DECKS Flashcards
The congenital absence of six or more teeth is known as:
a. Hypodontia
b. Oligodontia
c. Diphyodontia
d. Anodontia
b. Oligodontia
NOTES:
Hypodontia- absence of 1 or more teeth
Oligodontia- absence of 6 or more teeth
Diphyodontia- 2 successive sets of teeth
Anodontia- all teeth missing
Which type of dentinogenesis imperfecta features multiple pulp exposures, periapical radiolucencies, and a variable radiographic appearance?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
c. Type III
NOTES:
Type I: Osteogenesis Imperfecta, Opalescent teeth; Primary> Permanent
Type II: No bone involvement, Hereditary opalescent dentin
Type III: (Brandywine Type)
All of the following are differential diagnoses for hypercementosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Cemento-osseous dysplasia
b. Cementoblastoma
c. Condensing Osteitis
d. Odontogenic Keratocyst
d. Odontogenic Keratocyst❌
NOTES:
All of the other choices have distinct radio opacities forming in the vicinity of the apex of the root.
An enamel defect resulting from the incomplete formation of the enamel matrix is called:
a. Enamel pearls
b. Enamel hypocalcification
c. Enamel hypoplasia
d. Regional odontodysplasia
c. Enamel hypoplasia
____ is a division of a single tooth germ by invagination. This results in the incomplete formation of two teeth.
a. Fusion
b. Twinning
c. Concrescence
d. Gemination
d. Gemination
____ is an abnormally shaped tooth that may appear as an extra wide crown, a normal crown with an extra root, or other combinations resulting from the union of two adjacent tooth germs by dentin during development.
a. Fusion
b. Twinning
c. Concrescence
d. Gemination
a. Fusion
____ is the union of the roots of two or more normal teeth caused by confluence of their cemental surfaces.
a. Fusion
b. Twinning
c. Concrescence
d. Gemination
c. Concrescence
____ is the complete division of a single tooth bud. The divided teeth are seen as completely
separate with no connection to each other except each tends to be mirror image of the other.
a. Fusion
b. Twinning
c. Concrescence
d. Gemination
b. Twinning
All of the following statements concerning amelogenesis imperfecta are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. It is an inherited condition that is transmitted as a dominant trait
b. Because of the enamel malformation, the teeth of individuals with amelogenesis imperfecta are often discolored, sensitive to temperature changes, and painful to brush
c. It only affects the permanent teeth
d. It causes the enamel to be soft and thin
e. The teeth appear yellow because the dentin is visible through the thin enamel
d. The teeth are easily damaged and susceptible to decay
c. It ONLY affects the permanent teeth❌
The abnormal loss of tooth structure due to non-masticatory physical friction is referred to as:
a. Erosion
b. Abfraction
c. Attrition
d. Abrasion
d. Abrasion
The following can cause intrinsic staining of teeth EXCEPT.
a. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Porphyria
d. Fluorosis
e. Diabetes mellitus
f. Pulpal injury
g. Internal resorption
h. Tetracyclines
e. Diabetes mellitus❌
Your patient has been diagnosed with amelogenesis imperfecta. His teeth demonstrate enamel that varies from thin and smooth to normal thickness with grooves, furrows, and pits. This patients hereditary condition is an example of the _____ defect.
a. Type I (hypoplastic)
b. Type II (hypomaturation)
c. Type III (hypocalcified)
a. Type I (hypoplastic)
NOTES:
Type I (hypoplastic): normal to opaque white-yellow brown
Type II (hypomaturation): creamy opaque to marked yellow/brown, dental sensitivity
Type III (hypocalcified): Opaque white to yellow-brown, soft rough enamel surface, dental sensitivity
In Type I dentin dysplasia, roots appear extremely short, and pulps are:
a. Normal
b. Somewhat smaller
c. Extremely large
d. Completely obliterated
d. Completely obliterated
Where does leukemia form in the body and which type is mostly commonly found in children?
a. Lymph nodes, ALL
b. Bone marrow, AML
c. Lymph nodes, AML
d. Bone marrow, ALL
d. Bone marrow, ALL
NOTES:
1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL): most common type in children
2. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML): most malignant type; most common type in adults
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL): least malignant type; most common type
4. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML): 2 distinct phases, invariably fatal associated with Philadelphia chromosome (exchange of material between chromosomes 9 and 22)
A 48-year-old female patient walks into your office. She states that she has been diagnosed with some disease, the name of which she can’t remember. Her physician wants her to follow up with your office regularly to watch out for cancer of the tongue and throat. She also has a bald tongue, and states that her fingernails “look funny.” What disease does she have?
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Cushing syndrome
b. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
All of the following are characteristics of sickle cell anemia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Crescent shaped RBC
b. Production of hemoglobin S
c. More common in females
d. RBC lifespan of 120 days
e. Loss of trabeculae evident in radiographs
f. Valine of glutamic acid substitution
g. Muscle and joint pain are common
d. RBC lifespan of 120 days❌
RBC lifespan of 20 days
All of the following are true of acute leukemias EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Slow onset and progression
b. Characterized by the appearance of immature, abnormal cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood and frequently in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and other parenchymatous organs
b. Marked by the effects of anemia, which are usually severe (fatigue, malaise), and absence of functioning granulocytes (prone to infection and inflammation), and thrombocytopenia (hemorrhagic diathesis)
d. Moderate enlargement of the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes. Fever and very high ESR
e. Leukocyte counts vary greatly from patient to patient
a. Slow onset and progression❌
RAPID onset and progression
Which type of purpura is characterized by a low platelet count that is caused by abnormal thrombosis in terminal arterioles?
a. Thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
You have a dental patient who mentions during his health history that he has an “overactive thyroid.” You ask him about his medications and he states that he doesn’t know what he takes now, but at one time he took methimazole. He had to stop that because it “really tore up my gums and the roof of my mouth and I got a lot of infections.” Which condition of the blood is most commonly caused as a reaction to medication that could have caused these symptoms?
a. Thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Peutz-jegher syndrome
b. Agranulocytosis
A dentist is often consulted first by a patient with pernicious anemia for relief of:
a. Denuded gingiva
b. Glossitis
c. Edematous buccal mucosa
d. Severe gingivitis
b. Glossitis
In your office, you see a 6-month-old child whose first teeth are erupting and whose mother is concerned about the color. The mandibular incisors do show a brownish-blue hue. You are going to ask the mother about which of the following conditions during her pregnancy:
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Low-weight preterm birth
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
Which of the following statements are false regarding chronic leukemias?
