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Large Animal > Poultry > Flashcards

Poultry Flashcards

1
Q

poultry class

A

aves
includes chickens, ducks, turkeys, geese, ratites, game birds like squab (pigeon) and pheasant

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2
Q

chicken species

A

gallus domesticus
main ancestor of domesticated chicken is red jungle fowl in East Asia/India but was originally for rooster fighting

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3
Q

gallus domesticus cock fighting and obesity gene

A

selective breeding —> larger and hardier males for fighting and breeding but through genetics we found the gene related to obesity which are now our “broilers” (breeds that are plump and meaty) and created a mutation disabling a thyroid regulating gene which enables chickens to breed/lay eggs all year long: called layers since these breeds are raised to produce lots of eggs
in wild animals this gene coordinates reproduction with day length

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4
Q

chick

A

newborn

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5
Q

pullet

A

young, immature female chicken <5-6 months

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6
Q

hen

A

mature female chicken

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7
Q

cockerel

A

immature male

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8
Q

rooster

A

mature male chicken

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9
Q

capon

A

castrated male chicken

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10
Q

Rhode island reds

A

breed used for eggs and meat

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11
Q

Plymouth rocks

A

breed used for dual purpose

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12
Q

Polish

A

breeds that is a good white egg layer
has become better known as an ornamental breed often referred to as “king of all poultry”

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13
Q

Brahma

A

breed that has great size, strength, and hardiness
distinguished by feather feet and produce brown eggs

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14
Q

foie gras

A

fatty liver
food product traditionally produced using geese but now more commonly is produced using ducks

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15
Q

tomium

A

geese have
hard, spiky cartilage
looks and functions the same way as a row of teeth but it’s a growth made from the beak itself
doesn’t have enamel

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16
Q

Muscovy duck

A

descended from wild mallard duck and most commonly used for foie gras

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17
Q

steatosis

A

fatty infiltration
can be produced to a much greater degree in some domestic duck breeds (those with the capacity to secrete hepatic lipids) by feeding maximal amounts of a high carbohydrate diet

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18
Q

how is steatosis produced

A

drakes or males are raised in barns until plumage develops and are provided a period of free access to food such as outdoor grazing and then held in pens and force fed for a final fattening period of 173-304 days

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19
Q

why is force feeding necessary in producing steatosis?

A

force feeding is necessary to produce the size and fat content that makes a liver “foie gras”

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20
Q

cons of force feeding

A

degree of discomfort experienced during and after while esophagus is distended remains unclear, but capture/restraint is stressful and rapid insertions of feeding tube provide injury opportunities, there is an indication of inflammation of esophagus in later stages of force feeding

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21
Q

caruncles

A

fleshy attachments on the head that take various forms
comb on the head is a type of caruncle as is the wattle or dewlap

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22
Q

what do turkeys have that females usually don’t?

A

a snood
if females have one, it will be larger on the males
snood engorges with blood to attract a female

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23
Q

ideal henhouse

A

easily cleaned, provides shelter from elements, protects its occupants from predators and rodents, shavings cleaned at least once a week, nesting boxes kept in dark warm areas for layers

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24
Q

chickens are __________ during the day and ___________ at night

A

ground-dwelling, perch

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25
Q

sunlight required for chickens

A

they require full-spectrum natural sunlight for vitamin D/overall health, should have outdoor run by need ready access to cool, shady areas to avoid overheating
during the day chickens should be confined to a fenced yard or run

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26
Q

chicken nutrition

A

crumble or pelleted diet formulated to meet nutritional needs and are typically fed ad libitum
chicks should eat chick starter/grower diet until 20 weeks old which is higher in protein and fat than feeds made for adults
amprolium = coccidiostat often included in chick starter

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27
Q

what nutritional requirements do layers have?

A

they have high requirements for calcium, protein, and vitamins
should be fed a laying diet
if laying pitted or thin-shelled eggs even on a laying diet, you can supplement their feed with crushed oyster shell

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28
Q

chicken scratch

A

mixture of grains and corn to feed to chickens
doesn’t contain protein, calcium, and vitamins which are needed by chickens to stay healthy
should use as treat only

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29
Q

treats for chickens

A

corn, bananas, tomatoes, leafy greens

30
Q

what type of egg is laid by a hen without mating?

A

infertile eggs

31
Q

when do hens start laying eggs?

A

healthy young hen starts at ~21 weeks old and lay at ~24 hour intervals

32
Q

what process is done to incubated eggs to check if they’re fertile?

