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Oral Pathology and Diagnosis > MOSBY > Flashcards

MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

Acantholysis, resulting from desmosome
weakening by autoantibodies directed against
the protein desmoglein, is the disease mechanism attributed to which of the following?

A. Epidermolysis bullosa
B. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Herpes simplex infections
E. Herpangina

A

C. Pemphigus vulgaris

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2
Q

Papillomavirus has been found in all of the
following lesions except _____.

A. Oral papillomas
B. Verruca vulgaris of the oral mucosa
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Condyloma latum
E. Focal epithelial hyperplasia

A

C. Condyloma acuminatum

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3
Q

Intranuclear viral inclusions are seen in tissue
specimens of which of the following?

A. Solar cheilitis
B. Minor aphthous ulcers
C. Geographic tongue
D. Hairy leukoplakia
E. White sponge nevus

A

D. Hairy leukoplakia

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4
Q

The odontogenic neoplasm, which is composed of loose, primitive-appearing connective tissue that resembles dental pulp, microscopically is known as _____.

A. Odontoma
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Ameloblastic fibroma
D. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
E. Odontogenic myxoma

A

E. Odontogenic myxoma

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5
Q

A biopsy of the lower lip salivary glands showed replacement of parenchymal tissue by lymphocytes. The patient also had xerostomia and keratoconjunctivitis sicca. These findings are indicative of which of the following?

A. Lymphoma
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Mumps
D. Sjögren’s syndrome
E. Mucous extravasation phenomenon

A

D. Sjögren’s syndrome

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6
Q

A patient seeks help for recurrent palatal pain. She presents with multiple punctate ulcers in the hard palate that were preceded by tiny blisters. Her lesions typically heal in about 2 weeks and reappear during stressful times. She has _____.

A. Aphthous ulcers
B. Recurrent primary herpes
C. Recurrent secondary herpes
D. Erythema multiforme
E. Discoid lupus

A

C. Recurrent secondary herpes

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7
Q

Conservative surgical excision would be
appropriate treatment and probably curative for which of the following?

A. Nodular fasciitis
B. Fibromatosis
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
E. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

A. Nodular fasciitis

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8
Q

On a routine radiographic exam, a well-defined radiolucent lesion was seen in the body of the mandible of a 17-year-old boy. At the time of operation, it proved to be an empty cavity. This is a(an) _____.

A. Osteoporotic bone marrow
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Static bone cyst
E. Traumatic bone cyst

A

E. Traumatic bone cyst

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9
Q

A 21-year-old woman went to her dentist because of facial asymmetry. This had occurred gradually over a period of 3 years. The patient had no symptoms. A diffusely opaque lesion was found in her right maxilla. All lab tests (CBC, alkaline phosphatase, calcium) were within normal limits. Biopsy was interpreted as a fibroosseous lesion. She most likely has _____.

A. Cementoblastoma
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Cherubism
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Chronic osteomyelitis

A

C. Cherubism

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10
Q

A cutaneous maculopapulary rash of the head and neck preceded by small ulcers in the buccal mucosa would suggest which of the following?

A. Primary herpes simplex infection
B. Rubeola
C. Varicella
D. Primary syphilis
E. Actinomycosis

A

B. Rubeola

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11
Q

The idiopathic condition in which destructive
inflammatory lesions featuring necrotizing
vasculitis are seen in the lung, kidney, and
upper respiratory tract is known as _____.

A. Epidermolysis bullosa
B. Stevens–Johnson syndrome
C. Sturge–Weber syndrome
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
E. Secondary syphilis

A

D. Wegener’s granulomatosis

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12
Q

The purpose of a high-voltage transformer in an x-ray machine is to _____.

A. Decrease the tube current
B. Increase the wavelength of the x-rays
C. Improve timer accuracy
D. Increase the potential between the filament and the cathode
E. Regulate the rate of release of photons from the anode
F. Increase resistance in the filament

A

D. Increase the potential between the filament and the cathode

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13
Q

The mean energy of an x-ray beam is influenced by the _____.

A. Kilovoltage
B. Milliamperage
C. Voltage in the filament circuit
D. Quantity of electrons in the tube current
E. Amount of filtration
F. Two of the above
G. None of the above

A

F. Two of the above

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14
Q

The function of the filament is to _____.

A. Convert electrons into photons
B. Convert photons into electrons
C. Release photons
D. Release electrons
E. None of the above

A

D. Release electrons

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15
Q

The most radiosensitive of the following cells in terms of cell killing is the _____.

A. Salivary gland acinar cell
B. Basal epithelial cell
C. Endothelial cell
D. Neuron.
E. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte

A

B. Basal epithelial cell

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16
Q

The long-term histopathologic consequences to an irradiated organ depend on _____.

