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Pharmacology > MOSBY > Flashcards

MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

Which drugs tend to concentrate in body compartments of high pH?

A. Permanently charged drugs
B. Drugs that are not charged
C. Weak organic acids
D. Weak organic bases
E. Inorganic ions

A

C. Weak organic acids

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2
Q

Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity also have the same _____.

A. Maximal effect
B. Potency
C. Receptor affinity
D. Therapeutic index
E. Aqueous solubility

A

A. Maximal effect

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3
Q

What receptor or signaling pathway is linked
most directly to a2-adrenoceptor stimulation?

A. Gi and a reduction in cAMP
B. Gs and an increase in cAMP
C. Gq and calcium
D. Sodium ion channel
E. Membrane receptor containing tyrosine kinase

A

A. Gi and a reduction in cAMP

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4
Q

What tissue or organ has many muscarinic
receptors but lacks innervation to those
receptors?

A. Heart
B. Parotid gland
C. Blood vessels
D. Sweat glands
E. Urinary bladder

A

C. Blood vessels

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5
Q

Which drug used in the therapy for Parkinsonism does not cross the blood–brain barrier?

A. Amantadine
B. Carbidopa
C. L-dopa
D. Selegiline
E. Tolcapone

A

B. Carbidopa

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6
Q

After an injection, which drug would be expected to have the longest duration of action? (Assume no vasoconstrictor was injected with the local anesthetic.)

A. Bupivacaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Mepivacaine
D. Prilocaine
E. Procaine

A

A. Bupivacaine

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7
Q

A very low blood:gas solubility coefficient (partition coefficient = 0.47), analgesic effect, and a drug that inhibits methionine synthase best describes which drug?

A. Ketamine
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane
D. Isoflurane
E. Propofol

A

B. Nitrous oxide

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8
Q

Levonordefrin is added to certain cartridges containing mepivacaine. The desired effect of levonordefrin is due to what pharmacological effect?

A. Inhibition of nicotinic cholinergic receptors
B. Inhibition of muscarinic cholinergic receptors
C. Stimulation of α-adrenergic receptors
D. Stimulation of β-adrenergic receptors
E. Stimulation of dopamine receptors

A

C. Stimulation of α-adrenergic receptors

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9
Q

The analgesic effects of dextromethorphan are
due to what receptor effect?

A. Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor
antagonism.
B. Dopamine receptor antagonism.
C. Nicotinic cholinergic receptor antagonism.
D. Mu (μ) opioid receptor antagonism.
E. N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor
antagonism.

A

E. N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor
antagonism.

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10
Q

Naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic
effects of which drug?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Fentanyl
E. Ibuprofen

A

D. Fentanyl

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of the analgesic action
of aspirin?

A. Stimulates μ opioid receptors
B. Blocks histamine H2
receptors
C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase
D. Inhibits lipoxygenase
E. Blocks sodium channels in nerves

A

C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase

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12
Q

What is the clinical setting for the use of
ketorolac by the oral route?

A. For severe pain
B. For initial treatment of pain
C. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of
ketorolac
D. Only in combination with an opioid
E. Only in combination with an NSAID

A

C. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of
ketorolac

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13
Q

The use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is
most clinically useful at what cell type?

A. Beta cells of the pancreas
B. Basophils
C. Mast cells
D. Juxtaglomerular cells
E. Parietal cells

A

E. Parietal cells

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14
Q

Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively reduces the release of renin from the kidney?

A. β-adrenergic receptor blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. α-adrenergic receptor blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Angiotensin II receptor blockers

A

A. β-adrenergic receptor blockers

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15
Q

The administration of which compound will give “epinephrine reversal” (drop in blood pressure from epinephrine) if given prior to administration of epinephrine?

A. Guanethidine
B. Propranolol
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Tyramine

A

C. Phenoxybenzamine

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of enoxaparin?

A. Inhibition of synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX,
and X
B. Activation of antithrombin III with resulting
inhibition of clotting factor Xa
C. Indirect activation of tissue plasminogen activator
D. Direct inhibition of plasminogen with resulting
degradation of fibrin
E. Dilation of coronary blood vessels

A

B. Activation of antithrombin III with resulting
inhibition of clotting factor Xa

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17
Q

Oropharyngeal candidiasis is an adverse effect
most likely with which drug?

A. Inhaled salmeterol
B. Inhaled ipratropium
C. Inhaled nedocromil
D. Inhaled beclomethasone
E. Inhaled methacholine

A

D. Inhaled beclomethasone

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18
Q

Oral antacids are most likely to reduce the absorption of which drug when it is given orally?

A. Clarithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin V
E. Tetracycline

A

E. Tetracycline

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19
Q

A decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver would
be expected from which drug?

