Post Test Flashcards
A headgear appliance is used for:
A. Anchorage
B. Traction
C. Both anchorage and traction
D. Neither anchorage or traction
C. Both anchorage and traction
Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists?
A. The begg appliance
B. The edgewise appliance
C. The universal appliance
D. None of the above
B. The edgewise appliance
An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with a point contact. What is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation?
A. Tipping
B. Extrusion
C. Intrusion
D. Translation
A. Tipping
Prior to direct bonding, _______ is used as an etching agent. Prior to placing bands, _______ is used as an etching agent.
A. Nothing; 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid
B. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
C. Nothing; 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid
D. 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
B. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
Orthodontic forces can be treated mathematically as vectors.
Forces produce either translation (bodily movement), rotation, or a combination of translation and rotation, depending upon the relationship of the line of action of the force to the center of resistance of the tooth.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Both statements are true
Which of the following may cause extrusion of the maxillary first molars which can cause an open bite?
A. Straight-pull headgear
B. Reverse-pull headgear
C. Cervical-pull headgear
D. High-pull headgear
C. Cervical-pull headgear
Statement A: Maxillary expansion is often done to correct crossbites.
Statements B: Tongue thrusting often causes crossbite.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the statement is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
C. The first statement is true, the statement is false
Tongue thrusting often causes crossbite❌
Tongue thrusting often causes OPENBITE
A “Poor man’s Cephalometric Analysis” is performed via a:
A. Dental cast analysis
B. Facial profile analysis
C. Photographic analysis
D. Full face analysis
B. Facial profile analysis
In predicting the time of the pubertal growth spurt, while treating jaw relationships in a growing child, the orthodontist can get the most valuable information from:
A. Wrist-hand radiograph
B. Height-weight tables
C. Presence of secondary sex characteristics
D. Stage of dental development
A. Wrist-hand radiograph
During a serial extraction case, which teeth are NOT typically removed?
A. Primary canines
B. Primary first molars
C. Permanent first premolars
D. Primary second molars
D. Primary second molars
At age 9, young Jimmy needs his tooth #30 extracted due to caries. What is the proper space maintenance treatment?
A. Distal shoe on “T”
B. Band and loop on “T”
C. Removable partial denture
D. No space maintenance is needed
D. No space maintenance is needed
A post-orthodontic circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is performed to sever collagen fibers, thus reducing the tendency of a rotated tooth to relapse.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Both statements are true
Bone deposition in the _________ of the maxillary arch region is responsible for the lengthening
A. Palate
B. Tuberosity
C. Incisor
D. Zygomatic
B. Tuberosity
NOTES:
LENGTHENING= anteroposterior
WIDENING= lateral
The length of the mandibular arch is longer than the maxillary arch.
The difference is only about 2 mm.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
The length of the mandibular arch is longer than the maxillary arch. ❌
The length of the MAXILLARY arch is longer than the MANDIBULAR arch.
The most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine.
The longer a tooth has been impacted, the more likely it is to be ankylosed.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
The most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine.❌
The most commonly impacted tooth is the MAXILLARY canine.
The time required to upright a molar can vary from:
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 1-2 months
C. 2-6 months
D. 6-12 months
E. 2-3 years
D. 6-12 months
The time required to stabilize the molar can vary from:
A. 2-3 weeks
B. 1-2 months
C. 2-6 months
D. 6-12 months
E. 2-3 years
C. 2-6 months
All of the following are signs of incipient malocclusion, except?
A. Lack of spacing in primary dentition
B. Crowding of permanent incisors in mixed dentition
C. Premature loss of mandibular primary canines
D. Larger than normal primary teeth
D. Larger than normal primary teeth❌
A patient presents to your office claiming that they have “Long Face Syndrome” based on what he learned on webdds.com. The man has obvious mouth breathing as noted by your morning patient who sat next to the man in the waiting room. What malocclusion are you immediately thinking that he has?
A. Dental open bite
B. Skeletal open bite
C. Dental cross bite
D. Skeletal cross bite
B. Skeletal open bite
Which of the following is the least common?
A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. Normal occlusion
C. Class III malocclusion
NOTES:
Class I malocclusion > Class I NO> Class II malocclusion> Class III malocclusion
Primary molar relationships are known as:
A. Class relationships
B. Step relationships
C. Primitive relationships
D. Occlusion relationships
B. Step relationships
A periapical radiograph of primary tooth M shows tooth #22 overlapping half of the root. The patient is not in the chair, so you cannot palpate to determine on which side tooth #22 is erupting. What would you presume?
A. Tooth #22 is erupting distally
B. Tooth #22 is erupting mesially
C. Tooth #22 is erupting lingually
D. Tooth #22 is erupting facially
D. Tooth #22 is erupting facially
Which of the following teeth are required for a dentist to perform a Moyers’ mixed dentition analysis?