a. They have a delayed onset and progression
b. The clinical course is less devastating than that of an acute leukemia
c. They constitute 75% of all leukemias
d. They are characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are
more mature than those of the acute leukemias
c. They constitute 75% of all leukemias❌
They constitute 50% of all leukemias
Leukemias are evenly split between the acute and chronic forms, but among children, one form accounts for about two-thirds of cases. This one form is:
a. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
b. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
d. Chronic myeloid leukemia leukemia (CML)
a. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
You have a new patient in your dental office who has just moved from Denver. He says his doctor told him that he has some disease caused by living at a high altitude. When conducting an intraoral exam, you find that his tongue is a deep purple and his gingiva bleed easily. What disease is a likely cause of these findings?
a. Polycythemia vera (primary)
b. Secondary polycythemia
c. Hemophilia B
d. Thalassemia major
e. Porphyria
b. Secondary polycythemia
The translocation from chromosome 22 to chromosome 9 is a finding of which leukemia?
a. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
c. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
Which of the following is an encapsulated mass that presents as an asymptomatic lump?
a. Neurofibroma
b. Traumatic neuroma
c. Neurilemoma
d. Nodular fasciitis
c. Neurilemoma
While in the OR on a general surgery rotation, a 3-month-old is brought in with a large (20 cm) fluid-filled mass on her neck. The diagnosis is a cystic hygroma. This lesion is under which umbrella of lesions, which also contains enlarged tissue on the posterior and lateral border of the tongue?
a. Angiomas
b. Lymphangiomas
c. Schwannomas
d. Fibrosarcomas
b. Lymphangiomas
A 24-year-old female patient comes into your office complaining of 14-mm exophytic, red mass present on the gingiva between teeth 5 and 6. A health history reveals that she is a smoker and is 3 months pregnant. Her oral hygiene is poor. A likely diagnosis of the mass is:
a. Epulis granulomatosa
c. Pyogenic granuloma
d. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
e. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
c. Pyogenic granuloma
A patient presents to your clinic with multiple exophytic masses covering the buccal mucosa, tongue, and lips. A biopsy reveals that these are mucosal neuromas. The most important reason this patient should be referred to a physician is because of the risk of related:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue
b. Pituitary hyperplasia
c. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
d. Sipple syndrome
c. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Which of the following is probably the most common benign peripheral nerve tumor?
a. Traumatic neuroma
b. Neurilemoma (schwannoma)
c. Neurofibroma
d. Nodular fasciitis
c. Neurofibroma- this is a tumor of Schwann cells and perineural fibroblasts and commonly appears as a sessile, firm, pink nodule
Von Recklinghausen disease displays all of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Axillary freckling
c. Café au lait macules
d. Iris hamartomas
e. Optic gliomas
f. Due to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene NF3
f. Due to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene NF3❌
Due to a mutation of the tumor suppressor gene NF1.
A 55-year-old patient comes into your office for a routine dental cleaning. You see that he has a tooth fracture (due to decay) of tooth #31. A smooth, firm, asymptomatic lesion is noted on the lateral border of the tongue adjacent to the sharp enamel of tooth #31. The patient states that the lesion has been there for years and is annoying because sometimes he will bite it accidentally. Name this most frequently encountered intraoral benign neoplasm of connective tissue origin.
a. A leiomyosarcoma
b. A fibroma
c. A leiomyoma
d. A rhabdomyoma
b. A fibroma
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is a systemic disease that affects many organ systems. What is usually the first sign of the disease?
a. Lung fibrosis
b. Raynaud’s phenomenon
c. Microstomia
d. Hypertension
b. Raynaud’s phenomenon
A newborn girl was delivered via cesarean section due to airway patency concerns. During ultrasound, there was the discovery of a tumor of the oral cavity. On delivery, the pink, compressible tumor of the anterior maxilla was deemed to be a congenital epulis of the newborn. This lesion is composed of cells that are identical to those of the:
a. Traumatic neuroma
b. Schwannoma
c. Granular cell tumor
d. Lipoma
c. Granular cell tumor
An emergency patient walks into your office with swelling of the left submandibular space. He says his lower left molar recently “broke down” and has been very painful, especially when something cold hits it or when he chews on it. What is the most likely etiology of this swelling?
a. Orthodontics
b. Trauma
c. Infection of the pulp of the tooth
d. Periodontal disease
c. Infection of the pulp of the tooth
A healthy patient comes into your office for an initial exam. On the full mouth series of radiographs you see a radiopaque lesion periapical to tooth #19. Tooth #19 has a deep amalgam restoration with recurrent decay underneath. Though the lesion is not separated from the apex, you can see the entire outline of the mesial root of tooth #19. The radiopaque lesion does not have a radiolucent rim. What is the most likely diagnosis of the lesion?
a. Condensing osteitis
b. Cementoblastoma
c. Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
d. Idiopathic osteosclerosis
a. Condensing osteitis
All forms of osteomyelitis are much more commonly seen in the mandible.
Unless the inflammatory process has been present for more than 1 week, radiographic evidence of acute osteomyelitis is usually not present.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
Cleft palate usually occurs starting in the ____ week of embryonic life whereas cleft lip usually occurs starting in the ____ week.
a. 8th week, 6th week
b. 10th week, 8th week
c. 6th week, 8th week
d. 8th week, 10th week
a. 8th week, 6th week
A child with achondroplasia has a:
a. Relatively normal torso and long arms and legs
b. Short torso and long arms and legs
c. Long torso and long arms with short legs
d. Relatively normal torso and short arms and legs
d. Relatively normal torso and short arms and legs
Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta is associated with which genetic disease?
