PPL Prep - General Flashcards
1
Q
What is the AIP?
A
Aeronautical Information Publication - contains information for pilots
2
Q
What information does the Vol. 4 contain?
A
General Information, Aerodome Plates. VFR
3
Q
What is the Supplement?
A
Updated informaiton that needs to be provided outside of the normal amendment dates.
4
Q
How often is the supplement replaced?
A
28 days
5
Q
How often is an amendment issued?
A
56 days
6
Q
When should amendments be inserted into the AIP?
A
Before first flight after the effective date. Ideally on the effective date.
7
Q
How do you know what the amendment status of an AIP is?
A
The amendments should be recorded at the front of the AIP to ensure that all amendments have been applied.
8
Q
How do you know this is the current amendment?
A
Gen 0.4 checklist of AIP pages will have the latest amendment applied.
9
Q
What is the significance of the grey highlights in the index?
A
Changes made when the current amendment was applied
10
Q
How is new or changed information indicated in the AIP?
A
With a Veritcal Line beside it.
11
Q
How is deleted information indicated in the AIP?
A
It has a D in the margin on the left hand side.
12
Q
If you are taxiing on an aerodrome, and tower flashes a green light to you, what does this mean?
A
Cleared to Taxi
13
Q
What is the purpose of the pink pages in the AIP?
A
Pink pages cover emergency procedures in the AIP 4
14
Q
What is TIBA?
A
Is the emergency broadcast system in the event that Chch is out of action
15
Q
What do the PSR / SSR charts show?
A
Primary and secondary survellinece reach and signal
16
Q
Where is the elevation measurement taken on the aerodrome?
A
Near the center of aerodrome
17
Q
Is the elevation point measurement on the aerodrome plate?
A
Yes.
Circle with a cross in it.
18
Q
Is elevation point measurement described in terms of latitude / longitude anywhere on an aerodrome chart?
A
Yes. At the bottom of the aerodrome chart.
19
Q
Where is North on the aerodrome chart?
A
It is the top of the page.
It is shown in the top left of the chart
20
Q
On the Aerodrome chart is the North shown as true or magnetic north?
A
True North and Magnetic North are shown.
The top of the page is True North.
21
Q
How are WDIs shown on an aerodrome chart?
A
Triangles on the chart
22
Q
What does it mean when the WDI symbol has lines radiating from the end?
A
That the Wind Direction Indicator is lit
23
Q
What do the elevation annotations at the runway ends mean?
A
These are at the runway threshold and indicates
the elavation at that point of runway
24
Q
What do the arrow-shaped flags with a number in them mean on an aerodrome chart?
A
Distance available to the end of the run way
25
What is the purpose of a clearway on an aerodrome chart?
Extra length at the end of a runway that is clear of obstacles
26
What is the purpose of a starter extension?
??
27
What is a displaced threshold?
When the landing zone is beyond the start of the runway. This can be used for takeoff
28
How is an displaced threshold indicated?
3 ovals on the runway diagram
29
Can you use the displacement for take-off and landing?
Take-off only
30
Taxiway A5 at Ardmore is NOTAM closed, how would you ID this taxiway?
Look at the AIP Ground Movement chart.
31
Why are preferred procedures published?
The goal is to provide common procedures, allowing safer airspace.
However they are only preferred, so look out is required.
32
What is ESWL?
Equalivant single load. Which is to provide gudiance on the max weight allowed on that taxiway
33
What is runway slope measured in?
Degrees
34
What is ASDA?
Accelerate-Stop Distance.
35
What is the purpose of the yellow pages for AA, CH etc.?
Aerodrome has significant construction
36
What do the solid blue dots signify in the VNC?
Mandatory Broadcast Zone
37
What must you do in an MBZ?
Broadcast position reports:
* at regular intervals
* On Entry and Exit
* Joining Circuit
* Prior to entering a runway
Anti-collision lights must be on if fitted
38
Where are the details of the MBZ displayed?
In a Blue Box on the VNC
39
What does LLCA mean?
Lowest Level for Class C
40
What do the open blue diamond symbols signify?
Common Freq Zone.
41
What must you do in a CFZ?
Use the CFZ radio. However there is no requirement to broadcast position.
42
What is a transit lane?
An area in the controlled airspace that can be used by uncontrolled traffic ( don't need to contact ATC )
43
Are Transit Lanes available 24 hours a day?
