DECKS Flashcards
All of the following are advantages of the indirect method of bonding brackets to a tooth over the direct method EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Reduced chair-side time
b. More precise location of brackets possible in the laboratory
c. Bontrolled thickness of the resin between the tooth and the bracket interface
d. Less technique sensitive
e. Easier clean-up during bonding and de-bonding
f. Better visualization in lab (especially for lingual brackets)
d. Less technique sensitive❌
NOTES:
The indirect bonding technique is more complex and technique sensitive and requires extra precautions.
The following are considered functional appliances EXCEPT
a. Frankel
b. Bionator
c. Clark’s twin block
d. Herbst
e. Activator
f. Quad-helix
f. Quad-helix
NOTES:
The quad-helix is a fixed appliance that consists of 4 helices (2 anterior and 2 posterior). Essentially, this appliance is used for posterior cross-bite cases with a digital-sucking habit.
Functional Appliance- are used to treat Class II malocclusions.
A headgear appliance is used for:
a. Anchorage
b. Traction
c. Both anchorage and traction
d. Neither anchorage or traction
c. Both anchorage and traction
NOTES:
ANCHORAGE- maintain space
TRACTION- create space
The following are fixed orthodontic appliances EXCEPT
a. Lingual archwires
b. Whip-spring appliances
c. Palate-separating devices
d. Frankel’s appliances
e. Edgewise mechanisms
f. Light-wire appliances
d. Frankel’s appliances
NOTES:
Frankel’s appliance- is a removable functional appliance and is employed in cases of abnormal
(hyperactive) soft tissue patterns.
When comparing stainless steel versus nickel titanium in orthodontic wires, stainless steel has a ____ modulus of elasticity, and ____ resilience.
a. higher, higher
b. higher, lower
c. lower, higher
d. lower, lower
b. higher, lower
NOTES:
Higher modulus of elasticity (stiffer), lower resilience (lower clastic limit) Ni-Ti has better resilience.
Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists?
a. The begg appliance
b. The edgewise appliance
c. The universal appliance
d. None of the above
b. The edgewise appliance
The Hawley retainer is the most common retainer in orthodontics because it can use the palate for anchorage.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
NOTES:
Multiple appliances can use the palate for anchorage. The true reason that the Hawley retainer is the most common is because of the variety of benefits it has and can have when used properly.
The maxillary fixed bilateral space maintainer. This type of space maintainer also is known as a:
a. Distal shoe
b. Nance appliance
c. Lingual holding arch
d. Hawley retainer
e. Band and loop (bilateral)
b. Nance appliance
An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with a point contact. What is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation?
a. Tipping
b. Extrusion
c. Intrusion
d. Translation
a. Tipping
NOTES:
Finger springs-best method for tipping maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth. These are attached to a removable appliance.
Prior to direct bonding, ___ is used as an etching agent. Prior to placing bands, ___ is used as an etching agent.
a. nothing; 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid
b. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
c.nothing; 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid
d. 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
b. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing
NOTES:
When placing bands, either glass ionomer or zinc phosphate cements are used and do not require etching.
An example of a maxillary permanent central incisor in crossbite is shown. In order to treat this condition properly, the dentist should do what?
a. Do nothing until all permanent teeth have erupted
b. Surgically reposition the central incisor
c. Correct the condition immediately with a simple appliance
d. place a maxillary expander
c. Correct the condition immediately with a simple appliance
NOTES:
Ideally, this anterior crossbite should be corrected before it reached the occlusal plane (while it was erupting). The most probable etiologic factor for this happening is prolonged retention of the primary maxillary incisors.
Orthodontic forces can be treated mathematically as vectors.
Forces produce either translation (bodily movement), rotation, or a combination of translation and rotation , depending upon the relationship of the line of action of the force to the center of resistance of the tooth.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
Which of the following may cause extrusion of the maxillary first molars which can cause an open bite?
a. Straight-pull headgear
b. Reverse-pull headgear
c. Cervical-pull headgear
d. High-pull headgear
c. Cervical-pull headgear
NOTES:
High-pull headgear: Distally + Extrude
Straight-pull headgear: Distally
Cervical-pull headgear: Distally + Intrude
Which condition is appropriately treated at an early age?