A. Albuterol
B. Epinephrine
C. Glucagon
D. Insulin
E. Parathyroid hormone

A

D. Insulin

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20
Q

Nitrates and nitrites have what effect on blood
vessel smooth muscle?

A. Increase in the level of intracellular calcium
B. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine
monophosphate (cGMP)
C. Antagonism at α1-adrenergic receptors
D. Antagonism at β-adrenergic receptors
E. Inhibition of L-type calcium channels

A

B. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine
monophosphate (cGMP)

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21
Q

Clavulanic acid offers an advantage
therapeutically because it has what action?

A. It inhibits Streptococci at a low minimum
inhibitory concentration (MIC).
B. It inhibits transpeptidase.
C. It inhibits penicillinase.
D. It inhibits anaerobes at a low MIC.
E. It inhibits DNA gyrase.

A

C. It inhibits penicillinase.

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22
Q

Identify the enzyme whose inhibition is most
responsible for the cell wall synthesis inhibitory
effect of penicillin G.

A. β-lactamase
B. DNA gyrase
C. Nitro reductase
D. Transglycosylase
E. Transpeptidase

A

E. Transpeptidase

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23
Q

Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Metronidazole
E. Trimethoprim

A

E. Trimethoprim

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24
Q

Which of the following organisms is usually
sensitive to clindamycin?

A. Candida albicans
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

D. Streptococcus viridans

25
Q

Dihydrofolate reductase is an enzyme inhibited
by which anticancer drug?

A. Bleomycin
B. Cisplatin
C. Doxorubicin
D. 5-fluorouracil
E. Methotrexate

A

E. Methotrexate

26
Q

Tight capillary cell junctions resulting in an
added barrier to the entry of drugs is most
characteristic of which organ or tissue?

A. Adrenal gland
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Liver
E. Lung

A

B. Brain

27
Q

A prescription for which of the following drugs
requires a valid DEA number on the prescription?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Dexamethasone
D. Diphenhydramine
E. Oxycodone

A

E. Oxycodone

28
Q

What would be the effect of prior administra-
tion of a competitive drug antagonist on the
concentration–response profile of a drug
agonist on a graded concentration–response
curve? (Assume that both drugs act at the
same receptor.)

A. The agonist curve would shift to the left.
B. The agonist curve would shift to the right.
C. The agonist curve would not change.
D. The agonist curve would not shift but would
reach a lower maximal effect than the curve
with agonist alone.
E. The agonist curve would both shift to the left and have a lower maximal effect.

A

A. The agonist curve would shift to the left.

29
Q

How many human drug testing phases are carried out before a drug is marketed?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

C. Three

30
Q

In what situation is the postganglionic nerve of the sympathetic system a cholinergic nerve?

A. The nerves to the eye
B. The nerves to the heart
C. Most nerves to blood vessels
D. Most nerves to sweat glands
E. Most nerves to salivary glands

A

D. Most nerves to sweat glands

31
Q

Which is a nicotinic receptor?

A. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the
skeletal–neuromuscular junction
B. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and sweat glands
C. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve and the parotid gland
D. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and blood vessels
E. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve and the heart

A

A. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the
skeletal–neuromuscular junction

32
Q

Which of the following effects is a typical effect
of an antimuscarinic drug?

A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Lacrimation
C. Miosis
D. Sweating
E. Urinary retention

A

E. Urinary retention

33
Q

The administration of which compound will
give “epinephrine reversal” (drop in blood pressure from epinephrine) if given prior to administration of epinephrine?

A. Atropine
B. Guanethidine
C. Propranolol
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Tyramine

A

D. Phenoxybenzamine

34
Q

Motor adverse effects from phenothiazine
antipsychotic drugs are due to drug effects in
what region of the brain?

A. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Nigro-striatal pathway
E. Mesolimbic pathway

A

D. Nigro-striatal pathway

35
Q

A patient is administered haloperidol. Along
with the haloperidol, the patient also receives
benztropine. What is the most likely reason for
administering the benztropine?

A. To reduce the effects of histamine release
B. To aid in the therapeutic response to
haloperidol
C. To reduce the motor adverse effects of
haloperidol
D. To overcome a decrease in salivary flow
resulting from haloperidol
E. To reduce the rate of kidney excretion of
haloperidol

A

C. To reduce the motor adverse effects of
haloperidol

36
Q

The benzodiazepine receptors BZ 1 and BZ 2 are located on which ion channel?

A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium
E. Sodium

A

B. Chloride

37
Q

Methemoglobinemia is an adverse effect associated with which local anesthetic due to its metabolism to o-toluidine?

A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Bupivacaine
E. Benzocaine

A

C. Prilocaine

38
Q

Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac
arrhythmia when administered at the same
time as epinephrine?

A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Propofol
E. Sevoflurane

A

B. Halothane

39
Q

Local anesthetics act on what type of receptor?

