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NZ PPL General > PPL Prep - General > Flashcards

PPL Prep - General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the AIP?

A

Aeronautical Information Publication - contains information for pilots

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2
Q

What information does the Vol. 4 contain?

A

General Information, Aerodome Plates. VFR

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3
Q

What is the Supplement?

A

Updated informaiton that needs to be provided outside of the normal amendment dates.

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4
Q

How often is the supplement replaced?

A

28 days

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5
Q

How often is an amendment issued?

A

56 days

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6
Q

When should amendments be inserted into the AIP?

A

Before first flight after the effective date. Ideally on the effective date.

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7
Q

How do you know what the amendment status of an AIP is?

A

The amendments should be recorded at the front of the AIP to ensure that all amendments have been applied.

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8
Q

How do you know this is the current amendment?

A

Gen 0.4 checklist of AIP pages will have the latest amendment applied.

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9
Q

What is the significance of the grey highlights in the index?

A

Changes made when the current amendment was applied

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10
Q

How is new or changed information indicated in the AIP?

A

With a Veritcal Line beside it.

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11
Q

How is deleted information indicated in the AIP?

A

It has a D in the margin on the left hand side.

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12
Q

If you are taxiing on an aerodrome, and tower flashes a green light to you, what does this mean?

A

Cleared to Taxi

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the pink pages in the AIP?

A

Pink pages cover emergency procedures in the AIP 4

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14
Q

What is TIBA?

A

Is the emergency broadcast system in the event that Chch is out of action

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15
Q

What do the PSR / SSR charts show?

A

Primary and secondary survellinece reach and signal

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16
Q

Where is the elevation measurement taken on the aerodrome?

A

Near the center of aerodrome

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17
Q

Is the elevation point measurement on the aerodrome plate?

A

Yes.
Circle with a cross in it.

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18
Q

Is elevation point measurement described in terms of latitude / longitude anywhere on an aerodrome chart?

A

Yes. At the bottom of the aerodrome chart.

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19
Q

Where is North on the aerodrome chart?

A

It is the top of the page.
It is shown in the top left of the chart

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20
Q

On the Aerodrome chart is the North shown as true or magnetic north?

A

True North and Magnetic North are shown.
The top of the page is True North.

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21
Q

How are WDIs shown on an aerodrome chart?

A

Triangles on the chart

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22
Q

What does it mean when the WDI symbol has lines radiating from the end?

A

That the Wind Direction Indicator is lit

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23
Q

What do the elevation annotations at the runway ends mean?

A

These are at the runway threshold and indicates
the elavation at that point of runway

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24
Q

What do the arrow-shaped flags with a number in them mean on an aerodrome chart?

A

Distance available to the end of the run way

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25
Q

What is the purpose of a clearway on an aerodrome chart?

A

Extra length at the end of a runway that is clear of obstacles

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26
Q

What is the purpose of a starter extension?

A

??

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27
Q

What is a displaced threshold?

A

When the landing zone is beyond the start of the runway. This can be used for takeoff

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28
Q

How is an displaced threshold indicated?

A

3 ovals on the runway diagram

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29
Q

Can you use the displacement for take-off and landing?

A

Take-off only

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30
Q

Taxiway A5 at Ardmore is NOTAM closed, how would you ID this taxiway?

A

Look at the AIP Ground Movement chart.

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31
Q

Why are preferred procedures published?

A

The goal is to provide common procedures, allowing safer airspace.
However they are only preferred, so look out is required.

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32
Q

What is ESWL?

A

Equalivant single load. Which is to provide gudiance on the max weight allowed on that taxiway

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33
Q

What is runway slope measured in?

A

Degrees

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34
Q

What is ASDA?

A

Accelerate-Stop Distance.

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35
Q

What is the purpose of the yellow pages for AA, CH etc.?

A

Aerodrome has significant construction

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36
Q

What do the solid blue dots signify in the VNC?