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Marfan syndrome
c. Ehlers-danlos
d. Cystic fibrosis
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Hypophosphatasia is a genetic metabolic disorder of bone mineralization caused by a deficiency in:
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Vitamin K
c. Alkaline phosphatase
d. Phosphorus
c. Alkaline phosphatase
Pituitary adenoma in a 9-year-old will most likely lead to:
a. Gigantism
b. Acromegaly
c. Achondroplasia
d. Dwarfism
a. Gigantism
A new 6-year-old pediatric patient walks into your operatory with her mother. Your initial physical assessment notes a prominent forehead and flattened nose. The patient initially seems to have no eyebrows but you later realize that the hair is just very fine and sparse. When you shake her hand and she smiles, you also notice that she is missing teeth and the ones she has are cone shaped. What is her most likely systemic condition?
a. Pierre robin syndrome
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Cleidocranial dysplasia
d. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
e. Osteopetrosis
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
A 65-year old Caucasian male presents to your office with ill-fitting dentures. Radiographic and clinical exam lead you to believe the patient has Paget disease. The following would support this diagnosis EXCEPT
a. Hypercementosis
b. Enlarged cranium
c. Bone of decreased density
d. Headaches
e. Hearing loss
c. Bone of decreased density❌
Bone of INCREASED density
Cherubism is a benign, autosomal dominant condition exhibiting all of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Radiographically shows multilocular radio-opacities
b. Histologically close to central giant cell granuloma
c. Clinically presents as non-tender swellings
d. Treatment is frequent monitoring
e. Most cases occur in mandible
f. Affects males more than females
a. Radiographically shows multilocular radio-opacities❌
Radiographically shows multilocular RADIOLUCENCIES
A deficiency of parathyroid hormone can be treated with:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin D
Graves disease is the most acute and severe form of hyperthyroidism caused by the autoimmune disease targeting which receptor?
a. MSH receptor
b. TSH receptor
c. GH receptor
d. PTH receptor
b. TSH receptor
Severe hypothyroidism is called ____in children, whereas it is called ____ in adults.
a. hashimoto disease, cretinism
b. cretinism, Graves disease
c. myxedema, dwarfism
d. cretinism, Myxedema
d. cretinism, Myxedema
The clinical features of the primary form of which disease is classically described as “stones, bones, groans, and moans?”
a. Paget disease
b. Hypophosphatasia
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
On a hospital rotation you see an infant who displays bowed legs and muscular weakness. On dental examination you notice a delayed eruption pattern. The child has rickets, which is a deficiency in which vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin D
The following conditions may be seen in a patient with cerebral palsy EXCEPT
a. Difficulty with mastication and swallowing
b. Higher incidence of periodontal disease and caries
c. Attrition of the teeth
d. Multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws
d. Multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws❌
Which of the following diseases is associated with a decrease in caries?
a. Sjögren syndrome
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Cerebral palsy
d. Down syndrome
b. Cystic fibrosis
You are listening to a story about oyster fishing from a fellow classmate concerning his trip to the East Coast. He mentions that he got sick and had to be taken to the ER where he was told he had hepatitis. He is fine now. Which hepatitis is the most likely culprit in your colleague?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
a. Hepatitis A (also called infectious, viral or short-incubation hepatitis)
Which of the following is the most common reason for liver transplant in the United States and has been linked to a higher incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
c. Hepatitis C
Which of the following aid in wound healing? Select 3.
a. Highly vascular areas (i.e., tongue)
b. Hyperthermia
c. Younger age
d. Cortisone
e. Hypothermia
a. Highly vascular areas (i.e., tongue)
b. Hyperthermia
c. Younger age
In which one of the following cases is an incisional biopsy indicated?
a. 3 × 3 mm well-encapsulated fibroma
b. Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate
c. 2 x 2 m papilloma of left commissure of lips
d. 3 x 2 mm melanotic macule
b. Necrotizing sialometaplasia of the hard palate
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Oral hairy leukoplakia
c. Burkitt lymphoma
d. Koplik spots
e. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Koplik spots❌ (Rubeola)
Epithelioid cells and giant cells are derived from macrophages and are important in the development of:
a. Initial inflammation
b. Granulomatous inflammation
c. Acute inflammation
d. Subacute inflammation
b. Granulomatous inflammation
A patient you saw yesterday had minor swelling of the submandibular space associated with a carious #31. You prescribed amoxicillin and sent him home. He called today to say the swelling has gotten worse. You squeeze him into the schedule and notice that he has trouble breathing. You call an ambulance to escort him to the ER and tell the paramedics that he has Ludwig’s angina. Ludwig angina is a severe and spreading infection that involves the:
a. Submental and sublingual spaces only
b. Submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces unilaterally
c. Submandibular and sublingual spaces only
d. Submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces bilaterally
d. Submandibular, submental, and sublingual spaces bilaterally
ESR rises with all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Inflammation
b. Administration of hydrocortisone
c. Necrosis
d. Suppuration
e. Pregnancy
b. Administration of hydrocortisone❌
NOTES:
High Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate is due to:
• Inflammation
• Tissue degeneration
• Suppuration
• Necrosis
Your 2-year-old nephew tells you he feels sick and then proceeds to vomit on the kitchen floor. You rush him to the bathroom where you notice toothpaste everywhere and his “SpongeBob” toothpaste tube completely empty. Your aunt asks you, “What is the estimated toxic dose for fluoride ingestion”? Your answer to her is:
a. 1-2 mg/kg
b. 5-10 mg/kg
c. 8-10 mg/kg
d. 12-15 mg/kg
b. 5-10 mg/kg
The most common cause of xerostomia is:
a. Hereditary
b. Medications
c. Tooth decay
d. Mouth breathing
b. Medications
Most patients who develop burning mouth syndrome are:
a. Children
b. Teenagers
c. Postmenopausal women
d. Middle-aged males
c. Postmenopausal women
Radiographically, traumatic bone cysts present as a:
a. Well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots
b. Poorly circumscribed radiopaque lesion which may have a “ground-glass” appearance
c. Saucer-shaped radiopaque lesion
d. Poorly defined multilocular radiolucency with a “pear-shaped” appearance between the maxillary central incisors
a. Well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucency with scalloping around the roots
Where in the oral cavity is malignant melanoma most commonly found?
a. Tongue and mandibular alveolar ridge
b. Buccal mucosa and pharyngeal pillars
c. Palate and maxillary gingiva
d. Mucobuccal fold of lower lip
c. Palate and maxillary gingiva
The malignant, epithelial cell tumor that characteristically begins as a papule and enlarges peripherally, developing a central crater that erodes, crusts, and bleeds.