A. An ion channel receptor
B. A nuclear receptor
C. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gs
D. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gq
E. A membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase
activity

A

A. An ion channel receptor

40
Q

Which drug lacks the amine group that other
anesthetics have and is used only topically?

A. Procaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Benzocaine
E. Prilocaine

A

D. Benzocaine

41
Q

Injecting a local anesthetic into an area of
inflammation would have which effect?

A. Increase the rate of onset of anesthesia.
B. Decrease the rate of metabolism of the
anesthetic.
C. Reduce the net anesthetic effect of the drug.
D. Reduce the vasodilator effect of the local
anesthetic.
E. Reduce the need for a vasoconstrictor with the local anesthetic.

A

C. Reduce the net anesthetic effect of the drug.

42
Q

Which two drugs have mechanisms of anal-
gesic action that are most similar?

A. Fentanyl, ibuprofen
B. Aspirin, codeine
C. Oxycodone, acetaminophen
D. Ibuprofen, naproxen
E. Aspirin, ibuprofen

A

D. Ibuprofen, naproxen

43
Q

Your patient is continually taking a small daily
dose of aspirin (82 mg) prescribed by the
patient’s physician. The object of this therapy
is most likely what mechanism?

A. To mimic the effect of endogenous endorphins
B. To inhibit the production of prostaglandin E1
C. To inhibit the production of thromboxane A2
D. To inhibit the production of arachidonic acid
E. To inhibit the production of leukotrienes

A

C. To inhibit the production of thromboxane A2

44
Q

Your patient indicates that he is taking medication for atrial fibrillation. He reports that a blood test has indicated that he has an INR number of 4.0. An emergency dental extraction is now required. Which postoperative medication would pose the greatest risk for an adverse effect in this patient?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Amoxicillin
C. Aspirin
D. Codeine
E. Ibuprofen

A

C. Aspirin

45
Q

Which drug blocks H1 histamine receptors but is least likely to cause sedation?

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Fexofenadine
D. Albuterol
E. Famotidine

A

C. Fexofenadine

46
Q

The use of selective COX-2 inhibitors has
recently been restricted or discontinued
because of what type of adverse effects?

A. Carcinogenesis
B. Cardiovascular disorders
C. Convulsive disorders
D. Striated muscle disorders
E. Skeletal disorders

A

B. Cardiovascular disorders

47
Q

Sodium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is inhibited by which drug?

A. Bumetanide
B. Chlorthalidone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Spironolactone
E. Triamterene

A

A. Bumetanide

48
Q

Torsades de pointes, or polymorphic ventricu-
lar tachycardia, is linked most closely to what
characteristic of the electrocardiogram?

A. Inverted T wave
B. Shorter P-R interval
C. Shorter P-P interval
D. Longer Q-T interval
E. Normal electrocardiogram

A

D. Longer Q-T interval

49
Q

Which antihypertensive drug also increases
bradykinin levels?

A. Candesartan
B. Furosemide
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
E. Nifedipine

A

C. Lisinopril

50
Q

Which one of the following drugs enters the
target cell and acts on a nuclear receptor?

A. Diazepam
B. Epinephrine
C. Insulin
D. Prednisone
E. Heparin

A

D. Prednisone

51
Q

Inhibiting a-glucosidase and reducing glucose
absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is
the mechanism of action of which drug?

A. Acarbose
B. Acetoheximide
C. Glyburide
D. Metformin
E. Pioglitazone

A

A. Acarbose

52
Q

Which of the following drugs blocks the aldos-
terone receptor?

A. Amiloride
B. Triamterene
C. Losartan
D. Spironolactone
E. Furosemide

A

D. Spironolactone

53
Q

Which drug is most selective as a glucocorticosteroid?

A. Aldosterone
B. Dexamethasone
C. Fludrocortisone
D. Hydrocortisone

A

B. Dexamethasone

54
Q

Stimulation of gluconeogenesis and lipolysis
are most characteristic of which hormone?

A. Calcitonin
B. Cortisol
C. Insulin
D. Parathyroid hormone
E. Progesterone

A

B. Cortisol

55
Q

Fanconi syndrome from outdated tetracyclines affects predominantly which organ?

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
E. Stomach

A

C. Kidney

56
Q

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococci are most
likely to be inhibited by which drug?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Vancomycin
E. Penicillin V

A

D. Vancomycin

57
Q

Pick the organism that is usually clinically sensitive to clarithromycin but not to penicillin V.

A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Leptotrichia buccalis
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

58
Q

What is the approximate elimination half-time
for penicillin V?

A. 0.5 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 8 hours
E. 12 hours

A

A. 0.5 hour

59
Q

Which drug has an antibacterial spectrum that
is limited to anaerobes?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Gentamicin
E. Metronidazole

A

E. Metronidazole

Pharmacology (1 decks)

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