Power Plant Flashcards

1
Q

Aircraft fitted with:

A

– two Pratt & Whitney PW 127 M

– two, six blades propellers (Hamilton)

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2
Q

LOW PRESSURE and HIGH PRESSURE COMPRESSORS are the … type

A

Centrifugal

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3
Q

LOW PRESSURE and HIGH PRESSURE TURBINES are the … type

A

Axial

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4
Q

FF is electronically controlled by a stepper motor located on the … and is managed by the …

A
  • HMU/ EEC
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5
Q

REDUCTION GEAR BOX

These equipments are fitted on the RGB:

A
  • the ACW generator
  • the Propeller Valve Module (PVM) controlled by the PEC
  • the propeller pump (HP) and overspeed
    governor
  • the auxiliary feathering pump
  • the propeller brake (on RH engine only)
  • FCOC
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6
Q

ACCESSORY GEAR BOX (located at the top of the engine) driven by the HP spool, drives the:

A
  • the DC starter/generator
  • the HP fuel pump
  • the engine oil pumps
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7
Q

The COMBUSTION CHAMBER is the … type

A

ANNULAR

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8
Q

RTO (Reserve Take Off) (maximum power), used in case of an engine flame out during take off (up trim) or in case of go-around (ramp)

A

2750 SHP

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9
Q

MCT (Maximum continuous)

A

2500 SHP

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10
Q

TO (Take Off 0,9 RTO)

A

2475 SHP

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11
Q

Climb

A

2192 SHP

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12
Q

Cruise

A

2132 SHP

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13
Q

Power (PWR) =

A

Torque (TQ) x NP

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14
Q

Power setting is characterized by constant …

A

Power lever (PL) and condition lever (CL) positions.

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15
Q

The EEC (Engine Electronic Control) controls the …

A

Fuel flow to the engine, with input coming from the PWR MGT and the position of the PL.

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16
Q

PL’s to the WALL, TQ up to …

A

115%

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17
Q

PL’s to the RAMP, TQ up to …

A

100%

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18
Q

The PEC (Propeller Engine Control) controls the … using input from …

A

NP (propeller speed) by changing the blades angle / the PWR MGT and the position of the CL

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19
Q

CL on 100% OVRD the NP is at …

A

100%, regardless of the PWR MGT position

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20
Q

With the CL’s in the AUTO position …

A
  • Blade angle governing mode. The NP is regulated by the PEC (Blade angle change).
  • PWR MGT in:
    TO → NP = 100%
    MCT → NP = 100%
    CLB → NP = 82%
    CRZ → NP = 82%
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21
Q

On FTR (Feather position) the fuel governing mode is …

A

cancelled (No ACW generator)

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22
Q

TQ values:

  • RTO
  • TO
  • MCT
A
  • RTO = 100%
  • TO = 90%
  • MCT = 90.9%
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23
Q

TORQUE ind. (DC EMER)

A

2 probes located on the reduction gear box shafts
sends signal to the AFU (Auto Feathering Unit) and to
the EEC (Engine Electronic Control) which supply the
torque indicator.
The AFU controls the pointer and the EEC controls the
digital display.

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24
Q

NP ind.

A

DC ESS from 0 to 120%

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25
Q

ITT ind.

A
(DC ESS) from 0 to 1200°C
Red point: 20’’ max
Red point + S: 5’’max on start
H: limite for hotel mode
operation
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26
Q

ITT ind. ALERT

A

ALERT
When ITT > 800°C or 715°C
in hotel mode Lt CAP

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27
Q

OIL LOW PRESS Lt

A

40 PSI

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28
Q

CRANK means …

A

dry motoring (no ignition)

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29
Q

STARTER - ON

A

Starter engaged. At 45% NH, light goes off and the starter is disconnected

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30
Q

STARTER - FAULT

A
Illuminates when:
- remains ON with NH >45% or
- GCU failure during start or 
- starter failure or 
- ENG 2 only: ENG START selector on start position
\+ PROP BRK ON + GUST lock not engaged
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31
Q

MAN IGN ON

A
Continuous ignition (both A and B exciters). 
Memo panel light.
32
Q

PROP BREAK READY

A

engagement or disengagement conditions are met:
– A/C on ground
– gust lock engaged
– CL on FTR or FUEL S/O
– blue hyd press available on the prop brake input >2100psi
– Fire handle not pulled

33
Q

PROP BRAKE UNLOCK

A
PROP BRAKE not fully locked or not fully released.
Alarm after 15 sec. 
Also used to check lock/unlock time:
– 5 sec. to unlock
– 10 sec. to lock
34
Q

START A OR B

A
  • On ground, only exciter A or B is supllied (except for the position A and B)
  • In flight regardless of start selection (A, B or A+B) both
    exciters are energized
35
Q

ATPCS

A

– ARM on ground = uptrim + auto FTR (2.15’’ delay)

– ARM in flight (In case of go around) = auto FTR only

36
Q

LO PITCH ..