A

Mandatory Broadcast Zone

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37
Q

What must you do in an MBZ?

A

Broadcast position reports:
* at regular intervals
* On Entry and Exit
* Joining Circuit
* Prior to entering a runway

Anti-collision lights must be on if fitted

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38
Q

Where are the details of the MBZ displayed?

A

In a Blue Box on the VNC

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39
Q

What does LLCA mean?

A

Lowest Level for Class C

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40
Q

What do the open blue diamond symbols signify?

A

Common Freq Zone.

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41
Q

What must you do in a CFZ?

A

Use the CFZ radio. However there is no requirement to broadcast position.

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42
Q

What is a transit lane?

A

An area in the controlled airspace that can be used by uncontrolled traffic ( don’t need to contact ATC )

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43
Q

Are Transit Lanes available 24 hours a day?

A

No.
Tranist lanes are only active during the day.

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44
Q

What is a danger area?

A

Any area where additional caution must be taken.
You can fly in them after consideration. There is no-one to ask permission of.
General recommendation is to avoid them.

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45
Q

Can you enter a danger area?

A

Yes.
As long as you take into account all hazards

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46
Q

Can you enter a military area?

A

With Permission only.

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47
Q

Can you enter a restricted area?

A

With Permission only.

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48
Q

Can you enter a volcanic hazard area?

A

Yes
During day only.
VMC

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49
Q

What is a low flying zone?

A

An area that allows lower than normal ( 500ft ) for training purposes

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50
Q

How low can you fly in a low flying zone?

A

Depends on the procedures for the LFZ. But generally for Ardmore LFZ it’s not below 200ft

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51
Q

What is a general aviation area?

A

A training area for general avaiation.
Uses Transponder code of 1400 instead of 1200
Marked as DAY means it does not need to be activated.
Otherwise ATC needs to be contacted.

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52
Q

Are FISCOM frequencies listed on the chart?

A

Yes

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53
Q

What does the number next to a black dot signify?

A

Height at that point.

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54
Q

What is special about the spot height in a black box?

A

??

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55
Q

What are the numbers in the middle of each grid-square on the VNC for?

A

The Maximum Elevation Figure ( MEF )
This is the maximum height of any obstacle, including trees and objects in the grid.

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56
Q

If you flew at the MEF grid altitude would you hit anything?

A

Yes.
This is the maximum height of any obstacle, including trees and objects in the grid.

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57
Q

How could you ensure minimum legal height above obstacles in that grid-square?

A

Add 500 ft to the MEF.

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58
Q

How are powerlines indicated?

A

Squiggly lines

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59
Q

How are golf courses indicated?

A

Golf flag

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60
Q

How are areas of sensitive fauna indicated?

A

Red Box with a duck symbol

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61
Q

How are conspicuous buildings indicated?

A

Black Sqaures

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62
Q

How are wire-hazards indicated?

A

Red line, which ‘sags’
Height is indicated as well.

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63
Q

What does the number above the wire symbol mean?

A

Height of the highest element of the wire

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64
Q

The number with a red wite line….
Is this the lowest or highest point of the span?

A

Highest point of the structure

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65
Q

Where is the wire based on the symbology?

A

Across a saddle or river

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66
Q

When their is a wire, is it an accurate location?

A

No.
It’s warning when flying in that area.

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67
Q

Does the marking of wires mean there are no other wires around?

A

No.

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68
Q

Why are some aerodromes blue, and some purple?

A

IFR vs VFR

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69
Q

Why do some of the purple ones aerodromes a teardrop symbol near them?

A

Indicating approach/depature paths for IFR approaches/depatures

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70
Q

What are the requirements to hold a PPL?

A

17 years old. Valid medical, passed all theory tests, passed practical flight test

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71
Q

What are the privileges and limitations of the PPL?

A

Privileges are VFR flight, single engine aircraft, non-turbine.

Max Gross weight - depending on Medical.