a. Deviated midline in the absence of a functional shift
b. Mild crowding of lower permanent incisors
c. Two deciduous molars nearly in crossbite
d. Posterior crossbite with a functional shift
d. Posterior crossbite with a functional shift
Displaced teeth related to functional shifts occur in which of the following situations? Select 2.
a. Posterior crossbite after prolonged thumb sucking
b. Class II, division I malocclusion
c. Anterior crossbite in mildly prognathic children
d. An anterior open bite after prolonged thumb sucking
a. Posterior crossbite after prolonged thumb sucking
c. Anterior crossbite in mildly prognathic children
Maxillary expansion is often done to correct crossbites. Tongue thrusting often causes an anterior open bite.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
Which of the following are not classic symptoms of a sucking habit?
a. Anterior open bite
b. Crossbite
c. Expanded maxillary arch
d. Proclination of the maxillary incisors
e. Retroclination of the mandibular incisors
f. A Class III malocclusion
c. Expanded maxillary arch❌
CONSRICTION of the maxillary arch occurs, not expansion.
An anterior crossbite should be corrected as soon as it is detected, because it is difficult to retain the corrected occlusion.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
A patient’s SNA angle is 78°. The SNB angle is 76º. This tells us that the maxilla is ____, the mandible is, ____ and the skeletal profile is ____.
a. prognathic; retrognathic; class I
b. retrognathic; prognathic; class III
c. prognathic; prognathic; class I
d. retrognathic; retrognathic; class I
e. prognathic; prognathic; class I
f. retrognathic; retrognathic; class II
d. retrognathic; retrognathic; class I
NOTES:
SNA ANGLE- angle created in the intersection from from the sella turcica (S) to nasion (N) and one from nasion to Point A. (82°)
MAXILLARY PROGNATHISM: > 82° SNA
MAXILLARY RETROGNATHISM: < 82° SNA
SNB ANGLE - created by the intersection of line SN and NB defines the sagittal location of the mandibular denture base. (80°)
MANDIBULAR PROGNATHISM: > 80° SNB
MANDIBULAR RETROGNATHISM: < 80° SNB
SNA- SNB= ANB
ANB= 2°
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 1: 2° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 2: > 4° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 3: <0° ANB
A “Poor man’s Cephalometric Analysis” is performed via a:
a. Dental cast analysis
b. Facial profile analysis
c. Photographic analysis
d. Full face analysis
b. Facial profile analysis
All of the following correlate with a steep mandibular plane EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Long anterior facial vertical dimension
b. Anterior open bite
c. Tendency toward a Class III malocclusion
d. Greater maxillary-mandibular plane angle
c. Tendency toward a Class III malocclusion❌
Tendency toward a Class II malocclusion
What is needed so that soft tissues are clearly visible on a lateral cephalometric radiograph?
a. Adjustment in kilovoltage
b. Adjustment in milliamperage
c. A soft tissue shield
d. A hard tissue shield
e. Nothing must be done to make soft tissues visible
c. A soft tissue shield
The Frankfort-Horizontal plane is constructed by drawing a line connecting porion (4) and orbitale (8).
This has been adopted as the best representation of the natural orientation of the skull.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
In predicting the time of the pubertal growth spurt, while treating jaw malrelationships in a growing child, the orthodontist can get the most valuable information from:
a. Wrist-hand radiograph
b. Height-weight tables
c. Presence of secondary sex characteristics
d. Stage of dental development
a. Wrist-hand radiograph
NOTES:
The physiologic age or developmental age can be judged by finding out the skeletal development.
ADOLESCENT GROWTH SPURT:
Landmarks: ulnar sesamoid or hamate bones
In a serial extraction case, please select the correct order of tooth removal:
a. Primary canine, Primary first molar, Permanent first premolar
b. Primary first molar, Primary canine, Permanent first premolar
c. Permanent first premolar, Primary canine, Primary first molar
d. Primary canine, Primary first molar, Primary second molar
a. Primary canine, Primary first molar, Permanent first premolar (CD4)
NOTES:
METHODS OF SERIAL EXTRACTION
DEWEL’S METHOD: CD4- most common
TWEED’S METHOD: D4C
Arrange the following procedures into their proper sequence for molar uprighting of a tooth requiring both a crown and crown lengthening?
