? liver lung GI tract pancreas

GI tract

Which congenital heart disease has a specific "machinery" murmur? pulmonic stenosis ventricular septal defect tetralogy of fallot PDA

PDA

After physical and auxiliary examinations we diagnose mitral endocardosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in? a. AHA-A b. AHA-B c. AHA-C d. AHA-D

b. AHA-B

Name of surgical instruments: scissors (sharp)

Metzenbaum, Iris, Mayo

Name of surgical instruments: needle holders

Mathieu, Olsen-Hegar, Mayo-Hegar, Castroviejo

Name of surgical instruments: tissue forceps

Adson, Adson-Brown, Allis

Name of surgical instruments: vessel forceps

Kocher, Mosquito

Name of surgical instruments: towel clamps

Cross action, Backhaus

Surgical instruments: GI set

Retractors, bowel clamps, "staplers"

Surgical instruments: thoracic set

Finochietto retractor, atrumatic instruments, "staplers"

Surgical instruments: microsurgery

"De Bakey" instruments (atraumatic)

Suture material: absorbable

Natural: catgut, collagen Synthetic: polyvlycolic acid, polyglactin (vicryl), polydiaxnone (PDS)

Suture material: non-absorbable

Natural: silk, cotton Synthetic: polyamide, polyester, polyolefins

Which condition leads to the shift of cardiac dullness? pulmonary oedema pulmonary fibrosis space occupying structure in the mediastinum pleural effusion

space occupying structure in the mediastinum

Which is not part of the pathological remodeling of the heart? MHC receptor formation on the membranes of myocardial cells the macroscopic transformation of the heart (dilation, hypertrophy) change of the myocardial cell function (contractility, arrhythmias) change in the myocardial cell connections

change in the myocardial cell connections

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardosis? ACE-I pimobendan furosemide none of the above

Pimobendan

Which organ is the source of MDF in shock? liver lung GI tract pancreas

Pancreas

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis? left ventricular hypertrophy right ventricular hypertrophy left heart distension right heart distension

left ventricular hypertrophy

What lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy? left ventricular hypertrophy right ventricular hypertrophy left heart distension right heart distension

left heart distension

Which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia? a. cardia b. fundus c. corpus d. antrum pylori

a. cardia

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography? the MAP the direction of flow the pressure difference between the heart chambers the character of flow (laminal or turbulent)

the pressure difference between the heart chambers

In case of PPDH, the dislocation of which abdominal organ is NOT common? a. spleen b. omentum c. liver d. small intestines

b. omentum

What is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneumothorax? a. x-rays b. physical exam c. ultrasound d. thoracoscopy

a. x-rays

When does cardiac dullness occur during percussion of the thorax? a. thoracic fluid accumulation b. pneumonia c. lung tumors d. enlargement of the heart

a. thoracic fluid accumulation

Which is not a typical symptom in cats in case of a riding thrombus: paralysis of the hindlimbs loud (painful) vocalization dyspnoe loss of femoral pulse

dyspnoe

Which parameter is the most specific for DIC? fibrinogen APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) PTT (partial thromboplastin time) FDP (fibrin degradation products)

fibrinogen

59. Characteristics of reverse sneezing Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background Indicates a serious, life-threatening illness Usually caused by irritation of the anterior of the nasal cavity indicates a laryngeal lesion

Usually caused by irritation of the anterior of the nasal cavity

Characteristics of laryngeal paralysis

usually old, large breed dogs are affected, and the background is usually idiopathic

Characteristics of feline asthma

the cytological and microbiological examination of bronchoalveolar lavage is highly important in its diagnosis

Canine chronic bronchitis Bronchial pattern on x ray mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy cytology and microbiology of BAL are required

mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy

What is spongostan TM ?

Gelatin sponge

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material? 0 2-0 2 3-0

Which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability? Monofilament vs multifilament tensile strength knot security absorption

Monofilament vs multifilament

Normal heart rate in dog

60-120/min

When should a puppy have its latest puppy vaccine?

At 16 weeks

External fixation is good for Septic fractures Temporary joint immobilisation Both None

Both

Which fixation method does not have a remodeling phase a. plate osteosynthesis b. external fixator frame c. internal fixator frame d. intramedullary pinning

b. external fixator frame

Advantages of the light cast are quick application possible - fluid impregnation , not heavy quick application possible-no fluid impregnation, light quick application possible - fluid impregnation , cheap slow application , no fluid impregnation

quick application possible-no fluid impregnation, light

Where is/are the scrotal incision(s) made for castration ? a. along the line of raphe scroti b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions

c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions

Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics ? a. they are flammable and explosive agents b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the long run (occupational risk) d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask induction

b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying endocrine changes the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism ) pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog a. joint cartilage b. subchondral bone c. periosteum d. adrenal gland

b. subchondral bone

Which is NOT correct regarding balance anaesthesia a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

89. Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog a. Osteochondrosis dissecans b. Osteomyelitis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteomalacia

b. Osteomyelitis

88. Which statement is correct regarding plate fixation Its good for SH fracture treatment It’s a dynamic fixation method Can do temporary joint fixation with it It is a rigid fixation method

It is a rigid fixation method

Which of the following radiographic densities look the same? Bone and metal Fat and soft tissue Fluid and soft tissue Fluid and fat