A. Mandibular first molars
B. Maxillary first molars
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors
C. Mandibular incisors
An 18-year-old patient presents back to you complaining of crowding of his lower anterior incisors. You explain that this is because of:
A. Late mandibular growth
B. Pressure from third molars
C. Maxillary tooth-size excess
D. Trauma
E. An oral habit he must have
A. Late mandibular growth
What are some of the potential negative tissue responses to heavy forces?
A. Root resorption
B. Excessive tooth mobility
C. Discomfort
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
An example of simple anchorage is
A. Diastema closure by elastic traction tipping the crown together
B. Extraoral force
C. Diastema closure by bodily movement of incisors
D. Intraarch elastics
A. Diastema closure by elastic traction tipping the crown together
Serious and difficult open bite cases are often characterized by which of the following cephalometric findings?
A. Shortened face height
B. Parallel relationship of anterior cranial base, palatal, occlusal and mandibular planes
C. Palatal plane tipped upward in the anterior in conjunction with a steep mandibular plane
D. Class II skeletal and dental pattern
C. Palatal plane tipped upward in the anterior in conjunction with a steep mandibular plane
Which of the following cannot be assessed with cephalometric radiographs
A. Mandibular retrusion
B. Mandibular lateral asymmetry
C. Vertical facial disproportion
D. Incisor position and angulation
E. Adequacy of dental arch perimeter
E. Adequacy of dental arch perimeter- can be seen in cast
Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
A. Root resorption
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. Mobility of teeth that are moved
D. Development of occlusal interferences
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?
A. The moment would decrease by 50%.
B. The moment would not change.
C. The moment would double.
D. The moment would increase by 4 times.
C. The moment would double.
Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
a. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
b. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
c. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
d. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
d. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
This has been adapted as the best horizontal orientation that assesses lateral representation of the skull. Which of the following cephalometric landmarks make up this plane when a line is drawn to connect them?
a. Sella and nasion
b. Gonion and gnathion
c. Porion and orbitale
d. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis and anterior nasal spine (ANS)
c. Porion and orbitale
Last primary tooth to be replaced?
A. Mandibular 2nd molar
B. Maxillary 2nd molar
C. Mandibular canine
D. Maxillary canine
D. Maxillary canine
What is the most common cause of an anterior crossbite of maxillary teeth in young children?
a. Oral habits
b. Trauma to the incisors
c. Jaw size discrepancies
d. Prolonged retention of primary teeth
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
In orthodontic therapy, adult patients in comparison with adolescent patients:
a. Needless periodontal maintenance during comprehensive orthodontic treatment
b. Are more compliant
c. Are less concerned with esthetic
d. Are more prone to decalcification stains on enamel
b. Are more compliant
Your patient is 4 years old. The maxillary left primary lateral incisor was traumatically avulsed 60 minutes ago. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Replant, splint, primary end
B. Replant, splint, formocresol pulpotomy
C. Replant, no splint, primary end
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Fluorosis is the result of excessive systemic fluoride during which stage of tooth development?
A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification
D. Calcification
Most commonly used drug in pediatric dentistry for sedation?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Midazolam
C. Chloral Hydrate
D. Diazepam
C. Chloral Hydrate
What is the pH threshold level at which enamel demineralization occurs?
A. 4.0
B. 4.7
C. 5.5
D. 6.0
C. 5.5
The success of pulpotomy for a primary molar depends primarily upon?
A. Vital root pulp
B. Patient’s age
C. The amount of root resorption
D. The absence of internal resorption
A. Vital root pulp
Union of teeth by cementum?
A. Hypercementosis
B. Fusion
C. Concrescence
D. Gemination
C. Concrescence
Supernumerary teeth are the result of an excess activity in which stage of development?
A. Morphodifferentiation
B. Apposition
C. Proliferation
D. Calcification
C. Proliferation
Cleft lip is formed due to the non-union of?
A. Maxillary process and mandibular process
B. Maxillary process with medial nasal process
C. Medial nasal process with lateral nasal process
D. Maxillary process with lateral nasal process
B. Maxillary process with medial nasal process
Type of radiograph used to check the presence of proximal caries
A. Periapical radiograph
B. Panoramic radiograph
C. Bitewing radiograph
D. Cephalogram
C. Bitewing radiograph
The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slopes toward the gingiva. The interproximal contacts of the primary teeth are broader and flatter.
A. Both are true
B. Both are false
C. First is true but second is false
D. First is false but second is true
D. First is false but second is true
The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slopes toward the gingiva❌
The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slopes toward the OCCLUSAL
At what stage in Nolla’s Calcification does a permanent tooth start to erupt?