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Langerhan’s cell disease
a. Basal cell carcinoma
A 62-year-old African American patient comes into your office complaining of his loose lower molars. The health history reveals recent lower back pain. On a hunch, you send him down the hall to the orthodontist to take a lateral skull radiograph that reveals “punched-out” radiolucencies. You will refer this patient to the physician suspecting a diagnosis of:
a. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Langerhan’s cell disease
c. Multiple myeloma
The least common type of malignant melanoma is:
a. Superficial spreading melanoma
b. Lentigo maligna melanoma
c. Acral-lentiginous melanoma
d. Nodular melanoma
c. Acral-lentiginous melanoma
When using the TNM method in assessing the prognosis and therapy of malignant neoplasms, the N represents:
a. The presence of nikolsky sign
b. The presence of nodules
c. The presence of regional lymph node involvement
d. The presence of erythroplakia
c. The presence of regional lymph node involvement
NOTES:
• T = size of the primary TUMOR
• N = presence of regional lymph NODE involvement
• M = presence of distant METASTASES
The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the:
a. Dorsum
b. Ventral surface
c. Tip
d. Posterior lateral border
d. Posterior lateral border
Of the following types of squamous cell carcinomas, which is the least common?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx
At which growth stage is metastasis most likely for malignant melanoma?
a. “Horizontal” growth phase
b. “Circular” growth phase
c. “Vertical” growth phase
d. “Radial” growth phase
c. “Vertical” growth phase
Cancer of which oral cavity structure is most commonly associated with mortality?
a. Lip
b. Tongue
c. Floor of mouth
d. Buccal mucosa
b. Tongue
A 47-year-old HIV+ patient is referred from his physician to your office because of an exophytic growth in the maxillary left mucobuccal fold. Unable to find an odontogenic source, a biopsy was done. A starry-sky morphology was found and a dismal diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma was made. Which virus is thought to be responsible for this lymphoma?
a. Herpes virus
b. Epstein-barr virus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Human papillomavirus
b. Epstein-barr virus
Ewing’s sarcoma most often presents radiographically as:
a. Multiple radiolucent/radiopaque lesions resembling “cotton ball” or “cotton wool” appearance
b. Multiple “punched-out” radiolucencies
c. Ill-defined lytic lesion with an onionskin parosteal reaction in the long bones
d. Ill-defined radiolucent lesion resembling “ground glass”
c. Ill-defined lytic lesion with an ONIONSKIN parosteal reaction in the long bones
A 15-year-old patient presents to his physician because of localized pain in his right femur and rapidly enlarging swelling. A radiograph of the area shows a “sun-ray” appearance. Which is a likely diagnosis for this patient based on incidence?
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Scleroderma
d. Chronic osteomyelitis
b. Osteosarcoma
While doing a dental mission trip in Ethiopia, you notice purplish-brown nodules on the hard palate of a 32-year-old female patient. You notice more of these spots on her arms and legs. Given that HIV infection has an almost 5% prevalence in urban Addis Ababa, for what neoplasm are you suspicious of?
a. Nicotinic stomatitis
b. Hemangioma
c. Kaposi sarcoma
d. Leukemia
c. Kaposi sarcoma
The _____ presents as a movable, painless submucosal nodule with a yellowish-pink discoloration most commonly in the floor of the mouth.
a. lipoma
b. ranula
c. lymphoma
d. oral lymphoepithelial cyst
d. oral lymphoepithelial cyst
The following statements concerning metastatic tumors of the jaws are correct EXCEPT
a. They may be completely asymptomatic
b. The patient is usually aware of slight discomfort or pain
c. The maxilla is affected far more frequently than the mandible
d. The molar region is predominantly involved
c. The maxilla is affected far more frequently than the mandible❌
The MANDIBLE is affected far more frequently than the MAXILLA
A 65-year-old patient of East Indian origin presents to your clinic with a complaint of a lesion on the maxillary alveolar tuberosity. The lesion is a thick white, exophytic mass with a cauliflower appearance. A social history reveals that this woman has been chewing a betel nut concoction from her native India for over 40 years. What is the likely diagnosis of this lesion?
a. Papilloma
b. Erythroplakia
c. Verrucous carcinoma
d. Hyperkeratosis
c. Verrucous carcinoma
A 73-year-old patient presents to your office with complaint of a lasting ulceration on the right side of his tongue. He has a history of hypertension and high cholesterol and a 40-year pack history of smoking. The patient takes antihypertensives and antilipidemies and has no allergies. You cannot find any sources of trauma. After 2 weeks, the ulcer has grown in size. What is the likely diagnosis of this most common malignancy of the oral cavity?
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
While attempting to give an inferior alveolar nerve block, if you inject the anesthetic solution into the capsule of the parotid gland, you may cause a Bell’s palsy-like feeling for the patient by anesthetizing the:
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Facial nerve
d. Facial nerve
A 25-year-old college student comes into your office complaining that, when she wakes up, she has trouble opening her mouth. When conducting a TMJ exam, you note tenderness of the right lateral pterygoid and nonreciprocal clicking of the right TMJ. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s myofacial pain?
a. Trauma
b. Muscle spasm
c. Periodontal disease
d. Tumor
b. Muscle spasm
A 53-year-old patient comes to your office and notes that, sometimes when he swallows, he gets a sharp “jolt” on the right side of his throat. He says the pain is severe and he can even feel it in his ear. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Postherpetic neuralgia
b. Orolingual paresthesia
c. Frey syndrome
d. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
d. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
Which of the following is a relatively rare autoimmune disorder of peripheral nerves in which antibodies form against acetylcholine (ACh) nicotinic post-synaptic receptors at the myoneural junction?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Myelofibrosis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Graves disease
a. Myasthenia gravis
A 34-year-old dentophobe is your patient for the morning. After getting a very hesitant health history, you decide to begin your oral exam. As you reach toward her face, she immediately flinches and puts her hands up. She lets you know that if you touch a particular point above her lip, she gets sharp, stabbing jolts of pain. You let her know that a neurologist can work her up for:
a. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
b. Trigeminal neuralgia
c. Postherpetic neuralgia
d. Diabetic neuralgia
b. Trigeminal neuralgia
Which of the following are typically within soft tissue and may mimic inflammatory lesions of odontogenic origin?
a. Median palatal cyst
b. Traumatic bone cyst
c. Nasolabial cyst
d. Nasopalatine cyst
c. Nasolabial cyst
The following cysts are congenital EXCEPT.
a. Thyroglossal duct cyst
b. Branchial cyst
c. Stafne bone cyst
d. Dermoid cyst
c. Stafne bone cyst❌
The following cysts are developmental (or fissural) EXCEPT.
a. Nasopalatine duct (canal)
b. Nasolabial (nasoalveolar)
c. Branchiogenic
d. Median palatal
e. Median alveolar
c. Branchiogenic❌
The circular radiolucent area seen in this radiograph is clinically seen as a marked swelling in the region of the palatine papilla. It is situated mesial to the roots of the central incisors. The pulps of the anterior teeth in this patient tested vital. These findings would be compatible with what diagnosis?
a. Nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst
b. Median mandibular cyst
c. Nasolabial cyst
d. Aneurysmal bone cyst
a. Nasopalatine duct (canal) cyst - also known as an incisive canal cyst
The soft tissue, and far less common, variant of the nasopalatine canal cyst is the:
a. Median mandibular cyst
b. Nasolabial cyst
c. Cyst of the incisive papilla
d. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Cyst of the incisive papilla
An 8-year-old girl who looks like she is 14 years old comes with her father into your office. Her father states during the health history that she has McCune-Albright syndrome. The following would you expect the patient to have EXCEPT .