A

candling: done in a dark room with egg held before a light, light penetrates egg and makes it possible to observe inside
also done to determine condition of air cell, yolk, and egg white
white eggs tested for fertility on 3rd day of incubation and brown eggs tested on 5-6th day
embryo looks like a small reddish area with blood vessels extending away from it- seen in fertile eggs

33
Q

what does it look like when you are candling and see a dead embryo?

A

the blood draws away from the embryo and forms a blood ring
remove clear eggs or eggs with blood rings from incubator

34
Q

restraint

A

holding for exam: reach over back and hold wings down, pick bird up and insert your fingers between the legs holding them firmly while supporting breastbone with other hand
restraining upside down may increase stress and cause regurgitation and possible subsequent aspiration pneumonia

35
Q

rooster spurs

A

can cause serious damage when they fight or mount
can buy saddles to put on hens to protect them but can also trim spurs with saw or dremel (dremel preferred)
no more than 1/3 of the spur should be removed so bird doesn’t bleed out and then file down sharp edges

36
Q

is permanent spur removal possible?

A

yes but not recommended since it can be very painful and bloody

37
Q

PE: general appearance

A

healthy bird is bright, alert, responsive to environment and interacting with flock

38
Q

PE: comb and wattles

A

bright and red
pale color= possible anemia/blood loss
comb should be nice and turgid (not flaccid)
shrunken dry comb= dehydration
also look for fowl pox lesions on comb (black crusting scabs)
comb and wattle prone to frostbite

39
Q

PE: eyes

A

clear and no d/c
crusting of skin/feathers surrounding eye in conjunction with “bubbles” in the corners of the eye indicate URI

40
Q

choanal cleft

A

directly connects nasal passages to the oral cavity
ideal spot for sampling of respiratory bacteria and viruses
small papillae lining choanal cleft should come to sharp points; blunted= vitamin A deficiency

41
Q

PE: oral cavity

A

perform thorough oral exam to rule out mouth ulcers and fungal infections

42
Q

PE: muscle tone

A

palpation of breast muscles on either side of keel determines muscle tone
palpate with hand in a “v” shape to feel both sides at the same time
muscles should be full and firm
different breeds have different breast muscling

43
Q

normal vitals

A

HR: upper 200s (count 6 secs and add zero)
T: 105-109 F

44
Q

how much of their body weight can be taken in blood?

A

1% of the body weight
usually use brachial (wing) vein

45
Q

PE: crop

A

crop palpated for crop stasis

46
Q

PE: cloaca

A

cloacal mucosa should be shiny and pink; can use to evaluate CRT
feathers surrounding vent should be free of fecal material and pasting (indicator of diarrhea)

47
Q

PE: parasite check

A

metatarsal foot pad should be relatively flat and free of scabs/swelling/discoloration from mites and lice
black scab atop an area of swelling= sign of pododermatitis

48
Q

FLAWSS system

A

way of checking for non-infectious reasons of disease
F= feed quality
L= lighting
A= air quality and ventilation
W= water quality
S= space (feeders and drinkers)
S= sanitation

49
Q

internal parasites

A

look for stunted growth, enteritis, anemia, decreased egg production
prevention: rotate birds in yards/pens, deworm regularly, provide medicated feed with broad-spectrum dewormer, treat with appropriate dewormer

50
Q

which types of parasites is Piperazine dewormer effective against?

A

effective against roundworms and cecal worms

51
Q

which types of parasites is Fenbendazole dewormer effective against?

A

roundworms, cecal worms, and hair worms

52
Q

coccidia

A

9 species in chickens, 7 species in turkeys
almost always present but disease occurs only after ingestion of large amounts of sporulated oocysts by susceptible birds
clinically infected and recovered birds shed oocysts in droppings which can contaminate feed, dust, water, litter, soil
causes high mortality, bloody feces, pale combs and shanks, ruffled feathers, lack of appetite
tx: Amprolium- coccidiostat
continuous use of anticoccidial drugs promotes emergence of drug-resistant strains so vaccine program is becoming better preventative method

53
Q

poultry lice

A

spends entire life feeding and climbing around skin and feathers
chewing mouthparts used to feed on skin, scales, scabs, and feathers

54
Q

northern fowl mite (NFM) and chicken mite (CM)

A

aka red mite or roost mite
blood feeders
large numbers irritates and stresses birds making them more susceptible to anemia, disease, and decreased egg production
fowl mite causes blackened feathers and scabs around vent