A. The presence of oxygen at the time of irradiation
B. The sensitivity of the parenchymal component
C. The damage to the stromal component
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

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17
Q

The term ALARA refers to _____.

A. Reducing patient exposure to as low as is
reasonably achievable
B. As little as Roentgen allowed, an algorithm for limiting patient exposure
C. A legal requirement to optimize occupational exposure in dental radiology
D. Optimizing image quality
E. Reducing the costs of radiographic examinations

A

A. Reducing patient exposure to as low as is
reasonably achievable

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18
Q

X-ray film is composed of _____.

A. Silver halide crystals suspended in plastic and coated on a gelatin base
B. Sodium thiosulphate crystals and suspended within a plastic base
C. A plastic base coated with silver halide crystals suspended in gelatin
D. Fluorescent particles that react to x-radiation

A

C. A plastic base coated with silver halide crystals suspended in gelatin

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19
Q

It is generally desirable that x-ray films be all of the following except _____.

A. High speed
B. Fine grain size
C. Coated with emulsion on both sides
D. Sensitive to visible light

A

D. Sensitive to visible light

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20
Q

You are unsure of the location of an opaque
mass seen over a molar root on a periapical
view. A second view of the same region, made with the x-ray machine oriented more from the mesial, reveals that the object has moved mesially with respect to the molar roots on the first view. The location of the object is _____.

A. Buccal to the roots
B. Lingual to the roots
C. In the same plane as the roots
D. Insufficient information to form an opinion

A

B. Lingual to the roots

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21
Q

Cone-cutting results from _____.

A. Too great a target–film distance
B. Not selecting the proper kVp
C. Not enough time exposure
D. The x-ray machine being improperly aimed

A

D. The x-ray machine being improperly aimed

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22
Q

If your radiographs start coming out too light,
it may be that _____.

A. Your exposure time is too long
B. Your developer needs changing
C. Your developer is too hot
D. The fixer needs changing
E. The films are not sufficiently washed

A

B. Your developer needs changing

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23
Q

If an unwrapped, nonprocessed x-ray film is
exposed to normal light for just a second and
then processed, it _____.

A. May still be used but will be a little dark
B. May still be used but will be a little light
C. May still be used but will be brown
D. Will be completely black
E. Will be completely clear

A

D. Will be completely black

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24
Q

To ensure high radiographic image quality, it is important to daily _____.

A. Check the temperature of the processing
solutions
B. Clean the processing equipment
C. Clean the intensifying screens
D. Calibrate the mA linearity

A

A. Check the temperature of the processing
solutions

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25
Q

Radiographs of the pregnant patient _____.

A. Should never be made
B. Cause fetal injury
C. Should only be made with triple leaded aprons on the mother’s lap
D. Should be made when there is a specific need

A

D. Should be made when there is a specific need

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26
Q

Which of the following is a potential sequela of
an acute periapical abscess?

A. Central giant cell granuloma
B. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Periapical granuloma
E. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

A

D. Periapical granuloma

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27
Q

Which of the following odontogenic cysts
occurs as a result of stimulation and proliferation of the reduced enamel epithelium?

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Lateral root cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Odontogenic keratocyst
E. Gingival cyst

A

A. Dentigerous cyst

28
Q

Two cystic radiolucencies in the mandible of a
16-year-old boy were lined by thin, parake-
ratinized epithelium showing palisading of
basal cells. All teeth were vital and the patient
had no symptoms. This patient most likely has
which of the following?

A. Odontogenic Keratocysts
B. Periapical granulomas
C. Periapical cysts
D. Traumatic bone cysts
E. Ossifying fibromas

A

A. Odontogenic Keratocysts

29
Q

When a diagnosis of odontogenic keratocyst is
made, the patient should be advised as to
_____.

A. The need for full-mouth extractions
B. The association with colonic polyps
C. The associated recurrence rate
D. The likelihood of malignant transformation
E. The need for additional laboratory studies

A

C. The associated recurrence rate

30
Q

A painless, well-circumscribed 1 ¥ 3-cm radiolucent lesion with radiopaque focus was found in the posterior mandible of an 11-year-old boy. Which of the following should be included in a differential diagnosis?

A. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
B. Paget’s disease
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Ameloblastoma
E. Langerhans cell disease

A

A. Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma

31
Q

Herpes simplex virus is the cause of which of
the following?

A. Minor aphthous ulcers
B. Herpetiform aphthae
C. Herpes whitlow
D. Herpangina
E. Herpes zoster

A

C. Herpes whitlow

32
Q

A 12-year-old patient presents with premature
loss of primary teeth. On radiographic exam, a
sharply marginated lucency is seen in the area
of tooth loss. Biopsy shows a round cell infiltrate with numerous eosinophils. This would suggest which of the following?