No more than 6 people ( 5 passengers )

72
Q

What air operations may be conducted by a PPL?

A

Private flights only.
Meaning passengers are allowed, but can not be paid for service. Cost sharing is allowed.

Glider Towing
Aerobatics
Drogue
Night - with appropriate additional rating.

73
Q

Can a PPL fly for hire or reward?

A

No.
Cost sharing is allowed.

74
Q

What is the minimum legal height?

A

500ft unpopulated areas
1000ft populated areas

75
Q

What is minimum height over populated areas?

A

1000ft AGL for populated areas.

76
Q

What is a populated area?

A

An area with a significant concentration of people.
- residential
- commercial
- arenas/stadiums outdoor areas.

77
Q

What is the minimum lateral separation from a populated area, below 1,000’ AGL?

A

600m horizontally

78
Q

What is the minimum lateral separation from obstacles / vehicles / persons below 500’ AGL?

A

150m horizontally

79
Q

What is the minimum legal reserve fuel?

A

30 minutes - Day
45 minutes - night

80
Q

What extra fuel should be carried beyond trip and reserve?

A

Landing, Taxi, Take-off and diversion

81
Q

Describe the ideal SOHRJ procedure

A

??

82
Q

How does cost sharing work?

A

Cost of flight can be shared. Must be shared equalling between all. Can include Fuel, rental ( or per hour charge if owned ). Must know the passengers.

83
Q

Can you let a passenger “have a go”?

A

No

84
Q

Can you drop an object from an aircraft in flight?

A

Yes, as long as all reasonable saftey precautions are taken AND you have permission form the land owner

85
Q

When must lifejackets be carried?

A

Need to check. For me in my aircarft - anytime we are outside of gliding distance of land.

86
Q

When must a flight plan be filed?

A

There is not a requirement to file a flight plan for VFR. Therefore the Club SOPs apply.

87
Q

Can an aircraft perform an orbit in the circuit at Ardmore?

A

No.

88
Q

What is the VFR MET minima in class G by day?

A

IC5 and 1,2,5. Under 3,000ft 5KM vis and clear of cloud and see ground. Over 3,000 ft. 1,000 vertifcal, 2 KM horizontal, 5KM vis.

89
Q

Does this change at night?

A

No

90
Q

What is the VFR MET minima for take-off at an uncontrolled aerodrome by day?

A

600ft

91
Q

Can a flight be conducted at Ardmore under uncontrolled aerodrome minimum VFR conditions? ( 600ft ceiling )

A

No. There is high min due to helicopters

92
Q

Can a flight be conducted during conditions of TEMPO 4000 SHRA?

A

No. This is indicating 4KM vis

93
Q

What is the VFR MET minima at a controlled aerodrome?

A

1500ft ceiling
5km Visibility

94
Q

What is Special VFR?

A

Within a controlled airspace, the ceiling can be 600 ft with 1,5km vis

95
Q

What must be done to obtain Special VFR?

A

Radio or telephone the control

96
Q

What is the correction for a wet runway?

A

It’s in AC91
Landing - 115% of LDR
Take-off - nothing specific.

97
Q

Where are the surface correction factors found?

A

Either the POH OR CAA website, in part 91

98
Q

Should there be a margin added to calculated distances for take-off and landing, or is there enough margin “built in”?

A

Personal minimum margins should be added, depending on pilot expereince, and specifics of the aerodrome.

99
Q

What is the group rating system?

A

A way of grouping runways and aircraft..

100
Q

How does the group rating work?

A

In theory if the aircraft group is lower that runway group - then landing/take-off calcs are not required

101
Q

What must be done if the group rating does not allow a take-off or landing?

A

Landing and/or take-off calculations

102
Q

What benefit is gained through calculation of the ground roll component of TODR and LDR?

A

To provide the lenght where we should identify abort or go-around points.

103
Q

What is a SIGMET?

A

Signicant metorolical event.

