Post Test Flashcards
A junction of roots of adjacent malposed teeth through cemental union is termed
A. Fusion
B. Gemination
C. Concrescence
D. Dilaceration
C. Concrescence
Although rare, most instances of true total anodontia are seen in males and are associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
C. Peutz-Jehgers syndrome
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
A large, double-crowned maxillary central incisor having a single root and canal is
probably the result of
A. Fusion
B. Dentinal dysplasia
C. Dens in dente
D. Taurodontism
E. None of the above
E. None of the above- GEMINATION
Damage of a developing permanent tooth germ by periapical infection in the overlying deciduous tooth could result in defective enamel when the permanent tooth erupts. Such a case would be referred to as
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Turner’s tooth
C. Hutchinson’s tooth
D. Paramolar
B. Turner’s tooth
Which of the following conditions affect both deciduous and permanent dentitions?
I. Amelogenesis imperfecta
II. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
III. Congenital syphilis
IV. Erythroblastosis fetalis
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. I and II
E. II and III
D. I and II
The more accepted terminology for pulp hyperemia
A. Focal irreversible pulpitis
B. Focal reversible pulpitis
C. Subtotal pulpitis
D. Pulpitis clausa
B. Focal reversible pulpitis
Pyogenic granuloma can be classified as a ______ disease
A. Neoplastic
B. Reactive
C. Infectious
D. Autoimmune
B. Reactive- reacts to plaque or trauma
Which of the following disease is capable of producing developmental alterations in teeth
A. Tetanus
B. Chickenpox
C. Diphtheria
D. Syphilis
D. Syphilis
The pain in trigeminal neuralgia is described as
A. Lancinating
B. Throbbing
C. Dull ache
D. Continuous
A. Lancinating- electric shock-like
What is the most frequent cause of osteomyelitis of the jaw
A. Dental infection
B. Trauma
C. Paget’s disease
D. Malnutririon
A. Dental infection
Nikolsky’s sign is positive in which of the following
A. Cicatricial pemphigoid
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus
D. Bullous lichen planus
C. Pemphigus
Ewing’s sarcoma most often presents radiographically as:
A. Multiple radiolucent/radiopaque lesion resembling “cotton ball” or “cotton wool” appearance
B. Multiple “punched out” radiolucencies
C. Ill-defined lytic lesion with an onion-skin parosteal reaction in the long bones
D. Ill-defined radiolucent lesion resembling “ground glass”
C. Ill-defined lytic lesion with an onion-skin parosteal reaction in the long bones
___________________ is the most common odontogenic tumor
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Pinborg tumor
C. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
D. Odontoma
D. Odontoma
The most common cause of an isolated acute ulceration of the oral mucosa is
A. Tuberculosis
B. Herpes simplex
C. Trauma
D. Diphtheria
C. Trauma
A tooth that is tender to percussion indicates that
A. The PDL is inflamed
B. The pulp is vital
C. The pulp is necrotic
D. Condensing osteitis is present
A. The PDL is inflamed
____________________ is least likely to produce any noticeable s/sx
A. Radicular cyst
B. Acute pulpitis
C. Periapical abscess
D. Ludwig’s angina
A. Radicular cyst
Hairy tongue is condition characterized by hypertrophy of the:
A. Filiform papillae
B. Fungiform papillae
C. Circumvallate papillae
D. Foliate papillae
A. Filiform papillae
Port wine stain is common component of
A. Osler weber-rendu
B. Kelly peterson
C. Sturge-weber
D. Klinefelter
C. Sturge-weber
Areas of amorphous, eosinophilic, amyloid like extracellular masses are typically seen in which
of the following lesions
A. SOT
B. Unicystic ameloblastoma
C. CEOT (Pinborg)
D. Odontoma
C. CEOT (Pinborg)
a 15-year-old patient presents to his physical because of localized pain in his right femur and rapidly enlarging swelling. A radiograph of the area shows a “sun-ray” appearance. Which is a likely diagnosis for this patient based on incidence?
A. Chondrosarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Scleroderma
D. Chronic osteomyelitis
B. Osteosarcoma
The clinical features of the primary form of which disease is classically described as “stones, bones, groans and moans”
A. Pagets disease
B. Hypophosphatasia
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
In type I dentin dysplasia, rods appear extremely short, and pulps are:
A. Normal
B. Somewhat smaller
C. Extremely large
D. Completely obliterated
D. Completely obliterated
Abnormal loss of tooth structure due to non-masticatory physical friction is referred to as:
A. Erosion
B. Abfraction
C. Attrition
D. Abrasion
D. Abrasion
Radiographic features of multiple teeth-like structure surrounded by a radiolucent zone are
diagnostic of
A. Complex odontoma
B. Odontoameloblastoma
C. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
D. Compound odontoma
D. Compound odontoma
Which autoimmune disease is associated with the increase in caries
A. Lupus erythematosus
B. Sjogren syndrome
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Crohn disease
B. Sjogren syndrome
Teeth develop from outbuddings of which of the following?
A. Ameloblasts
B. Cementoblasts
C. Dental lamina
D. Ondontoblasts
E. Periodontal ligament
C. Dental lamina
The stage of tooth development in which the physiological process of proliferation occurs and the enamel organ begins to form is called:
A. Bell stage
B. Appositional stage
C. Bud stage
D. Cap stage
E. Initiation
C. Bud stage
The dental pulp is a connective tissue that develops from the:
A. Enamel organ
B. Dental papilla
C. Dental sac
D. None of the above
B. Dental papilla
The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is essential to development of the root of a tooth because it
A. remains as an essential constituent of the periodontal ligament.
B. gives rise to cementoblasts that produce cementum of the root.
C. gives rise to odontoblasts that lay down dentin of the root.
D. molds the shape of the root and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts.
D. molds the shape of the root and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts.
The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between:
A. 1 to 2 months in utero
B. 2 to 3 months in utero
C. 4 to 6 months in utero
D. 8 to 9 months in utero
C. 4 to 6 months in utero
When do maxillary canines usually erupt in relation to maxillary first premolars?
A. Before
B. After
C. At about the same time
D. None of the above
B. After
When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelium is derived from
A. oral mucosa.
B. reduced enamel epithelium.
C. epithelial rests of Malassez.
D. the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)
B. reduced enamel epithelium.
Enamel consists of approximately:
A. 10% inorganic minerals, 70% organic minerals, and 20% water
B. 50% inorganic minerals, 45% organic minerals, and 5% water
C. 75% inorganic minerals, 15% organic minerals, and 10% water
D. 96% inorganic minerals, 1% organic minerals, and 3% water
D. 96% inorganic minerals, 1% organic minerals, and 3% water
Incremental lines of Retzius appear
A. as lines in the enamel running at right angles to the enamel surface.
B. as lines in the dentin running at right angles to the dentinanamel junction
C. in enamel and follow the appositional pattern.
D. in dentin and follow the appositional pattern.
C. in enamel and follow the appositional pattern
All of the following structures may be found in dentin EXCEPT
A. globular dentin.
B. the neonatal line.
C. striae of Retzius.
D. contour lines of Owen.
E. odontoblastic processes
C. striae of Retzius ❌(can be found on ENAMEL)
Which of the following is formed very rapidly in response to irritants?
A. Primary dentin
B. Secondary dentin
C. Reparative dentin
D. Sclerotic dentin
C. Reparative dentin
Which feature of cellular cementum best differentiates it from acellular cementum?
A. Lacunae
B. Embedded Sharpey ‘s fibers
C. An incremental growth pattern
D. Separate and distinct functions
A. Lacunae
The nerves in dental pulp are
A. afferent only.
B. sympathetic only.
C. parasympathetic only.
D. afferent and sympathetic.
E. afferent and parasympathetic.
D. afferent and sympathetic
The gingival area where nonkeratinized epithelium is most frequently seen and which, therefore, may be considered most vulnerable to inflammation is the
A. sulcular surface of the free gingiva.
B. attached gingiva.
C. palatal gingiva.
D. interdental papillae and the marginal gingiva
E. None of the above
A. sulcular surface of the free gingiva.
Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
a. Fibroclasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Macrophages
d. Cementoblasts
A. a, b and c
B. a and c only
C. b and d
D. d only
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
The periodontal ligament is made of large collagen fibers that course between the cementum and the alveolar bone. The portion of the principal fiber that is embedded into the
cementum is called a:
A. Cemental fiber
B. Sharpey’s fiber
C. Dentinal fiber
D. Gingival fiber
B. Sharpey’s fiber
Which of the following groups of collagen fibers specifically runs from the cementum apically over the alveolar crest of bone to the mucoperiosteum of the attached gingiva?