- Band
- Complete crown preparation and fabrication
- Complete crown lengthening procedure
- Separate
- Upright
(4) Separate
(1) Band
(5) Upright
(2) Complete crown lengthening procedure
(3) Complete crown preparation and fabrication
It age 9, young Jimmy needs his tooth #30 extracted due to caries. What is the proper space maintenance treatment?
a. Distal shoe on “T”
b. Band and loop on “T”
c. Removable partial denture
d. No space maintenance is needed
d. No space maintenance is needed - #31 has not erupted yet and it will tend to erupt close to the area of where # 30 had been
____ describes the movement of the crown in one direction while the root tip is displaced in the opposite direction. ____ is controlled root movement while the crown is held relatively stable.
a. Torque, translation
b. Tipping, torque
c. Tipping, translation
d. Translation, torque
b. Tipping, torque
A post-orthodontic circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is performed to sever collagen fibers, thus reducing the tendency of a rotated tooth to relapse.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
Which of the following are part of the rationale for retention in orthodontics (accomplished with fixed or removable retainers)?
a. Allow for reorganization of the gingival and periodontal tissues
b. Minimize changes due to growth
c. Maintain teeth in unstable conditions
d. Permit neuromuscular adaptation to the corrected tooth position
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
The cranial vault is made up of a number of flat bones that are formed by ______, ______ cartilaginous precursors.
a. endochondral bone formation; with
b. intramembranous bone formation; without
c. both endochondral and intramembranous bone formation; with
d. both endochondral and intramembranous bone formation; without
b. intramembranous bone formation; without
NOTES:
Cranial base: Endochondral bone formation = cartilaginous precursors
Cranial case/ vault: Intramembranous bone formation= “ossification centers”
Once bone is formed, it grows by:
a. Interstitial growth only
b. Appositional growth only
c. Both appositional and interstitial growth
d. Degenerative changes into bony structures
b. Appositional growth only
Cartilage differs from bone in that cartilage can increase in size by:
a. Apposition
b. Sutural expansion
c. Interstitial growth
d. Endosteal remodeling
c. Interstitial growth
The sole function of the alveolar process is to support the teeth, which is why it resorbs if a permanent tooth is extracted.
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
e. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
Bone deposition in the _____ region is responsible for the lengthening of the maxillary arch.
a. palate
b. tuberosity
c. incisor
d. zygomatic
b. tuberosity
An 18-year-old patient presents back to you complaining of crowding of his lower anterior incisors. You explain that this is because of:
a. Late mandibular growth
b. Pressure from third molars
c. Maxillary tooth-size excess
d. Trauma
e. An oral habit he must have
a. Late mandibular growth
What percentage of 6-year-old children have a median (maxillary) diastema?
a. 78%
b. 98%
c. 49%
d. Less than 25%
b. 98%
NOTES:
It is prevalent in 49% of 11-year-old children.
The length of the mandibular arch is longer than the maxillary arch.
The difference is only about 2 mm.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d, The first statement is false, the second is true
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
The length of the mandibular arch is longer than the maxillary arch❌
MAX: 128 mm
MAND: 126 mm
The most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine.
The longer a tooth has been impacted, the more likely it is to be ankylosed.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
The most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine. ❌
The most commonly impacted tooth is the MAXILLARY canine.
If a permanent maxillary first molar has erupted ectopically against the distal root surface of a primary second molar, what would be the treatment of choice?
a. Disking the distal of the primary first molar
b. An appliance incorporating a finger spring to move the primary second molar mesially
c. A brass wire placed between the primary second molar and permanent first molar
d. Extraction of the primary second molar
c. A brass wire placed between the primary second molar and permanent first molar
The time required to upright a molar can vary from:
a. 2-3 weeks
b. 1-2 months
c. 2-6 months
d. 6-12 months
e. 2-3 years
d. 6-12 months
The time required to stabilize the molar can vary from:
a. 2-3 weeks
b. 1-2 months
c. 2-6 months
d. 6-12 months
e. 2-3 years
c. 2-6 months
The triangular ridge of the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar articulates in the buccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar.
a. Normal occlusion
b. Class I malocclusion
c. Class II malocclusion
d. Class III malocclusion
a. Normal occlusion
It has the normal molar relationship but the incorrect line of occlusion.
a. Normal occlusion
b. Class I malocclusion
c. Class II malocclusion
d. Class III malocclusion
b. Class I malocclusion
It has the mandibular molar placed behind or posterior to the maxillary molar
a. Normal occlusion
b. Class I malocclusion
c. Class II malocclusion
d. Class III malocclusion
c. Class II malocclusion
It has the mandibular molar placed forward or anterior to the maxillary molar.