104
Q

How long is a SIGMET valid for?

A

It’s on the chart.

105
Q

When are SIGMETs revised?

A

As required or hourly
Valid for 4 hours from time of issue
6 hours for hurricanes/cyclones

106
Q

Which forecasts and reports give wind in °T, and which give wind in °M?

A

Most give in True. The ATIS or AWIB over the radio is in M

107
Q

What is implied by the abbreviations CB and TCU?

A

Cumlonimubs and Towering Cumlino nimbus

108
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aera Forecast. A forcast for the aerodrome.

109
Q

Define TEMPO

A

Temporary conditions

110
Q

What happens between two TEMPOs?

A

The main information in the TAF

111
Q

What is a METAR?

A

Current conditions at the aerodrome.

112
Q

What is an AUTO METAR?

A

The Metar is automatically updated without a human.

113
Q

In an AUTO METAR what does /// mean?

A

Cloud is detected ( unable to determine TCU/CB )

114
Q

Decode this - NEW FAC OPR AD BCN ALTN FLG G/W 2.5 SEC

A

New Beacon, operating. Flashing at 2.5 per second

115
Q

What is the difference between A and B NOTAM?

A

A is national only, B is national and international

116
Q

What does A1012/18 mean?

A

The Notam. This is number 1012 in 2018

117
Q

Are NOTAM in local time or UTC?

A

UTC

118
Q

What does EST mean in a validity period?

A

Estimated

119
Q

What is the difference between Aerodrome, Enroute and Navigational Warning NOTAM?

A

Aerodrome - applies to operations with the boundaries. Enroute applies outside of the Aerodrome.
Navigation warning is about navaids or temporary airspace changes

120
Q

Is there a way to ascertain if there are no NOTAM for a particular airfield?

A

Yes. Look at Go Preflight. Specifically the briefing functionality

121
Q

What are the five documents you must carry on every flight?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Flight Manual,tech log,Weight and balance info ( CAA 2173), Aircraft Radio Equipment ( CAA 2129)

122
Q

What is a Tech Log?

A

Log of technical aspects. Specifically the hours the aircraft has flown, the dates of upcoming inspections and any records and observed issues ( such as INOP )

123
Q

Can the aircraft be flown beyond the date or hours of the next check?

A

Only for the purposes of performing the check.
No passengers.

124
Q

How can an issue in the tech log be cleared?

A

By the operator or mechanic

125
Q

What is the Certificate of Airworthiness?

A

Cerifiicate from the CAA stating the aircraft is airwothy

126
Q

Does the airworthiness expire?

A

They do not expire

127
Q

What is the CAA2173 Weight & Balance form?

A

Contains the weight of the aircraft and the datum for the ARMs

128
Q

How is this information established?

A

By an authorised engineer

129
Q

What is the CAA2129 Radio Approvals form?

A

The radio equipment installed, including the installation date, type.

130
Q

What the radio documentation tell us?

A

Tells the pilot if the radio equipment complies with Level 1 or Level 2. It’s our way of knowing

131
Q

What is the difference between level 1and 2 for radio equipment?

A

Level 1 - IFR, Level 2 - VFR

132
Q

What is the MCTOW?

A

Maximum Certifed Take-off Weight

133
Q

Can the aircraft ever weigh more than the MCTOW this?

A

Yes. For example we may burn some fuel during taxi.

134
Q

What is the MLW?

A

Maximum Landing weight.
In the 172, it’s the same as the MCTOW

135
Q

What is utility category? (C-172)

A

Is the part of the weight and balance where the aircraft is usually lighter and the CG is forward.

136
Q

Does utility category confer any advantage to flight operations?

A

In utility the allowable g forces are higher.

137
Q

Are there any limits to utility category?

A

Yes. No persons or baggage in the back.

138
Q

What are the published stall speeds?

A

Flaps up and flaps down. Both are at Max Weight

139
Q

What is VNO?

