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Cognitive Module Exam > POW Test 2 > Flashcards

POW Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Performance appraisal

A

Measurement of employee performance based on pre- established criteria, and communication of this information to the employee.

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2
Q

For what reasons are performance appraisals conducted?

A

Developmental reasons, administrative reasons, research purposes, and legal reasons

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3
Q

Trait appraisals

A

Appraisals which focus on measuring employee characteristics such as reliability, honesty, punctuality, or friendliness

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4
Q

Behavioral appraisals

A

Appraisals that measure the frequency with which specific observable work behaviors occur.

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5
Q

Outcome appraisals

A

Appraisals which focus on quantitative metrics such as sales figures, number of units produced, or number of mistakes.

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6
Q

Absolute appraisals

A

Appraisals that compare one’s performance to pre-established criteria.

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7
Q

Relative appraisals

A

Appraisals that compare one’s performance to other ratees’ performance.

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8
Q

Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)

A

A performance appraisal format that identifies the most important aspects of a job and includes behavioral descriptions of high, average, and low levels of performance for each aspect.

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9
Q

Behavioral observation scale (BOS)

A

A hybrid of BARS and graphic rating scale, this appraisal format asks raters to describe
the frequency with which each behavior takes place.

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10
Q

Forced distribution

A

A relative appraisal format where there are restrictions on what percentage of employees can be placed in the top, middle, and bottom categories

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11
Q

360-degree appraisal

A

A performance appraisal system where data are collected from multiple raters at all levels, including managers, peers, subordinates, and customers.

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12
Q

Who can be the rater in performance appraisals?

A

Managers, peers, customers, subordinates, and self

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13
Q

Leniency error

A

A type of distribution error in which the rater gives all ratees a very high rating without distinguishing among them.

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14
Q

Strictness

A

A type of distribution error in which the rater gives all ratees a low rating without distinguishing among them.

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15
Q

Central tendency error

A

A type of distribution error in which the rater gives all ratees a medium rating without distinguishing among them.

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16
Q

Contrast error

A

A rater error where a person
is rated higher or
lower than warranted because the person’s performance is higher or lower than their peers’.

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17
Q

Halo effect

A

A rating error where the ratee’s overall impression in the eyes of the rater drives the performance score, regardless of the questions being asked.

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18
Q

Recency error

A

A rater error where events that occurred in the recent past have undue influence over the performance appraisal compared to events that occurred in the more distant past.

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19
Q

Training needs assessment

A

The process by which an organization identifies the key factors in the organization that will support the training program, what needs to be trained, and who needs the training.

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20
Q

Organizational analysis

A

Includes the identification of a broad set of organizational issues that can help or hinder the effectiveness of a training program

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21
Q

Transfer of training

A

The degree to which training leads to improvements in on- the-job behavior.

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22
Q

Learning self-efficacy

A

A person’s belief that they can master the training material.

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23
Q

Meta-cognitive
skills

A

s to step back and assess their own learning and mastery of the material.

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24
Q

Transfer through principles

A

Training employees to understand why they should perform their job in a certain way and the underlying principles behind what they do on the job.

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25
Q

Transfer climate

A

The degree to which the social climate among employees back in the work situation supports training

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26
Q

Onboarding

A

A process through which employees become familiar with both the task and social demands of their new roles.

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27
Q

Measures of training effectiveness

A

Reactions (focused on how trainees perceive the training), learning, behavior (did the training lead to changes in on-the-job behavior?), results (did the training lead to a change in organizational performance?)

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28
Q

Threats to experimental validity

A

Factors which may affect our ability to interpret results of a study such as a training evaluation.

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29
Q

Threats to internal validity

A

Factors that can cause us to have concerns with the accuracy of results obtained in this situation.

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30
Q

What are the threats to internal validity?

A

history, maturation, testing, statistical regression to the mean, differential selection of participants, experimental morality, compensatory equalization of treatments…

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31
Q

Threats to external validity

A

Threats that cause us to have concerns about whether the results obtained in a particular training evaluation will generalize to other settings. EX - reactive effects of pretesting or of the experimental setting (trying harder in a study when you know your in it)

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32
Q

Experimental rigor

A

The degree to which threats to validity can be eliminated as the cause of a study’s results. Rigor can be increased by the use of control groups, random assignment, and the use of pretests.

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33
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Motivation that
comes from inside the individual such that they are engaging in behavior because it is personally rewarding to them.

34
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Motivation originating from outside the individual.

35
Q

Hierarchy of needs

A

Abraham Maslow’s 1943 theory that our actions are motivated by our quest to fulfill five basic human needs:
1. Physiological: food, water air
2. Safety/security: safe housing, steady employment, healthcare
3. Social: friendship and romantic attachments
4. Ego/esteem: social recognition and accomplishment
5. Self-actualization: self-awareness and personal growth

36
Q

ERG theory

A

individuals have three core needs: existence, relatedness, and growth.

37
Q

Two-factor theory

A

Frederick Herzberg’s theory (also known as the motivator- hygiene theory) of job satisfaction, which differentiated between hygiene and motivator factors.