a. Normal occlusion
b. Class I malocclusion
c. Class II malocclusion
d. Class III malocclusion
d. Class III malocclusion
The following are signs of incipient malocclusion EXCEPT
a. Lack of spacing in primary dentition
b. Crowding of permanent incisors in mixed dentition
c. Premature loss of mandibular primary canines
d. Larger than normal primary teeth
d. Larger than normal primary teeth
A patient presents to your office claiming that they have “Long Face Syndrome” based on what he learned on WebDDS.com. The man has obvious mouth breathing as noted by your morning patient who sat next to the man in the waiting room. What malocclusion are you immediately thinking that he has?
a. Dental open bite
b. Skeletal open bite
c. Dental crossbite
d. Skeletal crossbite
b. Skeletal open bite
Angle’s Class I occlusion represents ___% of the population. Angle’s Class II represents ___% of the population. While Angle’s Class III occlusion represents the remainder.
a. 40; 55
b. 50; 45
c. 60; 35
d. 70; 25
d. 70; 25
NOTES:
CLASS 1 MO: 70%
CLASS 2 MO: 25%
CLASS 3 MO: 5%
What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in Class I malocclusions?
a. SNA angle of > 84°
b. SNB angle of < 78°
c. ANB angle of < 4°
d. None of the above
c. ANB angle of < 4°
NOTES:
SNA ANGLE- angle created in the intersection from from the sella turcica (S) to nasion (N) and one from nasion to Point A. (82°)
MAXILLARY PROGNATHISM: > 82° SNA
MAXILLARY RETROGNATHISM: < 82° SNA
SNB ANGLE - created by the intersection of line SN and NB defines the sagittal location of the mandibular denture base. (80°)
MANDIBULAR PROGNATHISM: > 80° SNB
MANDIBULAR RETROGNATHISM: < 80° SNB
SNA- SNB= ANB
ANB= 2°
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 1: 2° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 2: > 4° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 3: <0° ANB
A concave profile is associated with a Class III occlusion.
It is also termed a retrognathic profile.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
It is also termed a retrognathic profile.❌
It is also termed a PROGNATHIC profile
NOTES:
Class 2 MO: RETROGNATHIC, CONVEX
Class 3 MO: PROGNATHIC, CONCAVE
Which of the following terms can be used to describe a Class II malocclusion?
a. Retrognathism only
b. Overbite only
c. Underbite only
d. Overbite or retrognathism
e. Underbite or prognathism
d. Overbite or retrognathism
Which of the following is the least common?
a. Class I malocclusion
b. Class II malocclusion
c. Class III malocclusion
d. Normal occlusion
c. Class III malocclusion
The existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure to avoid incisor interference is found in:
a. “True” class III malocclusions
b. “Pseudo” class III malocclusions
c. “Sunday bite”
d. All of the above
b. “Pseudo” class III malocclusions
The most common cause of Class I malocclusion is:
a. An abnormal frenum
b. Uneven growth of the arches
c. Mandibular incisor crowding
d. Discrepancy between tooth size and supporting bone
d. Discrepancy between tooth size and supporting bone
The following are generalized causes of failure of tooth eruption or delayed tooth eruption EXCEPT
a. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
b. Down syndrome
c. Rickets
d. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism❌ -can result in the premature exfoliation of primary teeth.
Which of the following statements regarding the effect of environmental influences during growth and development of the face, jaws and teeth are true?
a. Patients who have excessive overbite or anterior open bite usually have posterior teeth that are infra- or supra-erupted respectively
b. A non-nutritive sucking habit leads to malocclusion only if it continues during the mixed dentition stage
c. Negative pressure created within the mouth during sucking is not considered a cause
of constriction of the maxillary arch
d. “Adenoids” which lead to mouth breathing, cannot be indicted with certainty as an etiologic agent of a long-face pattern of malocclusion because studies show that the majority of the long-face population have no nasal obstruction
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
e. All of the above
Which of the following statements are true? Select 2.
a. In the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the central incisors and lateral incisors
b. In the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
c. In the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the canines and first molars
d. In the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
b. In the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
c. In the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the canines and first molars
Which of the following primary molar relationships could you expect to result in a class II relationship in the permanent dentition?