A. Stage 6
B. Stage 7
C. Stage 8
D. Stage 9
A. Stage 6
NOTES:
NOLLA’S STAGE OF TOOTH DEVELOPMENT/ CALCIFICATION
Stage 0 - Absence of crypt
Stage 1 - Presence of crypt
Stage 2 - Initial calcification
Stage 3 - 1/3 of crown completed
Stage 4 - 2/3 of crown completed
Stage 5N- Crown almost completed
Stage 6 - Crown completed, ERUPTION STARTS
Stage 7 - 1/3 of root completed
Stage 8 - 2/3 of root completed
Stage 9 - Root almost completed
Stage 10- Root completed
The calcification of the maxillary and mandibular molars occurs at what age?
A. 4 months IU
B. 6 months after birth
C. After birth
D. 16 weeks IU
C. After birth
What is the position of the developing crowns of the permanent incisors in relation to the roots of the primary incisors?
A. In labial position with labial inclination
B. In lingual position with labial inclination
C. In labial position with lingual inclination
D. In lingual position with lingual inclination
B. In lingual position with labial inclination
When does crowns of the primary teeth begin to calcify?
A. 4-6 months IU
B. At birth
C. 24-26 weeks IU
D. All of the above
A. 4-6 months IU (2nd Trimester, 14-24 weeks)
When there is loss of a primary molar before the age of 7, the eruption of the succeeding permanent tooth will be?
A. Hastened
B. Delayed
C. It will not affect the eruption
D. It will result to impaction of the succeeding tooth
B. Delayed
NOTES:
before age 4= delay
after age 4= hastened
When the lines connecting sella–nasion and gonion–menton meet, they create an angle that helps to determine the malocclusion. What type of anterior vertical dimension and malocclusion correlates with this steep angle?
a. Long anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite malocclusion.
b. Short anterior vertical dimension and an open-bite malocclusion.
c. Short anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite malocclusion.
d. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open-bite malocclusion.
d. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open bite malocclusion.
First dental visit must be when?
A. 6 months after birth
B. At birth
C. After the 1st birthday
D. 7 months after birth
A. 6 months after birth
Refusal of treatment
A. FRANKL 1
B. FRANKL 2
C. FRANKL 3
D. FRANKL 4
A. FRANKL 1
NOTES:
FRANKL Behavior Rating Scale
FRANKL 1/Definitely Negative
- Refusal of treatment
- Extreme negativism
- Crying forcefully
FRANKL 2/Negative
- Reluctant to accept treatment
- Uncooperative
- Shows some evidence of negative attitude but not pronounced
FRANKL 3/Positive
- Acceptance of treatment with some reservations
- Follows the dentist’s directions cooperatively
FRANKL 4/Definitely Positive
- Good rapport with the dentist
- Interested in the procedures
- Enjoys the situation
What rule in the pediatric dosage formula is for infants?
A. Young’s rule
B. Bastedo’s rule
C. Clark’s rule
D. Fried’s rule
D. Fried’s rule
NOTES:
Young’s Rule- Uses age in years
Bastedo’s Rule- Uses age in years
Clark’s Rule- Uses weight
Fried’s Rule- Uses age in months, For infants
Your patient is 7 years old and has a very large carious lesion on tooth T. What radiological factors should be used in determining the best treatment of choice between pulpotomy and primary endodontics?
A. External root resorption
B. Internal root resorption
C. Furcation involvement
D. All of the above
C. Furcation involvement
Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates better success rates than formocresol?
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. MTA
C. Ferric sulfate
D. ZOE
B. MTA
Gingival margin of a tooth that will receive a stainless steel crown should have a ____ finish?
A. Shoulder
B. Chamfer
C. Feather edge
D. Bevelled
C. Feather edge
NOTES:
Shoulder- Ceramic, Porcelain
Chamfer- Metal
Feather edge- Gold or SSC
Bevelled (Knife edge) - Tilted abutments
A 5-year old girl lives in an area with 0.4 ppm F in the city drinking water. How much supplemental fluoride should you prescribe for the patient to consume the optimal amount of fluoride?
A. 0 mg
B. 0.25 mg
C. 0.5 mg
D. 1.0 mg
B. 0.25 mg
Radiographic examination of a child revealed congenital absence of clavicles and presence of multiple supernumerary teeth. What is the condition?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
C. Gardner’s s syndrome
D. Peut-Jegher’s Syndrome
B. Cleidocranial dysostosis
What is the most common type of gingivitis seen in children?
A. ANUG
B. Eruption gingivitis
C. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Aphthous ulcer
B. Eruption gingivitis
In tooth preparation for a stainless steel crown, the surface requiring the least amount of reduction is the?
