Post Test Flashcards
Phase of the clinical trial when the drug is tested to clients to whom the drug is intended for
a. Pre – clinical trial
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3
e. Post marketing evaluation
c. Phase 2
Percutaneous drug administration
a. Oral
b. Mucosal
d. Intravenous
e. All of the above
b. Mucosal
A 55-year-old client is being given hormonal replace therapy, the purpose of which is
a. To decrease risk for osteoporosis
b. To decrease risk of DVT
c. To increase risk of cancer
d. To substitute for loss
e. All of the above
d. To substitute for loss
Drugs may interact with
a. Ion channels
b. G protein coupled receptor
c. Enzymatic receptors
d. Gene transcription receptor
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Drugs that interact with the receptors to mimic the same response
a. Agonists
b. Competitive antagonist
c. Non-competitive antagonist
d. All of the above
a. Agonists
Antimuscarinic effect include the following, except
a. Mydriasis
b. Tachycardia
c. Vasodilation
d. No exception
c. Vasodilation❌
Vasocontriction
Pilocarpine eye drop is used for treatment of glaucoma will act to
a. Dilate pupils
b. Constrict pupils
c. Decrease Aqueous humor production
d. All of the above
b. Constrict pupils
Anticholinergic drug increases heart rate, example include
a. Epinephrine
b. Atropine sulfate
c. Ephedrine
d. Isorptoreno
b. Atropine sulfate
Alpha 1 adrenergic agonists acting in the blood vessels will cause
a. Tachycardia
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Decrease norepinephrine flow
d. Bronchodilation
e. Sweating
b. Vasoconstriction
Clonidine (Catapres) is classified as
a. Vasodilators
b. Centrally acting antihypertensive drug
c. Beta blockers
d. Alpha 2 antagonist
b. Centrally acting antihypertensive drug
Beta blockers are contraindicated in clients with
a. Hypertension
b. Dysrhythmias
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Obstructive lung disease
d. Obstructive lung disease
To decrease the systemic adverse effects, it most important for clients with asthma to take which of the following
a. Aminophylline
b. Salbutamol
c. Ipratropium
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
c. Ipratropium
Sympathomimetic effects include the following but one
a. Bronchodilation
b. Vasodilation
c. Decrease GI motility
d. Urinary retention
e. None of the above
b. Vasodilation❌
Vasoconstriction
A client with ptosis is being assessed for Myasthenia gravis, Edrophonium is used to diagnose the condition, a positive test would show
a. Temporary improvement of ptosis
b. Temporary worsening of ptosis
c. An increased Acetylcholine (Ach) in the blood
d. A decrease Ach in the blood
a. Temporary improvement of ptosis
Overused of long-acting anticholinergic drugs may cause the following symptoms, except
a. Muscle weakness
b. Bradycardia
c. Incontinence
d. No exception
d. No exception
Rivastigmine acts to
a. Increase Ach in the synapses of the CNS
b. Decrease symptoms of Alzheimer’s
c. Inhibit acetylcholinesterase
d. A and B
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Anna was prescribed anti-depressant drugs, Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, after a week of good compliance, it is expected that Anna
a. Is still depressed
b. Is having a good sleep
c. Is actively participating in activities
d. Is not isolating herself anymore
a. Is still depressed
A potent drug
a. Has a lesser dose but is able to achieve the same effect
b. Has a lesser dose but is able to achieve maximum effect
c. Has a higher dose and is able to achieve the same effect
d. Has a higher dose and is able to achieve maximum effect
a. Has a lesser dose but is able to achieve the same effect
A ratio that compares the blood concentration at which a drug becomes toxic and the concentration at which the drug is effective
a. Therapeutic level
b. Therapeutic index
c. Therapeutic safety
d. Therapeutic point
b. Therapeutic index
The effects of two or more drugs get added up and the total effect is equal to the sum of their individual actions
a. Additive effect
b. Synergism effect
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Antagonism
a. Additive effect
The fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation following administration by any route?
a. Volume of distribution
b. Bioavailability
c. Biotransformation
d. Clearance
b. Bioavailability
Which of the following statements is true?
a. If the drug is retained in the blood, the volume of distribution (Vd) is small
b. If the drug is retained in the blood, the volume of Vd is large
c. If the drug is retained in the blood, the drug is widely distributed
d. None of the above
a. If the drug is retained in the blood, the volume of distribution (Vd) is small
Which of the following statements is true?
- Clearance refers to the volume of the plasma freed completely of the drug in unit time
- Drugs eliminated by the first order kinetic means constant fraction of the drug is metabolized or eliminated per unit time
- Drugs eliminated by zero order kinetic means constant amount of drug is metabolized or eliminated per unit time
- Most drugs are eliminated by zero order kinetic
- Half-life refers to the time it takes for the drug to reduce to half from the peak level it previously achieved.