a. Mesial Step
b. Flush Terminal Plane
c. Distal Step
d. Terminal Shift
c. Distal Step
NOTES:
Flush Terminal Plane: leads to Class 1
Distal Step: Class 2
Mesial Step: Class 3
A periapical radiograph of primary tooth M shows tooth #22 overlapping half of the root. The patient is not in the chair, so you cannot palpate to determine on which side tooth #22 is erupting. What would you presume?
a. Tooth #22 is erupting distally
b. Tooth #22 is erupting mesially
c. Tooth #22 is erupting lingually
d. Tooth #22 is erupting facially
d. Tooth #22 is erupting facially
NOTES:
Sometimes the permanent mandibular canines erupt facially relative to the primary canines.
However, often they are right in line with the primary canines.
Leeway space is a calculated difference between primary and permanent tooth size.
There is typically more leeway space in the maxillary arch.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
There is typically more leeway space in the maxillary arch.❌
There is typically more leeway space in the MANDIBULAR arch.
A 6-year-old patient and her mother present to your office. Her mom’s chief complaint is “My kid’s overbite makes her look like Bugs Bunny, her front teeth hide her lower lip.” What is wrong with the mom’s statement?
a. She is mixing up overbite and overjet
b. She is mixing up overbite and open bite
c. She is mixing up overbite and negative overjet
d. She is mixing up her cartoon characters
a. She is mixing up overbite and overjet
NOTES:
Overjet - is in the anterior-posterior dimension
Overbite- is in the vertical direction.
Which of the following teeth are required for a dentist to perform a Moyers’ mixed dentition analysis?
a. Mandibular first molars
b. Maxillary first molars
c. Mandibular incisors
d. Maxillary incisors
c. Mandibular incisors
Which of the following is false concerning a mixed dentition analysis?
a. It is used to predict the amount of crowding after the permanent teeth erupt
b. It determines space available vs. space required
c. The analysis is based on a correlation of tooth size
d. It is performed during the mixed dentition
e. It is performed with a boley gauge, study models and a prediction table
f. Analysis is done for each quadrant
f. Analysis is done for each quadrant❌
Analysis is done for each ARCH
Radiographs of a preschool child with __ will show obliteration of the pulp chambers with secondary dentin, a characteristic finding.
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
C. Fluorosis
D. Enamel hypoplasia
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
___ is a condition produced when two tooth buds are joined together during development and appear as a macrodont.
A. Concresence
B. Gemination
C. Fusion
D. Dens in dente
C. Fusion
Excessive fluoride levels in drinking water are associated with fluorosis. Fluoride levels in excess of ___ to pose a risk for fluorosis.
A. One part per million
B. Two parts per million
C. Three parts per million
D. Four parts per million
C. Three parts per million
____ is the bedrock strategy on which all of pediatric dental behavior management rests.
A. Tell-Show-Do (TSD)
B. Positive Reinforcement
C. Distraction
D. Nonverbal communication
A. Tell-Show-Do (TSD)
When treating a child who is obviously afraid, the dentist should:
A. Use restraint
B. Use the hand-over-mouth technique (HOME)
C. Permit the child to express his fear
D. Avoid all reference to the child’s fear
C. Permit the child to express his fear
The process of shaping a patient’s behavior through appropriately timed feedback is called:
A. Tell-Show-Do (TSD)
B. Voice control
C. Positive Reinforcement
D. Distraction
E. Nonverbal communication
C. Positive Reinforcement
All of the following procedures have proved beneficial in treating an intellectually disabled child EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Speak slowly and in very simple terms
B. Listen carefully to the patient
C. Schedule long appointments
D. Ask the patient of there are any questions about anything you will be doing
C. Schedule long appointments❌
Schedule SHORT appointments
The management of a child who must undergo dental extractions is based on which of the following factors?
A. The age and maturity of the child
B. The past medical and dental experiences that might influence the behavior of the child
C. The physical status of the child
D. The length of time and amount of manipulation necessary to accomplish the surgery
E. AOTA
E. AOTA
All of the following instances may make the use of rubber dam impractical EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
A. The presence of fixed orthodontic appliances
B. A patient with congested nasal passages or other nasal obstruction
C. A very nervous or anxious patient
D. A recently erupted tooth that will not retain a clamp
C. A very nervous or anxious patient
Which of the following is often caused by a strain of coxsackie A virus?