38
Q

Hygiene factors

A

Two- factor theory elements which do not motivate but may serve to lower motivation if not met.

39
Q

Motivation factors

A

Two- factor theory elements which motivate employees if they are present.

40
Q

Equity theory

A

The comparison that individuals make to determine if what
they are receiving is fair compared to the amount they are giving.

41
Q

Benevolent’s

A

Those who are comfortable giving more inputs than the outcomes they receive.

42
Q

Equity sensitives

A

those who prefer an equal ratio of inputs and outcomes.

43
Q

Entitleds

A

Those who prefer receiving more in outcomes than they input.

44
Q

Justice

A

How fair an employee believes the employer is to its employees.

45
Q

Expectancy Theory

A

Theory made up of three core components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Expectancy(E) represents the extent to which individuals believe that their efforts will lead to their desired performance; Instrumentality
(I) reflects whether individuals expect their performance to lead to an outcome or reward; and valence (V) defines the value that a person places on that reward.

46
Q

SMART goals

A

Acronym for the five key components of effective goal-setting theory. Goals should be Specific, Measurable, Attainable (Aggressive but Achievable), Relevant, and Time- Bound.

47
Q

Job characteristics theory

A

Proposes five core job characteristics: skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

48
Q

Task identity

A

How well an employee can associate his or her assigned task with the job’s ultimate outcome.

49
Q

Motivating Potential Score

A

Skill variety +task significance + task identity/3 x autonomy x feedback

50
Q

Job rotation

A

The policy of employees performing one of several assigned job tasks, with responsibility for performing a certain set of job tasks rotating on a set schedule, such as monthly.

51
Q

Job enlargement

A

Expanding an employee’s duties and responsibilities to beyond those that he or she was previously performing.

52
Q

Job enrichment

A

Increasing the motivational potential of a job such as by increasing the level of authority and control the person has over the job.

53
Q

Leadership

A

The process of influencing the way others act, their perceptions, and how they view their environment through cooperation.

54
Q

Power

A

the ability to influence or control the behavior of others.

55
Q

leader emergence

A

Whether someone is perceived as a leader within the work group.

56
Q

Types of Power

A
  1. Coercive power
  2. Expert power
  3. Information power
  4. Legitimate power
  5. Referent power
  6. Reward power
57
Q

Coercive Power

A

The ability to use force to gain compliance from another.

58
Q

Expert power

A

The ability to use one’s unique and respected knowledge to influence another.

59
Q

Information power

A

The ability to use one’s unique knowledge.

60
Q

Legitimate power

A

Power that comes from being elected, selected, or appointed to a position of authority.

61
Q

Referent power

A

Power that comes from possessing positive affect and liking.

62
Q

Reward power

A

Power that is the use of the right to offer desired incentives.

63
Q

Leader effectiveness

A

What the leader actually accomplishes

64
Q

Trait approach to leadership

A

The approach of identifying a limited number of traits that would predict leadership emergence and effectiveness.

65
Q

Implicit leadership theories

A

The prototypes of leaders we have in our minds.

66
Q

Glass ceiling

A

A discriminatory barrier that prevents women from advancing to senior management.

67
Q

Glass cliff

A

Refers to the notion that women are overrepresented in top leadership positions that are risky and fragile, such as taking on the CEO role of a company about to go bankrupt.

68
Q

Behavioral approach to leadership

A

The leadership approach that attempted to identify the behaviors that distinguished between effective and ineffective leaders.

69
Q

Initiating structure

A

Task-oriented behaviors leaders display, such as clarifying roles, ensuring that employees perform up to standards, and communicating standards of performance.

70
Q

consideration

A

Relational behaviors leaders engage in, including looking out for the well-being of members, being approachable, and being a good listener.

71
Q

Contingency approach to leadership

A

Theories that specify the situational factors affecting when different leadership behaviors and styles are more appropriate.

72
Q

Leadership (House & Mitchell 1974)

A
  • directive leadership, or clarifying role expectations and coordinating work (akin to initiating structure)
  • supportive leadership, or providing a friendly and communicative atmos- phere (equivalent to consideration behaviors we discussed earlier)
  • participative leadership, which involves consulting with employees and involving them in decision-making, and
  • achievement-oriented leadership, involving setting goals for subordinates and motivating them to meet challenging goals.
73
Q

Transformational Leadership

A

Leadership that is characterized
by four distinct behaviors: idealized influence (also known as charisma), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

74
Q

Transactional leaders

A

Leaders who demonstrate contingent reward, active management by exception, passive management by exception, and laissez- faire leadership styles.

75
Q

High quality LMX relationships

A

The relation between the leader and employee is characterized by high levels of trust, mutual liking, professional respect, and mutual felt obligation not to let each other down.

76
Q

Low quality LMX relationships

A

The relationship between the leader and employee is characterized by lower levels of liking, loyalty, and respect.

77
Q

What quadrant represents true negatives

A

B

78
Q

What quadrant represents true positives

A

A

79
Q

What quadrant represents false negatives

A

C

80
Q

What quadrant represents false positives

A

D

Cognitive Module Exam (9 decks)

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