a. Congenital heart defects
b. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
c. Café au lait spots
d. Endocrine dysfunction
a. Congenital heart defects❌
An 8-year-old child has complained of pain on the left side of his head for 5 weeks. There are no abnormal findings on physical examination. A pan reveals multiple radiolucent lesions on the left side of the maxilla. The lesions give the appearance of teeth that are “floating in air.” The lesions are sharply circumscribed with a punched-out appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Langerhans cell disease
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Cherubism
d. Paget disease
a. Langerhans cell disease
Which of the following are true regarding central giant cell granulomas? Select 2.
a. Appear more frequently than peripheral giant cell granulomas
b. Found predominantly in children and young adults
c. Affects females more than males
d. Present almost exclusively in the small bones of the hands and feet
b. Found predominantly in children and young adults
c. Affects females more than males
A 21-year-old male patient is home from college and came to you because his “bite seems off.” A quick physical assessment seems to indicate that his chin is deviated to the right. Taking a panoramic x-ray and comparing to the previous panoramic radiographs you have in his chart, you notice that the left condylar neck seems to have elongated. What condition does this patient most likely have?
a. Condylar agenesis
b. Condylar hyperplasia
c. Condylar hypoplasia
d. Hemifacial microsomia
b. Condylar hyperplasia
A 6-year-old boy is a patient in your practice who has been hospitalized multiple times for broken bones. During routine lab tests, it was noted that his alkaline phosphatase levels were quite high. If this patient has a form of fibrous dysplasia, which radiographic feature may you find?
a. The lesions are usually radiolucent, well-circumscribed, and may have a “cotton wool” appearance
b. The lesions are usually a saucer-shaped radiolucency
c. The lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and may have a “ground- glass” appearance
d. The lesions are usually well-demarcated unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies
c. The lesions are usually radiopaque, not well-circumscribed, and may have a “ground- glass” appearance
Mandibular tori most often appear:
a. In the retromolar pad region
b. On the lingual surface of the mandible, most often in the premolar region
c. On the lingual surface of the mandible, inferior to the mylohyoid ridge
d, Along the midline of the hard palate
b. On the lingual surface of the mandible, most often in the premolar region
All of the following are features of an ossifying fibroma EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Slow growing expansile lesion
b. More often in maxilla
c. Asymptomatic
d. Common in young adults around 35 years of age
e. More common in females
b. More often in maxilla❌
More often in the MANBILULAR PREMOLAR AREA
A 17-year-old patient of yours comes in for a routine examination. A head and neck examination reveals multiple cysts of the skin. Her panoramic exams have always shown multiple impacted teeth and today shows multiple radiopacities of the jaws, especially at the angle of the mandible. You suspect Gardner syndrome. What is the most serious complication she should be concerned with when consulting her physician?
a. Odontomas
b. Osteomas
c. Epidermoid cysts
d. Multiple polyps that affect the large intestine
d. Multiple polyps that affect the large intestine
A 10-year-old boy comes with his mother to the dental office because of a painless swelling of his maxilla. Radiographic exam reveals an irregularly shaped radiopaque mass with a ground-glass appearance. No other bulges have been noted by the mother. A biopsy reveals fibrous tissue in the bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
b. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
c. Albright syndrome
d. Jaffe syndrome
a. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
A new patient walks into your office. Your initial physical assessment reveals that his eyes are set wide and that he has multiple lesions of the skin. When shaking his hand, you notice that the skin of his palm is very thick and has palmer pitting. When doing a health history, he reveals that he sees a neurologist and that he has some calcified structures “in his brain.” A panoramic radiograph may likely reveal:
a. Osteomas
b. Keratocystic odontogenic tumors
c. Odontomas
d. Dentigerous cysts
b. Keratocystic odontogenic tumors
A mother brings her 2-year-old boy into the dental office because of a “swelling” on his alveolar ridge. Your exam reveals a smooth-surfaced bluish lesion with fluctuance where tooth #K will be erupting. The most likely diagnosis of this is:
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Eruption cyst
c. Hematoma
d. Hemangioma
b. Eruption cyst
Upon viewing a panorex of a 14-year-old patient, you see a well-defined radiolucency with scalloping around the roots on the left side of the mandible apical to the canine and first premolar. No clinical symptoms are present. Teeth are not carious and respond normally to vitality tests. Medical history is unremarkable. On opening the area, no fluid or tissue is evident. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Traumatic (simple) bone cyst
c. Primordial cyst
d. Residual cyst
e. Stafne (static) bone defect
b. Traumatic (simple) bone cyst
A healthy 19-year-old patient presents to your office for a routine exam. Taking a panoramic radiograph, you see a well-corticated, unilocular radiolucency surrounding the crown of impacted tooth #17. The lesion is asymptomatic. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
b. Dentigerous cyst
c. Cystic ameloblastoma
d. Central ossifying fibroma
b. Dentigerous cyst (or Follicular cyst)
The keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KOT) (formerly known as the odontogenic keratocyst [OKC]) is derived from which of the following:
a. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
b. The reduced enamel epithelium
c. Remnants of the dental lamina
d. A preexisting osteoma
c. Remnants of the dental lamina
Which of the following most commonly appears radiographically as a well- circumscribed radiolucency with corticated margins, located laterally to a vital mandibular canine?
a. Lateral periodontal cyst
b. Dentigerous cyst
c. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
d. All of the above
a. Lateral periodontal cyst
A dental granuloma and a radicular cyst can be differentiated:
a. Based on symptoms
b. Radiographically
c. Histologically
d. By an electric pulp tester
c. Histologically
A 37-year-old patient comes into your office with the complaint of a slow- growing, painless swelling of his lower left jaw. A panoramic shows a multilocular radiolucency with well-defined and sclerotic margins along the left mandibular molar-ramus area. All teeth test as vital. A biopsy showed the lesion to be an ameloblastoma. It is most likely to be which type of ameloblastoma?