A. Herpangina
B. Scarlet fever
C. Diphtheria
D. Mumps
A. Herpangina
All of the following statements concerning necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. It is also called Vincent infection, Vincent angina, or “trench mouth”
B. It is a gingival disease characterized by painful hyperemic gingiva, punched-out erosions of the
interproximal papilla, covered by a gray pseudomembrane with an accompanying fetid odor
C. Risks include poor oral hygiene, poor nutrition, smoking, and emotional stress
D. It usually affects children
E. Fusiforns and spirochetes, as well as Prevotella intermedia, have been implicated in the etiology of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
D. It usually affects children❌
It usually affects MIDDLE-AGED
A Class II cleft palate involves what structures?
A. Hard and soft palates
B. Soft palate only
C. Alveolar process only
D. Hard palate only
A. Hard and soft palates
Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by. Select 4.
A. Sparse hair
B. Lack of sweat glands
C. Oversized crowns
D. Elongated roots
E. Normal mental status
F. An enlarged mandible
G. Absence of teeth
A. Sparse hair
B. Lack of sweat glands
E. Normal mental status
G. Absence of teeth
All of the following are characteristics of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Caused by HPV-2
B. Disease is self-limited lasting 10-14 days
C. Generally affects children under the age of three with prodromal symptoms
D. Can occur on keratinized and unkeratinized mucosa
A. Caused by HPV-2❌
Caused by HSV-1
Cellulitis in a child is easier to treat than in adults.
The most common causative organisms of cellulitis are group A streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
Cellulitis in a child is easier to treat than in adults.❌
Cellulitis in a child is HARDER to treat than in adults.
NOTES:
It is harder because dehydration occurs more rapidly, frequently and severely.
Historically, the incidence of dental decay in individuals with Down syndrome has been reported to be ____. The rate of periodontal disease in these persons has been reported to be ____
A. extremely high, extremely low
B. relatively the same as the general population, extremely high
C. extremely low, relatively the same as the general population
D. extremely low, extremely high
D. extremely low, extremely high
Type 1 diabetes is the most common form seen and children and exhibits all of the following subjective characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Polyuria
B. Polyphagia
C. Polydipsia
D. Polymyalgia
D. Polymyalgia
Type 1 diabetes is the most common form seen and children and exhibits all of the following subjective characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Polyuria
B. Polyphagia
C. Polydipsia
D. Polymyalgia
D. Polymyalgia
The hemangioma is usually treated by conservative surgical excision.
Hemangiomas are more common in boys than girls.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
Hemangiomas are more common in boys than girls.❌
Hemangiomas are (5x) more common in GIRLS than boys.
Which of the following is very common in a child with achondroplasia?
A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. None of the above
C. Class III malocclusion
The following are oral manifestations of Apert syndrome EXCEPT
A. Class II malocclusion
B. Severely delayed eruption
C. Trapezoidal-shaped mouth
D. Severe crowding of the teeth
E. Ectopic eruption
F. Shovel-shaped incisors
G. Byzantine-arch shaped palate
A. Class II malocclusion❌
Class III malocclusion
Which of the following are true concerning a young epileptic who has a grand mal seizure in the dental office?
A. It is generally fatal
B. It is best treated by injecting insulin
C. They generally recover if restrained from self-injury and oxygen is maintained
D. It can be prevented with antibiotics
C. They generally recover if restrained from self-injury and oxygen is maintained
The most common of the craniofacial malformations is:
A. Bifid tongue
B. Macroglossia
C. Cleft palate and cleft lip
D. Anodontia
C. Cleft palate and cleft lip
Which type of leukemia is referred to as the “leukemia of childhood”?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
An important diagnostic finding in congenital porphyria is the presence of red-brown teeth in both the deciduous and permanent dentition.
The oral mucosa is rarely affected in porphyrias.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Both statements are true
In baby bottle decay, the teeth typically are decayed in a specific order. Place the teeth in the correct order.