No.
Tranist lanes are only active during the day.
44
What is a danger area?
Any area where additional caution must be taken.
You can fly in them after consideration. There is no-one to ask permission of.
General recommendation is to avoid them.
45
Can you enter a danger area?
Yes.
As long as you take into account all hazards
46
Can you enter a military area?
With Permission only.
47
Can you enter a restricted area?
With Permission only.
48
Can you enter a volcanic hazard area?
Yes
During day only.
VMC
49
What is a low flying zone?
An area that allows lower than normal ( 500ft ) for training purposes
50
How low can you fly in a low flying zone?
Depends on the procedures for the LFZ. But generally for Ardmore LFZ it's not below 200ft
51
What is a general aviation area?
A training area for general avaiation.
Uses Transponder code of 1400 instead of 1200
Marked as DAY means it does not need to be activated.
Otherwise ATC needs to be contacted.
52
Are FISCOM frequencies listed on the chart?
Yes
53
What does the number next to a black dot signify?
Height at that point.
54
What is special about the spot height in a black box?
??
55
What are the numbers in the middle of each grid-square on the VNC for?
The Maximum Elevation Figure ( MEF )
This is the maximum height of any obstacle, including trees and objects in the grid.
56
If you flew at the MEF grid altitude would you hit anything?
Yes.
This is the maximum height of any obstacle, including trees and objects in the grid.
57
How could you ensure minimum legal height above obstacles in that grid-square?
Add 500 ft to the MEF.
58
How are powerlines indicated?
Squiggly lines
59
How are golf courses indicated?
Golf flag
60
How are areas of sensitive fauna indicated?
Red Box with a duck symbol
61
How are conspicuous buildings indicated?
Black Sqaures
62
How are wire-hazards indicated?
Red line, which 'sags'
Height is indicated as well.
63
What does the number above the wire symbol mean?
Height of the highest element of the wire
64
The number with a red wite line....
Is this the lowest or highest point of the span?
Highest point of the structure
65
Where is the wire based on the symbology?
Across a saddle or river
66
When their is a wire, is it an accurate location?
No.
It's warning when flying in that area.
67
Does the marking of wires mean there are no other wires around?
No.
68
Why are some aerodromes blue, and some purple?
IFR vs VFR
69
Why do some of the purple ones aerodromes a teardrop symbol near them?
Indicating approach/depature paths for IFR approaches/depatures
70
What are the requirements to hold a PPL?
17 years old. Valid medical, passed all theory tests, passed practical flight test
71
What are the privileges and limitations of the PPL?
Privileges are VFR flight, single engine aircraft, non-turbine.
Max Gross weight - depending on Medical.
No more than 6 people ( 5 passengers )
72
What air operations may be conducted by a PPL?
Private flights only.
Meaning passengers are allowed, but can not be paid for service. Cost sharing is allowed.
Glider Towing
Aerobatics
Drogue
Night - with appropriate additional rating.
73
Can a PPL fly for hire or reward?
No.
Cost sharing is allowed.
74
What is the minimum legal height?
500ft unpopulated areas
1000ft populated areas
75
What is minimum height over populated areas?
1000ft AGL for populated areas.
76
What is a populated area?
An area with a significant concentration of people.
- residential
- commercial
- arenas/stadiums outdoor areas.
77
What is the minimum lateral separation from a populated area, below 1,000’ AGL?
600m horizontally
78
What is the minimum lateral separation from obstacles / vehicles / persons below 500’ AGL?
150m horizontally
79
What is the minimum legal reserve fuel?
30 minutes - Day
45 minutes - night
80
What extra fuel should be carried beyond trip and reserve?
Landing, Taxi, Take-off and diversion
81
Describe the ideal SOHRJ procedure
??
82
How does cost sharing work?
Cost of flight can be shared. Must be shared equalling between all. Can include Fuel, rental ( or per hour charge if owned ). Must know the passengers.
83
Can you let a passenger “have a go”?
No
84
Can you drop an object from an aircraft in flight?
Yes, as long as all reasonable saftey precautions are taken AND you have permission form the land owner
85
When must lifejackets be carried?
Need to check. For me in my aircarft - anytime we are outside of gliding distance of land.
86
When must a flight plan be filed?
There is not a requirement to file a flight plan for VFR. Therefore the Club SOPs apply.
87
Can an aircraft perform an orbit in the circuit at Ardmore?