a. Solid (multicystic or polycystic)
b. Unicystic
c. Extraosseous (peripheral)
a. Solid (multicystic or polycystic)
A 30-year-old patient comes into your office complaining of a painless swelling of his lower left jaw. A panoramic radiograph shows a well circumscribed multilocular radiolucency with a “honeycomb” pattern at the location of the lower left molars. The teeth have been displaced. The pathology report calls this an odontogenic myxoma. This tumor:
a. Is composed of large polyhedral, neoplastic, epithelial cells
b. Is composed of neoplastic epithelium and mesenchyme
c. Arises from odontogenic ectomesenchyme
d. Is composed of spindle-shaped mesenchymal cells and aggregates of multinucleated giant cells
c. Arises from odontogenic ectomesenchyme
The cementoblastoma is more often seen:
a. In the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the posterior than in the anterior regions
b. In the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the anterior than in the posterior regions
c. In the maxilla than in the mandible, and more often in the posterior than in the anterior regions
d. In the maxilla than in the mandible, and more often in the anterior than in the posterior regions
a. In the mandible than in the maxilla, and more often in the posterior than in the anterior regions
All of the following are true regarding periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Appears in middle age
b. Mandible is affected more than maxilla
c. A predilection for middle-aged black women
d. No treatment is usually required
e. Teeth are non-vital
e. Teeth are non-vital❌
Teeth are VITAL
The most common location for a Pindborg tumor (calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor [CEOT]) is the:
a. Tuberosity area
b. Maxillary anterior area
c. Mandibular premolar area
d. Posterior mandible
d. Posterior mandible
The ameloblastic fibroma and ameloblastic fibro-odontoma appear to be variations of the same process. These neoplasms occur predominantly in:
a. Adults with a mean age of 40
b. Elderly people with a mean age of 75
c. Young adults with a mean age of 25
d. Children and young adults
d. Children and young adults
A 45-year-old African-American female presents to your office for a routine exam. Periapicals of the mandibular incisors show multiple radioopacities with radiolucent rims. Teeth #23 through #26 test as vital. There is no pain on percussion or palpation. Treatment for these lesions should be:
a. Do nothing (observe)
b. RCT treatment for teeth #23 through #26
c. Surgical excision of lesions
d. None of the above
a. Do nothing (observe)
A 5-year-old boy presents with his mother for his first dental exam. Your exam reveals a normally developing dentition, but you notice multiple “freckles” on his lower lip and on the buccal mucosa. For what condition should you be concerned?
a. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
b. Gardner syndrome
c. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
The most common location for an intraoral congenital nevi (birthmark) is the:
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Tongue
c. Hard palate
d. Alveolar mucosa
c. Hard palate
The following conditions demonstrate pigmentation of the intraoral mucous membranes EXCEPT.
a. Addison disease
b. McCune-Albright syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Putz-Jeghers syndrome
c. Cushing syndrome❌
A 40-year-old patient presents to his physician with complaints of muscle weakness and loss of appetite. He has noticed a loss of weight and also that his skin has started to “bronze.” His labs show lowered blood glucose and sodium and increased potassium. One condition likely to be causing this is:
a. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Addison disease
d. Albright syndrome
c. Addison disease
Focal melanosis is a common circumstance in which brownish areas of pigmentation occur in the oral cavity. Once properly diagnosed:
a. Surgical excision is required
b. Radiation is required
c. No treatment is necessary
d. Antibiotics are required
c. No treatment is necessary
The intraoral nevus is usually a/an:
a. Intradermal nevus
b. Compound nevus
c. Junctional nevus
d. Blue nevus
e. Intramucosal nevus
e. Intramucosal nevus
A patient presents with an asymptomatic, elongated, erythematous patch of atrophic mucosa of the mid-dorsal surface of the tongue due to a chronic Candida albicans infection. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Thyroglossal duct cyst
b. Lymphangioma
c. Hemangioma
d. Median rhomboid glossitis
d. Median rhomboid glossitis
A 13-year-old patient presents with his father to your dental clinic for a routine examination. From the health history, you gather that the patient has frequent nosebleeds, just like his father. Upon intraoral examination, you notice multiple red spots on the patient’s lower lip and tongue. The father states that he has these same marks on his tongue, palate, hands and eyes. What condition do you suspect the child has?
a. Wegener granulomatosis
b. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
c. Sturge-Weber angiomatosis
d. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
b. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) aka Rendu-Osier-Weber syndrome
A clinical term defined as a red patch that cannot be clinically or pathologically diagnosed as any other condition is called:
a. Leukoedema
b. Psoriasis
c. Erythroplakia
d. White sponge nevus
c. Erythroplakia
A fast-growing reactive proliferation of endothelial cells which is commonly found on the gingiva and usually forms in response to chronic irritation. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Leukoedema
c. Psoriasis
d. Erythroplakia
e. White sponge nevus
a. Pyogenic granuloma
Peripheral giant cell granulomas are seen exclusively in the:
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Alveolar mucosa
c. Bone
d. Gingiva
d. Gingiva
A benign, soft, moderately well-circumscribed, painless mass which is deep red or blueish red in coloration. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Leukoedema
c. Psoriasis
d. Erythroplakia
e. White sponge nevus
f. Hemangioma
f. Hemangioma
Tumors of the salivary glands are:
a. Uncommon and represent 2-4% of head and neck neoplasms
b. Common and represent 75-80% of head and neck neoplasms
c. Uncommon and represent 25-30% of head and neck neoplasms
d. Common and represent 95-98% of head and neck neoplasms
a. Uncommon and represent 2-4% of head and neck neoplasms
Which lesion below presents itself as a deep-seated palatal ulcer with clinical and histologic features mimicking those of a malignant neoplasm?
a. White sponge nevus
b. Lichen planus
c. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
d. Focal hyperkeratosis
c. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
In a small Amish community, there is an infectious outbreak. Multiple children are coming down with symptoms including fever and malaise. Commonly, there is swelling of the parotid glands. Given that this community does not receive vaccinations, what is a likely diagnosis for the condition?