55
Q

scaly leg mite

A

knemidocoptes
invade scales on legs and feet resulting in hyperkeratosis and irritation
burrow into skin and spend life cycle (10-14 days) digging tunnels, eating skin, laying eggs, and leaving droppings
tx: over the counter tropical oil (vaseline, mineral oil, coconut oil) along with Ivermectin
Sevin: insecticide powder that’s often used for general mite/lice infestations; can use on floor, walls, and animals

56
Q

mycoplasma

A

bacterial respiratory condition
antibiotic therapy usually not successful and often leads to culling of flock
impacts turkeys more than chickens

57
Q

fowl cholera

A

bacterial respiratory condition
caused by Pasteurella multocida
transmitted through secretions from mouth, nose, and eyes that contaminate feed/water
causes respiratory signs including swollen sinuses
responds to antibiotics

58
Q

coryza

A

bacterial respiratory condition
caused by an Avibacterium previously known as Haemophilus
uncomplicated infections rarely cause mortality but there can be co-infections that cause mortality
once recovered birds become carriers and can periodically shed and be a source of infection for naive chickens

59
Q

fowl pox

A

viral respiratory condition
main vector: mosquitoes
can be airborne
dry form: raised, wart-like lesions that dry and fall off between 2-4 weeks, if scab removed before healing is complete the area will be raw and bloody, scabs are highly contagious
wet form: canker-like lesions in mouth, pharynx, larynx, and trachea; causes coughing and gasping, severe lesions can plug trachea and cause suffocation
prevention: reduce mosquitoes, vaccinate during mosquito season and separate out sick animals

60
Q

Asper

A

fungal condition
caused by mold (Aspergillus sp.)= ubiquitos organism that affects birds and humans
directly related to stress causing immunocompromise
tx: antifungals

61
Q

Asper CS

A

respiratory signs, silent gasping/gurgling sounds, changes of voice in parrots, CBC shows leukocytosis, endoscopic exam shows plaques
plaques can be localized to upper and lower respiratory problems or more broadly distributed systematically

62
Q

infectious bronchitis virus (IBV)

A

viral
coronavirus
highly contagious
characteristic sign during outbreak: small, soft-shelled, irregular-shaped eggs produced
usually all susceptible birds on premises being infected
no tx
prevention: vaccine for a few strains, live virus vaccine usually added to drinking water but can be administered by eye/nose drops or spray

63
Q

IBV CS

A

non-specific so need lab tests to confirm, dependent on strain
commonly include coughing, sneezing, gasping in young birds, feed intake decrease and growth retarded

64
Q

newcastle disease

A

contagious viral disease
considered 1 of the most important poultry diseases
can vary between mild to severe based on strain with less pathogenic strain used for vaccines —> highly pathogenic strain: VND/END, highly fatal
zoonotic
USDA resportable

65
Q

newcastle disease CS

A

depends on system affected but can include death, sneezing, gasping for air, nasal d/c and swelling, coughing, greenish watery diarrhea
characteristics of nervous system association: tremors, drooping wings, twisting of head and neck (torticollis), circling, complete stiffness

66
Q

newcastle disease and vitamin A

A

can provide vitamin A supplements or vitamin A rich foods to lessen the negative impact of the disease

67
Q

Marek’s disease

A

viral neurological disease
aka floppy broiler syndrome
type of avian cancer caused by a herpes virus
transmitted by infected dander
tumors in nerves cause lameness and paralysis; tumors can occur in eyes and cause irregular shaped pupils and blindness; tumors in organs cause incoordination, paleness, weak labored breathing; cutaneous skin tumors cause enlarged feather follicles
no tx but vaccines available

68
Q

Marek’s disease CS

A

inability to raise wings, partial paralysis, blindness, ataxia, emaciation

69
Q

avian influenza

A

viral condition
aka bird flu
chickens pick up the virus from other birds and it can mutate and become pathogenic since chickens are not the normal host
prevention: vaccine program in combo with strict quarantine
for lethal forms: strict quarantine and rapid culling is effective
highly pathogenic forms USDA reportable

70
Q

HPAI

A

high pathogenic avian influenza
highly pathogenic form
causes facial swelling, blue combs and wattles (cyanotic), dehydration, respiratory distress, blood-tinged nasal d/c
sudden exertion adds to total mortality

71
Q

LPAI

A

low pathogenicity avian influenza
causes respiratory signs, listlessness, loss of appetite, difficulty breathing, ruffled feathers, decreased egg production; can also be subclinical

Large Animal (15 decks)

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