A. Maxillary posterior teeth
B. Mandibular posterior teeth
C. Maxillary anterior teeth
D. Mandibular anterior teeth
(C) Maxillary anterior teeth
(A) Maxillary posterior teeth
(B) Mandibular posterior teeth
(D) Mandibular anterior teeth
All of the following statements concerning recurrent aphthous ulcers (canker sores) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. They occur in women more than men
B. They may occur at any age, but usually first appear between the ages of 10 and 40 years
C. The cause is a Coxsackie virus
D. They appear to be associated with stress
E. They usually appear on nonkeratinized oral mucosa, including the inner surface of the cheeks and lips, tongue, soft palate, and the base of the gingiva
C. The cause is a Coxsackie virus❌
The cause is UNKNOWN.
Cretinism is a deficiency disease caused by the congenital absence of;
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Calcitonin
D. Epinephrine
B. Thyroxine
In children with cystic fibrosis, halitosis is common.
In children with cystic fibrosis, dental development is normal but eruption is delayed.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
In children with cystic fibrosis, dental development is normal but eruption is delayed❌
In children with cystic fibrosis, BOTH dental development AND but eruption are DELAYED.
The oral lesions are pathognomonic of:
A. Smallpox (variola)
B. Gennan measles (rubella)
C. Mumps
D. Measles (rubeola)
D. Measles (rubeola)
The principal characteristics of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder are all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Inattention
B. Intellectually disabled
C. Hyperactivity
D. Impulsivity
B. Intellectually disabled❌
Which of the following is the most common cause of endocarditis following a dental procedure?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Viridans streptococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Bacteroides
B. Viridans streptococci (Alpha-hemolytic streptococci)
A pediatric patient presents to your office for a restoration on #T MO. The patient weighs 40kg. What is the maximum amount of 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 that you can safely administer to this patient?
A. 3.8 carpules
B. 4.2 carpules
C. 4.8 carpules
D. 5.2 carpules
C. 4.8 carpules
NOTES:
40kg x 4.4 mg/kg= 176/36mg/cartridge= 4.89 carpules
___ alone or in combination with other drugs, is the most common sedative agent used in pediatric dentistry.
A. Pentobarbital
B. Secobarbital
C. Paraldehyde
D. Chloral hydrate
D. Chloral hydrate
A 15-year-old female has lived in a nonfluoridated area all of her life. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this young lady when she moves to a community where the drinking water naturally contains 6 ppm of fluoride?
A. 50% reduction in dental caries
B. Moderate dental fluorosis
C. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones
D. Gastrointestinal problems
C. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones
Fluoridation has several mechanisms for caries inhibition.
Included are enhancement of remineralization of enamel, inhibition of glycolysis, and the incorporation of fluoride into the enamel hydroxyapatite crystal.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Both statements are true
Which of the following fluoride therapies should be recommended to a 13-year-old child who is prone to decay and lives in a community where the water is fluoridated at an appropriate level. Select all that apply (3).
A. Professionally applied fluoride every 6 months
B. Fluoride toothpaste
C. Dietary fluoride supplements
D. A low concentration fluoride mouth rinse
E. A high concentration fluoride mouth rinse
A. Professionally applied fluoride every 6 months
B. Fluoride toothpaste
D. A low concentration fluoride mouth rinse
All of the acidulated phosphate fluoride products should be applied for in order to achieve the best results.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 4 minutes
D. 4 minutes
Before fluoride applications:
A. Vaseline is applied to protect any teeth with sealants
B. The teeth should be dry to prevent dilution of the fluoride concentration
C. All bacterial plaque must be removed to prevent interference with fluoride uptake by the enamel surface
D. Patients should be placed in a semi-supine position
B. The teeth should be dry to prevent dilution of the fluoride concentration
You examine a 10-year-old boy in your practice and determine that he has multiple carious lesions. The family resides in a rural area and drinks well water. What is your advice regarding fluoride supplementation?
A. Prescribe fluoride tablets for the patient immediately
B. Arrange for a sample of the patient’s well water to be sent to a laboratory to assess the amount of naturally occurring fluoride in the water. Then prescribe the appropriate dose of fluoride supplementation in lieu of the fluoride that is occurring in the water, if any.
C. The child is too old for fluoride supplementation to be of benefit, so you do not recommend it
D. None of the above
B. Arrange for a sample of the patient’s well water to be sent to a laboratory to assess the amount of naturally occurring fluoride in the water. Then prescribe the appropriate dose of fluoride supplementation in lieu of the fluoride that is occurring in the water, if any
Clinical studies demonstrate that acidulated phosphate fluoride is most effective at what ph?