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Chicken pox
b. Mumps
The Stafne bone defect is a developmental anomaly represented by a bone concavity usually containing:
a. Parotid gland tissue
b. Submandibular gland tissue
c. Sublingual gland tissue
d. All of the above
b. Submandibular gland tissue
A 53-year-old woman comes into the dental clinic with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands. It was discovered that she had recently been to the African continent and had contracted tuberculosis. What is the name of the autoimmune disease associated with enlarged salivary glands in association with a secondary disease?
a. Sjögren syndrome
b. Mikulicz disease
c. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
d. Pierre Robin syndrome
e. Apert syndrome
b. Mikulicz disease
A 33-year-old patient comes into your office for a routine maintenance appointment. While doing an intraoral exam, the hygienist discovers a bluish lesion of the lower lip. The patient relates a history of biting this area last week when he had a sinus infection. What is the most likely diagnosis of this lesion?
a. Ranula
b. Infectious sialadenitis
c. Maxillary sinus retention cyst
d. Mucocele
d. Mucocele
What is the most probable diagnosis for a lesion that presents as a translucent, bluish, well-rounded, smooth-surfaced bulge that protrudes from one side of the floor of the mouth?
a. Adenoid carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. A ranula
d. A lymphangioma
c. A ranula
A patient comes to your office complaining of pain when eating and even sometimes when thinking about food. Your intraoral exam reveals a small, hard swelling in the floor of the mouth. A mandibular occlusal radiograph shows a pea-sized radiopacity with “onion-skin” thickening lingual to the right mandibular border. Name the likely diagnosis:
a. Sialometaplasia
b. Sialadenitis
c. Sialolith
d. Sialosis
c. Sialolith
Of the neoplasms affecting the major or minor glands, the _____ is the most common.
a. basal cell adenoma
b. sebaceous adenoma
c. pleomorphic adenoma
d. ductal papilloma
c. pleomorphic adenoma
The following disorders should be included in your differential diagnosis of parotid gland enlargement EXCEPT
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Mikulicz disease
c. Sjögren syndrome
d. Hypothyroidism
e. Diabetes mellitus
f. Malnutrition/starvation
g. Dehydration
h. Cystic fibrosis
d. Hypothyroidism❌
The acinic cell carcinoma is derived from serous acinar cells and is found almost exclusively in the:
a. Submandibular gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Minor glands of the palate
d. Sublingual gland
b. Parotid gland
_____ is the most common salivary gland malignancy and makes up between 5% and 9% of all salivary gland neoplasms.
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
c. Acinic cell carcinoma
d. Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
b. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Which autoimmune disease is associated with the increase in caries?
a. Lupus erythematosus
b. Sjögren syndrome
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Crohn disease
b. Sjögren syndrome
The _____ salivary gland presents with the most number of tumors and ______ carcinoma is the most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm.
a. parotid, acinic cell
b. parotid, mucoepidermoid
c. sublingual, mucoepidermoid
d. sublingual, acinic cell
b. parotid, mucoepidermoid
Oncocytomas are _____ tumors that constitute about _____ epithelial salivary gland neoplasms.
a. common; 50%
b. common; 75%
c. rare; 2%
d. rare; 15%
c. rare; 2%
A 65-year-old patient comes to your office complaining of a slowly growing enlargement of the jaw. You palpate the angle of his right ramus and find an encapsulated mass that is nontender and firm. Your oral pathologist defines it as a glandular and cystic tumor lined by a bilayered (inner columnar oncocytic and outer basal) epithelium with a lymphoid stroma. Name this second most common benign neoplasm of the parotids.
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. Warthin tumor
c. Fibroadenoma
d. Monomorphic adenoma
b. Warthin tumor
A 40-year-old female presented with a subcutaneous nodule on the lower lip. The nodule was non-tender, soft, movable and had been slowly growing for about 2 years. The nodule was excised. Its cut surface was yellow and lobulated. What is the clinical significance of the nodule being movable and slow-growing?
a. These are characteristics of a benign neoplasm
b. These are characteristics of a malignant neoplasm
a. These are characteristics of a benign neoplasm
An overgrowth of normal tissues in a place where that tissue is not normally found is referred to as a:
a. Teratoma
b. Choristoma
c. Hamartoma
d. None of the above
b. Choristoma
NOTES:
Teratoma- a neoplasm composed of tissues from all three germ layers; may be benign or malignant
Choristoma- an overgrowth of normal tissues in a place where that tissue is not normally found
Hamartoma- characterized by an overgrowth of tissues normal to the organ in which it arises
Malignant neoplasms range from well differentiated to undifferentiated. Malignant neoplasms composed of undifferentiated cells are said to be:
a. Metaplastic
b. Hyperplastic
c. Anaplastic
d. Dysplastic
c. Anaplastic
Metaplasia most commonly occurs by replacement of ____ by ____.
a. cuboidal cells; columnar cells
b. columnar cells; stratified squamous epithelium
c. columnar cells; pseudostratified columnar cells
d. cuboidal cells; stratified squamous epithelium
b. columnar cells; stratified squamous epithelium
A 25-year-old dental student has been cramming for his dental physiology and pharmacology final exams. He is sleep deprived but otherwise healthy. When flossing, he notices a 3-mm ulceration on the inner surface of his lower lip. He can find no other instances of this lesion and remembers that he had one a long time ago in undergraduate clinic, which went away. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Recurrent aphthous minor
b. Recurrent aphthous major
c. Recurrent herpetiform aphthous
d. Recurrent herpetic stomatitis
a. Recurrent aphthous minor
The following make up the triad of Stevens Johnson syndrome (SJS) EXCEPT
a. Stomatitis
b. Lesions of the eye
c. Genital lesions
d. Maculopapular rash
d. Maculopapular rash❌
The lesion below is a small (2 mm-5 mm in diameter), whitish sore with a red border. The patient states that it usually begins as a reddish area with a burning or tingling sensation. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Recurrent aphthous minor
b. Recurrent aphthous major
c. Recurrent herpetiform aphthous
d. Recurrent herpetic stomatitis
a. Recurrent aphthous minor
Erythema multiforme (EM) is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the:
a. Chronic desquamative gingivitis
b. Petechial hemorrhage
c. Iris or target lesion
d. Mucocutaneous rash
c. Iris or target lesion- appears as a central lesion surrounded by concentric rings of pallor and redness over the dorsal aspect of the hands and forearms
A 43-year-old man presents to the ER with a purple lump of the jaw that is painful. He has an extraoral sinus tract presenting with yellowish crust. The ER places the individual on a long-term penicillin regimen. What was the most likely diagnosis?
a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Actinomycosis
e. Scarlet fever
d. Actinomycosis
Treponema pallidum is the infectious organism of which disease?