No.
88
What is the VFR MET minima in class G by day?
IC5 and 1,2,5. Under 3,000ft 5KM vis and clear of cloud and see ground. Over 3,000 ft. 1,000 vertifcal, 2 KM horizontal, 5KM vis.
89
Does this change at night?
No
90
What is the VFR MET minima for take-off at an uncontrolled aerodrome by day?
600ft
91
Can a flight be conducted at Ardmore under uncontrolled aerodrome minimum VFR conditions? ( 600ft ceiling )
No. There is high min due to helicopters
92
Can a flight be conducted during conditions of TEMPO 4000 SHRA?
No. This is indicating 4KM vis
93
What is the VFR MET minima at a controlled aerodrome?
1500ft ceiling
5km Visibility
94
What is Special VFR?
Within a controlled airspace, the ceiling can be 600 ft with 1,5km vis
95
What must be done to obtain Special VFR?
Radio or telephone the control
96
What is the correction for a wet runway?
It’s in AC91
Landing - 115% of LDR
Take-off - nothing specific.
97
Where are the surface correction factors found?
Either the POH OR CAA website, in part 91
98
Should there be a margin added to calculated distances for take-off and landing, or is there enough margin “built in”?
Personal minimum margins should be added, depending on pilot expereince, and specifics of the aerodrome.
99
What is the group rating system?
A way of grouping runways and aircraft..
100
How does the group rating work?
In theory if the aircraft group is lower that runway group - then landing/take-off calcs are not required
101
What must be done if the group rating does not allow a take-off or landing?
Landing and/or take-off calculations
102
What benefit is gained through calculation of the ground roll component of TODR and LDR?
To provide the lenght where we should identify abort or go-around points.
103
What is a SIGMET?
Signicant metorolical event.
104
How long is a SIGMET valid for?
It's on the chart.
105
When are SIGMETs revised?
As required or hourly
Valid for 4 hours from time of issue
6 hours for hurricanes/cyclones
106
Which forecasts and reports give wind in °T, and which give wind in °M?
Most give in True. The ATIS or AWIB over the radio is in M
107
What is implied by the abbreviations CB and TCU?
Cumlonimubs and Towering Cumlino nimbus
108
What is a TAF?
Terminal Aera Forecast. A forcast for the aerodrome.
109
Define TEMPO
Temporary conditions
110
What happens between two TEMPOs?
The main information in the TAF
111
What is a METAR?
Current conditions at the aerodrome.
112
What is an AUTO METAR?
The Metar is automatically updated without a human.
113
In an AUTO METAR what does /// mean?
Cloud is detected ( unable to determine TCU/CB )
114
Decode this - NEW FAC OPR AD BCN ALTN FLG G/W 2.5 SEC
New Beacon, operating. Flashing at 2.5 per second
115
What is the difference between A and B NOTAM?
A is national only, B is national and international
116
What does A1012/18 mean?
The Notam. This is number 1012 in 2018
117
Are NOTAM in local time or UTC?
UTC
118
What does EST mean in a validity period?
Estimated
119
What is the difference between Aerodrome, Enroute and Navigational Warning NOTAM?
Aerodrome - applies to operations with the boundaries. Enroute applies outside of the Aerodrome.
Navigation warning is about navaids or temporary airspace changes
120
Is there a way to ascertain if there are no NOTAM for a particular airfield?
Yes. Look at Go Preflight. Specifically the briefing functionality
121
What are the five documents you must carry on every flight?
Airworthiness Certificate, Flight Manual,tech log,Weight and balance info ( CAA 2173), Aircraft Radio Equipment ( CAA 2129)
122
What is a Tech Log?
Log of technical aspects. Specifically the hours the aircraft has flown, the dates of upcoming inspections and any records and observed issues ( such as INOP )
123
Can the aircraft be flown beyond the date or hours of the next check?
Only for the purposes of performing the check.
No passengers.
124
How can an issue in the tech log be cleared?
By the operator or mechanic
125
What is the Certificate of Airworthiness?
Cerifiicate from the CAA stating the aircraft is airwothy
126
Does the airworthiness expire?
They do not expire
127
What is the CAA2173 Weight & Balance form?
Contains the weight of the aircraft and the datum for the ARMs
128
How is this information established?
By an authorised engineer
129
What is the CAA2129 Radio Approvals form?