Fluid and soft tissue

78. Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch c. Distal surface faces to the apex d. Distal surface faces to the crown

b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

Which of the following does not contraindicate the use of NSAIDs? Shock Prolonged MM bleeding time Immaturity of musculoskeletal system Active GI ulceration

Immaturity of musculoskeletal system

74. Which statement is correct Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound Both None

None

73. Which statement is correct concerning capnometry a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2) b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2 c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption) d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

What is the number of permanent teeth in cat? 30 32 40 42

69. Which statement is correct a. It is preferable to suture the edges of a bite wound b. The bite wounds usually heal by primary intention c. Both d. None

None

68. Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation a. Adrenal gland b. Skin c. Brain d. Bone marrow

Brain

61. Which one is not a postural reaction a. Hopping b. Placing c. Wheelbarrowing d. Panniculus reflex

d. Panniculus reflex

56. Which does not belong to the arthrosis signs on the radiograph a. Perichondral osteophyte formation b. Irregular subchondral bone c. Widened joint space d. Cortical osteolysis

c. Widened joint space

55. Which statement is correct The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing Both None

The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

54. Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are increased The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

52. Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature a. Autoclave (steam) b. Gamma-beam radiation c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation

a. Autoclave (steam)

51. Which statement is correct concerning preanesthetic assessment Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance, blood glucose and urinalysis

Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST

49. Which statement is correct concerning pulse oxymetry The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry values Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

48. Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumors a. Soft palate b. Hard palate c. Gingiva d. Tongue

c. Gingiva

45. In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common a. French bulldog b. German shepherd c. Yorkshire terrier d. Hungarian vizsla

a. French bulldog

41. Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomonic in case of cranial cruciate ligament rupture a. Radiology b. Cranial drawer test c. Gait analysis d. Historical date

b. Cranial drawer test

26. General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

23. Barium-sulphate can be used for which of the following procedures a. Myelography b. Gastric emptying study c. Retrograde cystography d. Arthrography

b. Gastric emptying study

21. Stadium analgesia a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

18. Which activity is to be done first in case of pneumothorax a. Thoracocentesis b. Percutaneous chest drainage c. Oxygenisation d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy

a. Thoracocentesis

16. Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition

14. Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left inflated on extubation c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation

c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered

10. Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy a. Rectus sheet b. Falciform ligament c. Peritoneum d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle

a. Rectus sheet

Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy a. Liver abscess b. Superficial liver rupture c. Cholelithiasis d. Diffuse hepatomegaly

a. Liver abscess

87. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone involvement of oral tumors Radiography FNA CT US

Radiography

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia a. Small intestine b. Large intestine c. Uterus d. Urinary bladder

Small intestines

Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate ligament repair a. The suture material is non-absorbable b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

a. The suture material is non-absorbable

Which local anesthetic technique is the safest from the patient ́s aspect a. Infiltrational b. Epidural c. Intrathecal d. Paravertebral

a. Infiltrational

28. Which statement is correct concerning pain During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia is only required pre-, and postoperatively Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

26. Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain a. Is always a single exit drain b. Can only be used as double exit drain c. Is mostly used for flushing d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

a. Is always a single exit drain

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is A tube drain Made of latex A multi-lumen drain Mostly used as an active drain

A tube drain

Which is the upper most muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy? ## Footnote a. Dorsal latissimus m b. Dorsal serratus m c. Ventral serratus m d. M.cutaneus trunci

d. M.cutaneus trunci

How many lung lobes has a dog? ## Footnote a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

c. 7

. Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure (Greenberg, Am J Vets Res, 2004) a. PDS b. Polyglyconate c. Glycomer d. Polyglecaprone

d. Polyglecaprone

57. Which sign of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 is less than 60mmHg) a. Dyspnoe b. Cyanosis c. Hyperventilation d. Labial breathing

b. Cyanosis

54. Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs a. Panosteitis b. Perthes disease c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy d. Achilles tendineopathy

c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy

What does “epulis” mean?

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

Which of the following statements is incorrect? An active drain a. Is not recommended as flushing drain b. Can be open suction-drain c. Can be closed suction-drain d. Is used as flushing drain

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain

Which statement is correct regarding dentine in dog a. It is capable of repair in living tooth b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false) d. It is continuously narrowing during aging

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth

Phases of wound healing

Acute inflammation Resorption Proliferation Remodelling

19. Which statement is not correct regarding the tracheal collapse a. The entire trachea is affected b. The radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase c. Its cause is the weakening of the cartilage d. Mostly small breed dogs are affected

a. The entire trachea is affected

Current concepts of pain management/analgesia is Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action) Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action) Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of action) Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients

Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material a. Monofilament features b. Good tensile strength c. Good knot security d. Unique thrombophob feature

b. Good tensile strength

What statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC) a. Disc calcification indicated SCC b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

Number of permanent teeth in dog

In which cycle phase is it typical: small vulva, red vaginal mucosa, rosetta-like appearance - Prooestrus - Oestrus - Dioestrus - Anoestrus

- Dioestrus

In which cycle phase is it typical: slight swollen vulva, the vaginal mucosa is whitish “dry” and wrinkled? - Prooestrus - Oestrus - Dioestrus - Anoestrus

- Oestrus

In which cycle is it typical: small vulva, pink, flat mucosa? - Prooestrus - Oestrus - Dioestrus - Anoestrus

- Anoestrus

In which cycle phase is it typical: in the vaginal smear the rate of cornified cells is higher than 80-90% - Prooestrus - Oestrus - Dioestrus - Anoestrus

- Oestrus