A. Distal
B. Buccal
C. Lingual
D. Mesial
C. Lingual
After eruption of permanent tooth, the time required for complete formation of its root is approximately
A. 4-5 years
B. 1-2 years
C. 2-3 years
D. The time required is unpredictable
C. 2-3 years
Examination of a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals an abnormal resorption pattern in primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth, and a large tongue. What is the suspected condition?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Gigantism
D. None of the above
B. Hypothyroidism
NOTES:
HYPERTHYROIDISM: ↑metabolism, ↑eruption
HYPOTHYROIDISM: ↓metabolism, ↓eruption, Large tongue
What is the chief factor in the formation of alveolar process?
A. Normal process of growth
B. Growth of the condyle
C. Eruption of teeth
D. Overall growth of the bodies of maxilla and mandible
C. Eruption of teeth
A healthy 5-year old child has a necrotic pulp in the primary 2nd molar that has a permanent successor. The primary 2nd molar should be?
A. Treated endodontically
B. Apexification
C. Allowed to remain in the mouth, unless is creating pain for the patient
D. Allowed to remain in the mouth to serve as a space maintainer
A. Treated endodontically (Pulpectomy)
When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars will _____.
a. Move distally and intrude
b. Move mesially and extrude
c. Move mesially and intrude
d. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction
b. Move mesially and extrude
Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which of the following tooth movements?
a. Intruding maxillary incisors
b. Uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
c. Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
d. Using a lip bumper
a. Intruding maxillary incisors
The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice?
a. Refer to a speech pathologist.
b. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
c. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
d. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.
d. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.
Orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient with a heavy maxillary frenum.
a. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
b. Is accomplished after the frenum surgery.
c. After orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is typically not indicated.
d. After frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is typically not indicated.
a. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
Why would an orthodontist place a nonrigid archwire at the beginning of treatment?
a. The appliance may break if a rigid archwire is placed.
b. The nonrigid archwire is more pliable,which is needed in the initial stages of treatment of malocclusions.
c. The rigid archwire may become permanently deformed if placed at the beginning of treatment.
d. All of the above are correct.
d. All of the above are correct.
What is a second-order bend?
a. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually
b. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
c. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque)
d. A bend to rotate a toot
b. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
Which statement is true regarding Invisalign treatment?
a. Aligners are worn 24 hours a day and taken off for eating, drinking, and oral hygiene.
b. Change set of new aligners every two weeks.
c. Focus is esthetic and functional alignment without utilization of complex orthodontic auxiliary treatments.
d. Treatment is focused on straight forward cases (20 aligners or less).
e. All of the above are true.
e. All of the above are true.
Which case would satisfy the Invisalign criteria?
a. More than 2 mm crowding between any two anterior teeth
b. Class III bilateral molar relationship
c. Patient with moderate to severe periodontal disease
d. A 9-year-old patient
e. Patient must have fully erupted second molars.
e. Patient must have fully erupted second molars.
Which of the following will require the most force to move tooth #27?
a. Tipping
b. Translation
c. Root uprighting
d. Rotation
e. Extrusion
b. Translation
NOTES:
Tipping- 35-60g
Translation- 70-120g
Root uprighting- 50-100g
Rotation- 35-60g
Extrusion- 35-60g
Below are the indications for using bands instead of brackets, except for:
a. Patient with amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Teeth with long clinical crowns
c. Patient with cuspal interference
d. Teeth that will need both lingual and labial attachment
b. Teeth with long clinical crowns❌
Teeth with SHORT clinical crowns
Which one of the following statements is false about headgear?
a. Headgear is typically used in skeletal class II.
b. Headgear needs to be worn 10 to 14 hours per day to be effective.
c. Treatment length is 6 to 18 months.
d. Headgear can be used in adult patients.
e. All of the above statements are true.
e. All of the above statements are true.
The wrist–hand radiograph is used by orthodontists to predict the time of the pubertal growth spurt and thus jaw growth. What is examined in the wrist–hand radiograph?
a. Carpal bones of the wrist
b. Metacarpal bones of the hand
c. Phalanges of the fingers
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
When is a Nance appliance indicated?
a. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
b. Bilateral loss of primary mandibular molars
c. Loss of one primary molar
d. To control thumb-sucking behavior
a. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
A corrected anterior crossbite is best retained by
a. The overbite achieved during treatment
b. Overtreatment and anticipated relapse
c. Using a maxillary Hawley retainer for stabilization
d. Using a mandibular acrylic guide plane
a. The overbite achieved during treatment
In a pseudo–class III malocclusion, the patient has the ability to:
a. Bring the mandible back with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
b. Bring the mandible forward without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
c. Bring the mandible forward with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
d. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
d. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