A. Alveolar-dental group
B. Circular fibers
C. Dentogingival group
D. Dentoperiosteal group
E. Transseptal group
D. Dentoperiosteal group
The tissues immediately adjacent to the periodontal ligament are
A. dentin and lamina dura.
B. cementum and alveolar bone.
C. gingiva and alveolar plate.
D. Nasmyth membrane and enamel.
E. the epithelial attachment and cortical bone.
B. cementum and alveolar bone.
The alveolar process can best be described as the portion of the mandible that
A. covers the roots of the teeth in both arches
B. is the insertion point of the temporalis muscle.
C. is the meeting point for the ramus and the body.
D. is the passageway for vessels in the lower teeth.
E. separates the condylar and coronoid processes.
A. covers the roots of the teeth in both arches
The most external layer of alveolar bone is the:
A. Spongy bone
B. Spicule bone
C. Cortical bone
D. Woven bone
E. Cribriform plate
C. Cortical bone
Which of the following soft tissue areas is NOT covered by masticatory mucosa?
A. Floor of mouth
B. Attached gingiva
C. Hard palate
D. Dorsal surface of tongu
A. Floor of mouth
Which structure is the central core and fills the bulk of the enamel organ?
A. outer enamel epithelium
B. inner enamel epithelium
C. stratum intermedium
D. stellate reticulum
D. stellate reticulum
A patient comes into your dental clinic holding a bag of ice to the side of his face and a sliver of ice tucked between his cheek and teeth. He says the cold relieves the pain in his tooth. This is almost indicative of partial necrosis of the structure which innervates the whole tooth. This structure is a connective tissue that develops from the:
A. enamel organ
B. dental papilla
C. epithelial rests of Malassez
D. dental sac
B. dental papilla
After the lEE differentiates into preameloblasts, the outer cells of the dental papilla are induced by the preameloblasts to differentiate into:
A. fibroblasts
B. osteoblasts
C. odontoblasts
D. cementoblasts
C. odontoblasts
Gemination and fusion occur during which stage of tooth development?
A. initiation
B. bud stage
C. cap stage
D. bell stage
E. appositional stage
C. cap stage
The dental lamina, a thickening of the oral epithelium that produces the swellings of the enamel organs, is first seen histologically around the:
A. second week in utero
B. sixth week in utero
C. tenth week in utero
D. fourth month in utero
B. sixth week in utero
Epithelial cells of the inner and outer epithelium proliferate from the cervical loop of the enamel organ to form a double layer of cells known as:
A. dental lamina
B. dental papilla
C. reduced enamel epithelium
D. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
D. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
Tooth development is dependent on a series of sequential cellular interactions between epithelial and mesenchymal components of the tooth germ. Once the ectomesenchyme influences the oral epithelium to grow down into the ectomesenchyme and become a tooth germ, the histogenesis of a tooth occurs.
A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. the first statement is t rue, the second is false
D. the first statement is fa lse, the second is true
A. both statements are true
Which ofthe following forms the middle part of the enamel organ?
A. outer enamel epithelium
B. inner enamel epithelium
C. stratum intermedium
D. stellate reticulum
D. stellate reticulum
Put the following developmental stages of a tooth in the correct sequence: (1) Bell stage (2) Bud stage (3) Cap stage
A. 1,2,3
B. 3,2,1
C. 2,3,1
D. 2,1,3
C. 2,3,1
In adults the epithelial cell rests of Malassez persist next to the root surface within the periodontal ligament. Although apparently functionless, they are the source of the epithelial
lining of dental cysts that develop in reaction to inflammation of the periodontal ligament.