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 2,3,4,5
c. 1,3,4,5
d. 1,2,3,5
d. 1,2,3,5
The most common hypersensitivity type occurring in drug therapy is
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
a. Type 1
Benzodiazepine, an anxiolytic drug acts to
a. Enhance GABA effect
b. Decrease GABA effect
c. Close sodium channels in the end of the nerve
d. Inhibit depolarization
a. Enhance GABA effect
Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic interacts with serotonin receptors and specific dopamine receptors to
a. Decrease symptoms of psychosis
b. Decrease Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
c. Decrease affinity with dopamine receptors
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
Diphenhyramine (Benadryl) used in Parkinson’s disease is
a. To prevent allergic reaction
b. To decrease Dopamine in the brain
c. To lessen the extrapyramidal symptoms
d. All of the above
c. To lessen the extrapyramidal symptoms
Paralyzing agent used in clients who “fights” the mechanical ventilator
a. Tubocurarine
b. Dantrolene
c. Baclofen
d. Succinylcholine
a. Tubocurarine
Strong narcotic agonists most frequently used in cancer related pain
a. Morphine
b. Nalbuphin
c. Codeine
d. Naloxone
a. Morphine
Tramadol is a narcotic agonists that differ from Morphine because
a. It modulates the neurotransmitters involve in pan modulation
b. It increases serotonin effect
c. It increases norepinephrine effect
d. All of the above
a. It modulates the neurotransmitters involve in pan modulation
A client with Rheumatoid arthritis will benefit from which of the following pain reliever?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Etoricoxib
c. Mefenamic acid
d. Aspirin
b. Etoricoxib
Heparin achieves its anticoagulant effect by
a. Activating anti thrombin III
b. Prevents activation of prothrombin
c. Decreases effect of active X
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The primary adverse effect of Clopidogrel is
a. Bleeding
b. Hypertension
c. Tachycardia
d. All of the above
a. Bleeding
Which of the following drugs is given to clients with uncontrolled bleeding?
a. Streptokinase
b. Tranexamic acid
c. Warfarin
d. Dypiridamole
b. Tranexamic acid
An example of anti infective used as a prophylaxis would be:
a. Amoxicillin used to treat tonsillitis
b. Penicillin used to treat abscess
c. An antibiotic used before dental surgery
d. Norfloxacin used to treat bladder infection
c. An antibiotic used before dental surgery
Identification and isolation of the infecting organism maybe made thru:
a. Complete blood count
b. Urinalysis
c. Culture & sensitivity
d. All of the above
c. Culture & sensitivity
The most common adverse effects of antibiotic therapy is:
a. CNS effects
b. GI toxicity
c. Both
d. Neither
b. GI toxicity
Sulphonylureas are drugs used in;
a. Thyroid storm
b. diabetes insipidus
c. diabetes mellitus
d. cushing’s disease
e. addison’s disease
c. diabetes mellitus
Omeprazole is used in Peptic ulcer desease treatment and is classified as a/an;
a. Antacid
b. histamine 2 receptor blockers
c. cytoprotectives
d. prostaglandin agonist
e. proton pump inhibitors
e. proton pump inhibitors
A client in a burn unit is being given Silver sulfadiazine, the drug will act to
a. Interfere with bacterial growth in the burn wound
b. Act as antiseptic in the burn wound
c. Relieve the pain in burn wound
d. Cover the wound to prevent further infection
a. Interfere with bacterial growth in the burn wound
Prednisone, an adrenal steroid is ordered for a client with exacerbation of colitis
a. Will protect the client from getting an infection
b. May decrease the client’s appetite, causing weight loss
c. Is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process
d. Is relatively slow in effecting a response but effective in reducing symptoms
c. Is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process
A client with hepatic cirrhosis has hepatic encephalopathy. Neomycin is prescribed. The purpose of Neomycin for client with liver cirrhosis would be to
a. Decrease intestinal edema
b. Reduce abdominal distention
c. Provide a prophylactic antibiotic
d. Diminished blood ammonia level
d. Diminished blood ammonia level
Sequential block in bacterial folate metabolism is the mechanism of action of:
a. Sulfonamide
b. trimethroprim
c. cotrimoxazole
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Second generation cephalosporin is:
a. Cefuroxime
b. cephalexin
c. ceftriaxone
d. all of the above
a. Cefuroxime
The use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is most clinically useful at what cell type?
a. Beta cells of the pancreas
b. basophils
c. mast cells
d. juxtaglomerular cells
e. parietal cells
e. parietal cells
Oral antacids are most likely to reduce the absorption of which drug when it is given orally?
a. Clarithromycin
b. penicillin V
c. clindamycin
d. metronidazole
e. tetracycline
e. tetracycline
Bronchodilators act to
a. Liquefy thick secretions
b. Relax smooth muscles of bronchioles
c. Decreased swelling of the bronchioles
d. Improve coughing
b. Relax smooth muscles of bronchioles
Adverse effect of bronchodilators
a. Palpitation
b. Chest pain
c. Sweating
d. Hypertension
a. Palpitation
All of the following conditions are managed by using anticoagulants and anti-platelet
agents, except:
a. Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
b. Angina Pectoris (Unstable Angina)
c. Myocardial Infarction (Heart attack)
d. Stroke
e. Hypertension
e. Hypertension❌
For a patient who is taking anticoagulants, what is the most valuable test used in evaluating the patient as surgical risk?
a. PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time)
b. PT (Prothrombin Time)
c. Platelet count
d. RBC count
b. PT (Prothrombin Time)