The radio equipment installed, including the installation date, type.
130
What the radio documentation tell us?
Tells the pilot if the radio equipment complies with Level 1 or Level 2. It's our way of knowing
131
What is the difference between level 1and 2 for radio equipment?
Level 1 - IFR, Level 2 - VFR
132
What is the MCTOW?
Maximum Certifed Take-off Weight
133
Can the aircraft ever weigh more than the MCTOW this?
Yes. For example we may burn some fuel during taxi.
134
What is the MLW?
Maximum Landing weight.
In the 172, it’s the same as the MCTOW
135
What is utility category? (C-172)
Is the part of the weight and balance where the aircraft is usually lighter and the CG is forward.
136
Does utility category confer any advantage to flight operations?
In utility the allowable g forces are higher.
137
Are there any limits to utility category?
Yes. No persons or baggage in the back.
138
What are the published stall speeds?
Flaps up and flaps down. Both are at Max Weight
139
What is VNO?
Normal Operating
140
What is VA?
Max Manovouring speed. Below this, the aircraft will stall before damage occurs. It varies based on factors such as weight.
141
What is VNE?
Never Exceed
142
What is the maximum window open speed?
163 kts
143
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component?
15kts
144
Is maximum demonstrated crosswind a limitation?
No. However when it comes to crosswind, the bigger limitation is pilot skills
145
Where is the alternate air intake?
On the side of the cowling.
It will open automatically if needed on the c172
146
How does the alternative air operate?
The alternatve air intake uses unfiltered and unheated air. It will open automatically - using suction from the the engine.
147
Where is the alternator?
Attached to the engine
148
What does the alternator do?
Charges the batteries, run the electical system
149
How are the flaps operated?
Electrically
150
How many flap motors? (C-172)
One The only POH refernce I could find was it said 'The Flap Motor' in the section on electrical failures
151
How do you squawk IDENT?
Press the Ident button.
152
What is the maximum oil capacity?
8 Quarts
153
Is this the total the system holds?
No. This is just the measure at the dip stick ( according to the Flight Manual )
154
What grade of oil is used?
Aeroshell W100
AKA SAE 50
155
What is the planned fuel burn rate?
40 lts per hour
156
Where did the fuel burn of 40lts ( 10gals ) per hour come from?
Flight manual.
157
What is the maximum fuel capacity?
210 liters
158
Is this max fuel capacity total or useable?
Total
159
How much fuel is unusable?
10 liters
160
How many fuel drains are there in a C-172S
5 per wing and 3 underneath
161
What are the under-fuselage drains connected to?
The fuel drains are connected to
- fuel strainer
- fuel reservoir
- fuel selector:
Note. The pre-flight says only do all three if the fuel strainer show contaminants .
162
Where is the transponder antenna?
Under the aircraft
163
Where is the outside air temperature probe?
Underside of the wing
164
What is shown on the annunciator panel?
L Low Fuel R
L Vac R
Oil Press
Volts
165
When does the low voltage light come on?
When volts drop below 24.5 volts
166
Is there any means of over-voltage protection?
Yes.
167
Describe the procedure to change transponder code
Put the transponder into STBY, change the code, put back in ALT
168
Describe the procedure to transmit on one radio, whilst listening to the second radio as well
Com1 and Com 2. Mic on Com 1
169
Describe the priming procedure
fuel pump on until the fuel Flow moves. No longer than 5 seconds
170
When would the hot-start procedure be implemented?
When the engine has been used recently. This can be judged by looking at the oil temp when the master is turned on.
171
What may be the connotations of rising oil temperature?
Could be either oil leak, oil blockage or gauge failure. Cross check with Oil pressure. I personally would start diversion.
172
What is the engine fire during start procedure?
Continue Cranking. If started, run for a few minutes and shut down. If does not start. Fuel Out, Mixture Cutoff Throttle out.
173
What is the engine fire in flight procedure?
Fuel out, Mixutre out, throuttle out, ignition off. Dive plane to put out fire if needed.
174
What is the ditching procedure?
Throw out bagge if possible. Brace postion. Land into wind, if not swells, land parallel if swelll, tail first to avoid flipping over. Leave plane
175
What is the brace position in this aircraft?
Seats fully upright, seat belts tighened. Coat on the dash if available.
176
With the Stall Speed - what are the conditions used for this ( not flaps, other things )
Power Idle, Max Weight