A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. the first statement is true, the second is false.
D. the first statement is false, the second is true.
A. both statements are true
Which of the following products is NOT ectodermal in origin?
A. junctional epithelium
B. enamel
C. hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
D. pulp
E. ameloblasts
D. pulp (from MESODERM)
The gingival fibers are arranged in five groups. Which of the following is NOT one of those groups?
A. circular group
B. dentogingival group
C. apical group
D. transseptal group
E. dentoperiosteal group
C. apical group
The junctional epithelium consists of a collar-like band of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium.
The reduced enamel epithelium is not essential for its formation.
A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. the first statement is true, the second is false
D. the first statement is false, the second is true
D. the first statement is false, the second is true
The junctional epithelium consists of a collar-like band of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium.❌
The junctional epithelium consists of a collar-like band of stratified squamous NON-keratinized epithelium.
Bone consists of:
A. two-thirds organic matter and one-third inorganic matrix
B. one-third organic matter and two-thirds inorganic matrix
C. one-half organic matter and one-half inorganic matrix
D. two-thirds inorganic matter and one- third organic matrix
D. two-thirds inorganic matter and one- third organic matrix
Although the average width of the periodontal ligament space is documented to be about, considerable variation exists.
A. 0.002mm
B. 0.2mm
C. 2.0mm
D. 20mm
B. 0.2mm
___ are the most common cells in the periodontal ligament and appear as ovoid or elongated cells oriented along the principal fibers, exhibiting pseudopodia-like processes.
A. cementoblasts
B. osteoblasts
C. fibroblasts
D. macrophages
C. fibroblasts
Of the choices listed below, which one describes the boundaries that define the attached gingiva?
A. from the gingival margin to the interdental groove
B. from the free gingival groove to the gingival margin
C. from the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
D. from the epithelial attachment to the cementoenamel junction
C. from the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
The attachment apparatus is composed of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. periodontal ligament
B. cementum
C. alveolar process of the maxillae and mandible
D. gingiva
D. gingiva
The bone directly lining the socket (inner aspect of the alveolar bone) specifically is referred to as:
A. bundle bone
B. cancellous bone
C. osteoid
D. trabecular bone
A. bundle bone
The mucosa found on the hard palate is known as:
A. lining mucosa
B. masticatory mucosa
C. specialized mucosa
D. none of the above
B. masticatory mucosa
Which structure below is NOT a derivative of the dental follicle?
A. pulp
B. cementum
C. periodontal ligament
D. alveolar bone
A. pulp (from DENTAL PAPILLA)
A mass is noted at the back of a young man’s tongue. A biopsy’s pathology report comes back with a diagnosis of normal thyroid tissue. This finding is related to the embryonic origin of
the thyroid near which of the following structures?
A. First pharyngeal pouch
B. Foramen cecum
C. Nasolacrimal duct
D. Second pharyngeal arch
E. Third pharyngeal pouch
B. Foramen cecum
Which of the following represents the primitive oral cavity?
A. Glottis
B. Foregut
C. Stomodeum
D. Sulcus limitans
E. Buccopharyngeal membrane
C. Stomodeum
The muscles of facial expression are derived from which of the following?
A. Frontonasal process
B. First arch
C. Second arch
D. Third arch
E. Fifth arch
C. Second arch
Which of the following nerves is associated with the second pharyngeal arch?
A. Vagus
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Accessory
D. Mandibular
E. Facial
E. Facial
A bifid tongue is a result of lack of fusion of the
A. Tuberculum impar
B. Valleculae
C. Lateral swellings
D. Copula
E. Macula
C. Lateral swellings
The calcified bodies sometimes found in the PDL are BEST described as which of the following?
A. Cementicles
B. Denticies
C. Bone
D. Enamel pearls
E. Mineralized interstitial tissue
A. Cementicles
Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is derived from which of the following?
A. Inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
B. Inner dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
C. Outer dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
D. Outer dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
E. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium
E. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium
Enamel spindles are formed by
A. cracks.
B. ameloblasts.
C. odontoblasts.
D. hypoplastic rods.
E. hypocalcified rods.
C. odontoblasts.