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia
d. Tuberculosis
a. Syphilis
The screwdriver-shaped central incisors seen in a child with congenital syphilis are called:
a. Hutchinson incisors
b. Mulberry molars
c. Paramolars
a. Hutchinson incisors
Which of the following fungal infections is most commonly associated with diabetes mellitus?
a. Coccidioiodomycosis
b. Mucormycosis
c. Aspirgillosis
d. None of the above
b. Mucormycosis
A 4-year-old patient comes with her mother for a routine appointment. The mother states that her daughter just started not feeling well and had a mild fever earlier in the day. The daughter has been having trouble swallowing. An intraoral exam reveals multiple 1-mm to 2- mm vesiculopapular lesions of the nasopharynx and soft palate. Your working diagnosis is:
a. Herpangina
b. Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease
c. Herpes simplex infection
d. Pemphigus vulgaris
a. Herpangina
Which type of herpes virus is associated with the lesion on the lower lip?
a. HSV-1
b. HSV-2
c. HSV-3
d. HSV-4
a. HSV-1
The dormancy state with latency in the trigeminal ganglion is associated with which form of herpes?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Epstein-barr virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 1
d. Herpes simplex virus type 2
c. Herpes simplex virus type 1
A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic in regards to upper dentures. When getting his health history, you ask about history of infectious diseases. He mentions that a year ago, his eldest son died and later he broke out in blisters on only half of his back. He says he doesn’t remember what the doctor called it, but he remembers the physician saying it “stopped at the midline.” What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Herpes zoster
b. Herpangina
c. Recurrent herpes
d. Chickenpox
a. Herpes zoster
Over 90% of primary herpes simplex viral infections are:
a. Manifested as ANUG
b. Associated with HIV
c. Subclinical
d. Characterized by severe lymphadenopathy and acute dermatitis
c. Subclinical
After the initial primary attack during the early childhood period, the herpes simplex virus remains inactive most commonly in the:
a. Geniculate ganglion
b. Ciliary ganglion
c. Trigeminal ganglion
d. Pterygopalatine ganglion
c. Trigeminal ganglion
A 49-year-old patient of Ashkenazi heritage presents to your office complaining of “blisters in her mouth.” Your intraoral exam shows ulcers present on multiple areas of mucosa. She also related to you that, while getting out of the car earlier, the skin of her arm rubbed against the car door and tore. Known as Nikolsky sign, this phenomenon is associated with which disease?
a. Herpes zoster
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Lichen planus
d. Pemphigus
d. Pemphigus
The oral lesions of benign mucous membrane pemphigoid most commonly present as a:
a. Candidiasis
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Desquamative gingivitis
d. Hemorrhagic mass
c. Desquamative gingivitis
The common wart or verruca vulgaris is caused by the:
a. Human papillomavirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Epstein-barr virus
d. Human parvovirus
a. Human papillomavirus
A 45-year-old female walks into your office complaining of a “wart” on her gums that has been there for years. Your exam reveals an asymptomatic, well circumscribed, slightly raised, papillomatous lesion on the buccal gingiva of tooth #5. A likely diagnosis of this is:
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Neurosarcoma
c. Lipoma
d. Verruciform xanthoma
d. Verruciform xanthoma
A 63-year-old completely edentulous patient comes into your office because her dentures have “finally gotten too bothersome to wear.” Her health history consists of COPD and cigarette 40-year pack history. Your intraoral exam reveals a noxious odor and an ill-fitting upper denture. When you remove the upper denture you note multiple red, papillary projections of the hard palate. Your patient states she does not remove her dentures at night or between meals. After reviewing denture hygiene instructions, you give her the diagnosis of:
a. Epulis fissuratum
b. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
c. Nicotinic stomatitis
d. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
A 54-year-old African-American female presents to your clinic for an initial exam. She has a history of hypertension controlled with beta blockers but no other contributory health findings. Your intraoral exam reveals a bilateral filmy opalescence of the buccal mucosa. When stretching out her cheeks, this white hue disappears. Your most likely diagnosis is:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Fordyce granulation
c. Leukoedema
d. Leukoplakia
c. Leukoedema
A 67-year-old Caucasian male comes into your office for a routine check-up. He relates to you that he just got back from Florida where he goes for the fall and winter months. He enjoys taking his boat out with his wife. Your extraoral exam shows chapped lips, but his lower lip also presents with grayish-white plaques. There is a blurring of the vermilion border. Which of the following would you make your diagnosis:
a. Actinic keratosis
b. Actinic cheilitis
c. Actinic dermatitis
d. Solar lentigo
b. Actinic cheilitis
An incisional biopsy is indicated for which of the following lesions?
a. A 0.2-cm exostosis of the hard palate
b. A 0.2-cm area of Fordyce granules of the cheek
c. A 0.3-cm hemangioma of the tongue
d. A 0.3-cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate
d. A 0.3-cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate
You are conducting a routine exam on a 54-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus type 2 and a 20-year pack history of smoking. You see a white patch on the floor of the mouth. The lesion cannot be wiped off and the patient denies a history of trauma or allergies. Which of the following would be your diagnosis?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Lichen planus
c. Erythroplakia
d. Leukoplakia
d. Leukoplakia
A 75-year-old patient comes to your office wanting a new set of dentures. She hasn’t been wearing her old dentures for about 2 years. She has a collapsed vertical dimension of occlusion and her physician is concerned about her iron deficiency. The corners of her mouth are fissured, dry, and erythematous. Which of the following conditions is the likely diagnosis?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Angular cheilitis
c. Verruca vulgaris
d. Stomatitis nicotina
b. Angular cheilitis also called perlèche
A 34-year-old male comes into the clinic for an initial exam. Your health history is noncontributory. The patient presents with bilateral asymptomatic, white, folded and spongy tissue on the buccal mucosa. There is no history of cheek biting, and the patient recalls that the lesions have been present as long as he can remember. You diagnosis is:
a. Hyperkeratosis
b. Leukoplakia
c. Epidermolysis bullosa
d. White sponge nevus
d. White sponge nevus
Hairy tongue is a condition characterized by hypertrophy of the:
a. Filiform papillae
b. Fungiform papillae
c. Circumvallate papillae
d. Foliate papillae
a. Filiform papillae
A 62-year-old African-American female patient presents to your clinic for routine dental work. Your intraoral exam reveals white, lace-like webbing on the buccal mucosa. Your patient has never noticed these and they have never caused her a problem. You suspect the following:
a. Lupus erythematosus
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Lichen planus
d. Lichen planus
A white patch that, when scraped or removed from the oral mucosa leaves a raw surface most likely is:
a. Leukoplakia
b. White sponge nevus
c. Candidiasis
d. Lichen planus
c. Candidiasis
A 35-year-old healthy female presents to your office for a routine cleaning. While completing the scaling on the LL quadrant, you notice that her tongue has multiple irregularly shaped red lesions that have a white border. You make a note in her chart. When she returns 2 weeks later for the restorative work on the LR quadrant with the dentist, he notes that there are still lesions, but in different locations on the tongue with different shapes. What is your diagnosis?
a. Fissured tongue
b. Macroglossia
c. Geographic tongue
d. Hairy tongue
c. Geographic tongue