A

Normal Operating

140
Q

What is VA?

A

Max Manovouring speed. Below this, the aircraft will stall before damage occurs. It varies based on factors such as weight.

141
Q

What is VNE?

A

Never Exceed

142
Q

What is the maximum window open speed?

A

163 kts

143
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component?

A

15kts

144
Q

Is maximum demonstrated crosswind a limitation?

A

No. However when it comes to crosswind, the bigger limitation is pilot skills

145
Q

Where is the alternate air intake?

A

On the side of the cowling.
It will open automatically if needed on the c172

146
Q

How does the alternative air operate?

A

The alternatve air intake uses unfiltered and unheated air. It will open automatically - using suction from the the engine.

147
Q

Where is the alternator?

A

Attached to the engine

148
Q

What does the alternator do?

A

Charges the batteries, run the electical system

149
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

Electrically

150
Q

How many flap motors? (C-172)

A

One The only POH refernce I could find was it said ‘The Flap Motor’ in the section on electrical failures

151
Q

How do you squawk IDENT?

A

Press the Ident button.

152
Q

What is the maximum oil capacity?

A

8 Quarts

153
Q

Is this the total the system holds?

A

No. This is just the measure at the dip stick ( according to the Flight Manual )

154
Q

What grade of oil is used?

A

Aeroshell W100

AKA SAE 50

155
Q

What is the planned fuel burn rate?

A

40 lts per hour

156
Q

Where did the fuel burn of 40lts ( 10gals ) per hour come from?

A

Flight manual.

157
Q

What is the maximum fuel capacity?

A

210 liters

158
Q

Is this max fuel capacity total or useable?

A

Total

159
Q

How much fuel is unusable?

A

10 liters

160
Q

How many fuel drains are there in a C-172S

A

5 per wing and 3 underneath

161
Q

What are the under-fuselage drains connected to?

A

The fuel drains are connected to
- fuel strainer
- fuel reservoir
- fuel selector:

Note. The pre-flight says only do all three if the fuel strainer show contaminants .

162
Q

Where is the transponder antenna?

A

Under the aircraft

163
Q

Where is the outside air temperature probe?

A

Underside of the wing

164
Q

What is shown on the annunciator panel?

A

L Low Fuel R
L Vac R
Oil Press
Volts

165
Q

When does the low voltage light come on?

A

When volts drop below 24.5 volts

166
Q

Is there any means of over-voltage protection?

A

Yes.

167
Q

Describe the procedure to change transponder code

A

Put the transponder into STBY, change the code, put back in ALT

168
Q

Describe the procedure to transmit on one radio, whilst listening to the second radio as well

A

Com1 and Com 2. Mic on Com 1

169
Q

Describe the priming procedure

A

fuel pump on until the fuel Flow moves. No longer than 5 seconds

170
Q

When would the hot-start procedure be implemented?

A

When the engine has been used recently. This can be judged by looking at the oil temp when the master is turned on.

171
Q

What may be the connotations of rising oil temperature?

A

Could be either oil leak, oil blockage or gauge failure. Cross check with Oil pressure. I personally would start diversion.

172
Q

What is the engine fire during start procedure?

A

Continue Cranking. If started, run for a few minutes and shut down. If does not start. Fuel Out, Mixture Cutoff Throttle out.

173
Q

What is the engine fire in flight procedure?

A

Fuel out, Mixutre out, throuttle out, ignition off. Dive plane to put out fire if needed.

174
Q

What is the ditching procedure?

A

Throw out bagge if possible. Brace postion. Land into wind, if not swells, land parallel if swelll, tail first to avoid flipping over. Leave plane

175
Q

What is the brace position in this aircraft?

A

Seats fully upright, seat belts tighened. Coat on the dash if available.

176
Q

With the Stall Speed - what are the conditions used for this ( not flaps, other things )

A

Power Idle, Max Weight

NZ PPL General (8 decks)

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