A. Cherubism
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease
D. Fibrous dysplasia
E. Langerhans cell disease

A

E. Langerhans cell disease

33
Q

A 15-year-old patient has a numb lower lip and pain in her right posterior mandible. A radiogram shows uniform thickening of the periodontal membrane space of tooth #30. The tooth shows abnormally increased mobility. Which one of the following should be seriously considered?

A. Periapical cyst
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Traumatic bone cyst
D. Ameloblastoma
E. Malignancy

A

E. Malignancy

34
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms suggest a chronic benign process?

A. Paresthesia
B. Pain
C. Vertical tooth mobility
D Uniformly widened periodontal membrane space
E. Sclerotic bony margins

A

E. Sclerotic bony margins

35
Q

Central and peripheral giant cell granulomas
share which of the following features?

A. Microscopic appearance
B. Clinical behavior
C. Recurrence rate
D. Similar forms of treatment
E. Radiographic appearance

A

A. Microscopic appearance

36
Q

Diffuse soft swelling of the lips and neck fol-
lowing the ingestion of drugs, shellfish, or nuts
is known as _____.

A. Fixed drug reaction
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Urticaria
D. Acquired angioedema
E. Contact allergy

A

D. Acquired angioedema

37
Q

A 7-year-old patient presents with a quadrant
of teeth showing abnormal formation of both
enamel and dentin. All of his other teeth appear clinically normal. Radiographically, the
affected teeth can be described as “ghost
teeth.” He has _____.

A. Regional odontodysplasia
B. Dens evaginatus
C. Dentin dysplasia
D. Ectodermal dysplasia
E. Cleidocranial dysplasia

A

A. Regional odontodysplasia

38
Q

An adult patient presents with a 0.5 ¥ 0.5-cm
submucosal mass in the posterior lateral
tongue. Biopsy shows a neoplasm composed of glandlike elements and connective tissue elements. It is covered by normal-appearing epithelium. This could be which of the following?

A. Oral wart
B. Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)
C. Granular cell tumor
D. Idiopathic leukoplakia
E. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

A

B. Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)

39
Q

Oral squamous cell carcinomas present typi-
cally in which of the following ways?

A. Vesicular eruption
B. Pigmented patch
C. Inflamed pustule
D. Submucosal swelling
E. Indurated nonhealing ulcer

A

E. Indurated nonhealing ulcer

40
Q

A clinical differential diagnosis of an asympto-
matic submucosal lump or nodule in the tongue would include all the following except _____.

A. Traumatic fibroma
B. Neurofibroma
C. Granular cell tumor
D. Salivary gland tumor
E. Dermoid cyst

A

E. Dermoid cyst

41
Q

Ectopic lymphoid tissue would most likely be
found in which of the following sites?

A. Hard gingiva
B. Soft gingiva
C. Floor of mouth
D. Dorsum of tongue
E. Vermilion of the lip

A

C. Floor of mouth

42
Q

The Schwann cell is the cell of origin for which
of the following tumors?

A. Odontogenic myxoma
B. Rhabdomyoma
C. Neurofibroma
D. Mixed tumor
E. Leiomyoma

A

C. Neurofibroma

43
Q

A 43-year-old-male patient presents with an
asymptomatic anterior palatal swelling. A radi-
ograph shows a 1 × 1-cm lucency and diver-
gence of tooth roots #8 and #9. All teeth in the
area are vital. This is most likely a(an) _____.

A. Periapical granuloma
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Nasopalatine duct cyst
D. Globulomaxillary lesion
E. Dermoid cyst

A

C. Nasopalatine duct cyst

44
Q

The globulomaxillary lesion of bone _____.

A. Is associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth
B. Occurs between maxillary lateral and canine teeth
C. Typically causes pain
D. Typically presents as a mixed lucent-opaque lesion with ill-defined margins
E. Is always associated with a nonvital tooth

A

B. Occurs between maxillary lateral and canine teeth

45
Q

A generalized red, atrophic tongue would suggest all of the following except _____.

A. Vitamin B deficiency
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Chronic candidiasis
D. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

A

E. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

46
Q

The nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
includes multiple basal cell carcinomas,
bone abnormalities, and which of the
following?

A. Osteomas
B. Café-au-lait macules
C. Odontogenic keratocysts
D. Hypoplastic teeth
E. Lymphoma

A

C. Odontogenic keratocysts

47
Q

All of the following characteristically present
under the age of 20 except _____.

A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C. Ameloblastic fibroma
D. Compound odontoma
E. Ameloblastoma

A

E. Ameloblastoma

48
Q

Oral and genital lesions are seen in patients
with which of the following diseases?