A

< 8 deg blade angle

37
Q

UP TRIM

A

signal sent to respective eng during ATPCS sequence.

Eng power = RTO

38
Q

ATPCS TRIGGER

A
  • one TQ below 18%

Cancel: PWR MGT out of TO or ATPCS pb OFF or at least one PL retarded below 49° or both TQ

39
Q

EEC FAULT flashing

A

EEC failure. The fuel flow is frozen to maintain the power

  • FAULT steady: EEC failure, HMU base law = reversion
  • FAULT flashing, never deselect the EEC. Retard first, the PL in the green sector (FAULT become steady: PL
40
Q

PEC SGL CH illuminates when …

A

one channel is lost (2’’ for self test when advancing CL from FTR to AUTO)

41
Q

PEC FAULT illuminates when …

A

both PEC channels are lost. CAP

42
Q

PEC OFF

A

PEC is deactivated and NP is limited at 102,5% if power is sufficient

43
Q

IDLE GATE FAIL light illuminates amber

A

does not engage automatically in flight or does not retract at landing

44
Q

The propeller pitch is controlled by the …

A
  • PVM (Propeller Valve Module)

- Overspeed Governor

45
Q

PLs control the … through the …

A

FF / HMU

46
Q

CLs control the …

A

HMU HP fuel shut-off valve and propeller rotation speed

47
Q

ATPCS …

A

Automatic Take-off Power Control System

48
Q

In case of engine flame-out at TO, the ATPCS …

A

Uptrims the live engine by 10%, and autofeathers the dead one (the system is fully available at TO)

49
Q

In landing the ATPCS is partially available … , provided that …

A
  • Autofeather only

- PWR MGT is set on TO

50
Q

BOOST function …

A

Provides a power increase by increasing the engine thermal limit in TO and MCTsince mechanical limit remains the same

51
Q

The power increase from the BOOST function is … in TO and … in MCT

A
  • 4.5% up to 4000 FT and 4% above 4000 FT

- 4%

52
Q

Besides the additional power delivered, the BOOST function can also …

A

Increase the Drift Down performance when en-route obstacles exist

53
Q

Number of fuel nozzles …

A

14

54
Q

The speed reduction in the RGB is obtained in … stages

A

2

55
Q

EEC regulates a given … , by contolling the stepper motor, to obtain a predicted TQ as a function of …

A
  • PLs
  • PWR MGT selection
  • Flight conditions
  • Position of the Bleed Valves
56
Q

EEC ensures …

A

Minimum propeller speed, on ground and at low power

57
Q

In case of an engine flame-out at TO, the EEC delivers …. by responding to the signal generated by the …

A
  • Up-trim on the live engine

- AFU (Auto-Feather Unit) on the failed engine

58
Q

It controls the opening of the … so as to ensure correct LP compressor operation

A

HBV (Handling Bleed Valve)

59
Q

HMU has 2 functions :

A
  • Meter the FF delivered to the engine

- Supply the Engine Feed Jet Pump

60
Q

FCOC (Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler) provides cooling of the …

A

RGB lubricating oil, by using fuel as a cooling source

61
Q

Oil tank capacity …

A

14.4 L

62
Q

Pressure and temperature probes for the oil are located on the …

A

AGB

63
Q

The igniter plugs are situated at … o’clock in the combustion chamber

A

4 and 8

64
Q

In-flight start uses (exciters) …

A

Bot A+B, regardless of the selection

65
Q

In case of NH drop below 60% …

A

Both exciters A+B are automatically activated, except when :

  • NH < 30%
  • EEC is OFF
  • CL is on FTR or FSO
  • on the failed engine in case of the ATPCS sequence
66
Q

PVM is … and does …

A
  • Propeller Valve Module

- Blade angle and speed governing controls

67
Q

PEC is … and does …

A
  • Propeller Engine Control

- Dual channel electronic box which provides close loop control over the propeller pitch change system

68
Q

Propeller speed is calculated by the PEC via …

A

The EEC (altitude/airspeed) and NP sensors

69
Q

TO INHIB activates when the PL are at or above … and inhibits …

A
  • Notch

- All Oil and Smoke alerts

70
Q

PIU …

A

Propeller Interface Unit

Is located in the cockpit and is the interface between the cockpit and the PEC

71
Q

At start, on the ITT indicator a red … appears, meaning … DEG

A
  • “S” (ITT upper limit)

- 950 DEG

72
Q

In Hotel Mode, on the ITT indicator a red … appears, meaning … DEG

A
  • “H”

- 715 DEG

73
Q

Maximum propeller RPM …

A

1200

74
Q

Maximum HP compressor RPM (NH) …

A

3300

75
Q

During start, when NH reaches … % the DC starter disconnects.
Between … % and … % there is a cooling period.
After … % the DC generator starts

A
  • 45%
  • 45-61.5%
  • 61.5%
76
Q

During a cross-start, the active DC GEN assists between … % and … %

A
  • 10-45%
77
Q

ERIU …

A

Engine Rating Interface Unit