A. Behçet’s syndrome
B. Peutz–Jegher’s syndrome
C. Herpangina
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
E. Hairy leukoplakia

A

A. Behçet’s syndrome

49
Q

A 32-year-old male patient presented with
a 1 x 2-cm macular red-blue lesion in his hard
palate. The lesion was asymptomatic and had
been present for an unknown duration. He had no dental abnormalities and no significant
periodontal disease. This could be all the
following except _____.

A. Vascular malformation
B. Nicotine stomatitis
C. Ecchymosis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Erythroplasia

A

B. Nicotine stomatitis

50
Q

Bremsstrahlung radiation results from _____.

A. X-rays interacting with electrons
B. Electrons interacting with electrons
C. Electrons interacting with nuclei
D. L shell electrons falling into the K shell
E. Photons interacting with nuclei
F. Photons converting into electrons

A

C. Electrons interacting with nuclei

51
Q

X-rays are produced in most conventional dental x-ray machines _____.

A. Continuously during operation
B. When there is a large space charge
C. Half the time during operation
D. When the anode carries a negative charge
E. Only when the beam is collimated
F. Only during the first half of each second

A

C. Half the time during operation

52
Q

Deterministic effects are those that _____.

A. Show a severity of response proportional to
dose
B. Are seen only in the oral cavity
C. Are found following exposure to low levels of radiation
D. Result from particulate radiation such as alpha and beta particles, but not x-rays
E. None of the above

A

A. Show a severity of response proportional to
dose

53
Q

In the radiolysis of water, _____.

A. Free radicals are formed which are nonreactive
B. The presence of dissolved O 2 reduces the
number of free radicals
C. The formation of free radicals is the “direct
effect”
D. The resultant free radicals may alter biological molecules
E. Two of the above
F. None of the above

A

E. Two of the above

54
Q

The radiosensitivity of cells depends upon _____.

A. Mitotic future
B. Mitotic activity
C. Degree of differentiation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

55
Q

Rectangular collimation is recommended
because it _____.

A. Deflects scatter radiation
B. Decreases patient dose
C. Increases film density
D. Increases film contrast

A

B. Decreases patient dose

56
Q

It is acceptable for the operator to hold the film in a patient’s mouth _____.

A. If the patient is a child
B. If the patient or parent grants permission
C. If the patient has a handicap
D. If no film holder is available
E. Never

A

E. Never

57
Q

A comparison of screen film/intensifying
screen combinations with direct-exposure films reveals that screen film/intensifying screen combinations _____.

A. Render less resolution
B. Require more exposure
C. Require special processing chemistry
D. Are preferred for intraoral radiography

A

A. Render less resolution

58
Q

It is important that the film base be _____.

A. Opaque
B. Very rigid
C. Flexible
D. Completely clear
E. Sensitive to x-rays

A

C. Flexible

59
Q

Excessive vertical angulation causes _____.

A. Overlapping
B. Foreshortening
C. Elongation
D. Cone-cutting

A

B. Foreshortening

60
Q

To obtain the most geometrically accurate
image, which of the following is false?

A. The film should be parallel to the object.
B. The central ray should be parallel to the object.
C. The central ray should be perpendicular to the film.
D. The object-to-film distance should be short.
E. The object-to-anode distance should be long.

A

B. The central ray should be parallel to the object.

61
Q

The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences
radiographic _____.

A. Density
B. Contrast
C. Resolution
D. Magnification
E. Both C and D

A

C. Resolution

62
Q

The primary function of developer is to _____.

A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains
B. Reduce solid silver grains to specks of silver halide
C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals
D. Remove exposed silver halide crystals

A

A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains

63
Q

If an exposed radiograph is too dark after
proper development, one should _____.

A. Place it back in the fixer
B. Place it back in the developer
C. Decrease development time
D. Increase milliamperage
E. Decrease exposure time
F. Decrease development temperature

A

E. Decrease exposure time

64
Q

The radiolucent portions of the images on a
processed dental x-ray film are made up of _____.

A. Microscopic grains of silver halide
B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver
C. A gelatin on a cellulose acetate base
D. Unexposed silver bromide

A

B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver

65
Q

The purpose of the “penny test” is to check _____.

A. Developer action
B. Fixer action
C. For proper development temperature
D. For proper safelighting conditions

A

D. For proper safelighting conditions

66
Q

Proper radiographic infection control includes
all of the following except _____.

A. Wearing gloves while making radiographs
B. Disinfecting x-ray machine surface
C. Covering working surfaces with barriers
D. Sterilizing nondisposable instruments
E. Sterilizing film packets

A

E. Sterilizing film packets

67
Q

Occlusal radiographs are useful for all of the
following except _____.

A. For views of the TMJ
B. For displaying large segments of the mandibular arch
C. When the patient has limited opening
D. When there are sialoliths in the floor of the
mouth
E. When there is buccal-lingual expansion of the mandible

A

A. For views of the TMJ

Oral Pathology and Diagnosis (1 decks)

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