A. 10
B. 2.5
C. 3.2
D. 5.5
C. 3.2
The lethal dose of fluoride for a typical 3-year-old child is approximately:
A. 100 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 350 mg
D. 500 mg
D. 500 mg
What is the most effective method of reducing the dental caries problem in the general population?
A. School water fluoridation
B. Fluoridation of the communal water supply
C. Fluoride rinses at home
D. Frequent dental visits
B. Fluoridation of the communal water supply
The most common congenitally missing primary tooth is the:
A. Primary mandibular canine
B. Primary maxillary lateral incisor
C. Primary maxillary canine
D. Primary mandibular first molar
B. Primary maxillary lateral incisor
A 15-month-old child would normally have all of the following teeth erupted EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Primary lateral incisors and canines
B. Primary canines and first molars
C. Primary canines and second molars
D. Primary central and lateral incisors
E. Primary first and second molars
C. Primary canines and second molars
All of the following are true when comparing the normal child periodontium to the normal adult periodontium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. There is greater blood and lymph supply
B. The alveolar crest is flatter
C. The cementum is thinner and less dense than that of the adult
D. Gingival pocket depths are larger
E. Attached gingiva is much wider
E. Attached gingiva is much wider❌
The attached gingiva is not as wide in the child periodontium.
The permanent maxillary lateral incisor typically erupts when a child is about:
A. 5-6 years old
B. 8-9 years old
C. 11-12 years old
D. 13-14 years old
B. 8-9 years old
The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between:
A. 1.5 to 2 months in utero
B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero
C. 7.5 to 9 months in utero
D. 10 to 12 months in utero
B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero
Nonsuccedaneous teeth include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. The permanent maxillary and mandibular premolars
B. The permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars
C. The pernanent maxillary and mandibular second molars
D. The permanent maxillary and mandibular third molars
A. The permanent maxillary and mandibular premolars❌
All of the following syndromes demonstrate microdontia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ectodermal dysplasia (hypohidrotic type)
B. Hemifacial microsomia
C. Down syndrome
D. Otodental syndrome
D. Otodental syndrome❌
The deciduous dental formula of man is:
A. I 1/1 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 2/2 =10 x 2=20
B. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2 =10 x 2=20
C. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3 =12 x 2=24
D. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 =16 x 2=32
B. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2 =10 x 2=20
The permanent dental formula of man is:
A. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 3/3 M 2/2 =16 x 2=32
B. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 3/3 =14 x 2=28
C. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 =16 x 2=32
D. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3 - 12x2=24
C. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3 =16 x 2=32
When do the permanent teeth begin to calcify?
A. At birth
B. I month
C. 4 months
D. 1 year
A. At birth
The primary maxillary first molars are usually exfoliated when a child is about:
A. 6-7 years old
B. 7-8 years old
C. 9-11 years old
D. 12-14 years old
C. 9-11 years old
All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. The primary teeth are darker in color than the permanent teeth
B. For primary teeth, the interproximal contacts are broader and flatter than permanent teeth
C. The pulp cavities are proportionately larger in the primary teeth
D. In general, the crowns of primary teeth are more bulbous and constricted than their permanent counterpart
E. The pulp horns of primary teeth are closer to the surface of the tooth
F. The crown surfaces of all primary teeth are much smoother than the permanent teeth (in other words, there is less evidence of pits and grooves)
G. Primary teeth have thinner enamel
A. The primary teeth are darker in color than the permanent teeth❌
The primary teeth are LIGHTER in color than the permanent teeth
The primary mandibular canine typically erupts when a child is about:
A. 6-10 months old
B. 10-16 months old
C. 17-23 months old
D. 23-31 months old
C. 17-23 months old
The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is:
A. 5-10 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars
B. 2-5 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars
C. 2-5 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars
D. 5-10 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars
C. 2-5 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars
The most frequently taken radiographic views in pediatric dentistry are:
A. Molar bitewing radiographs
B. Mandibular molar periapical radiographs
C. Mandibular anterior periapical radiographs
D. Maxillary molar periapical radiographs
A. Molar bitewing radiographs
Which of the following is the most common primary tooth to be retained due to a congenitally missing permanent successor?
A. Maxillary second molars
B. Maxillary first molars
C. Mandibular second molars
D. Mandibular first molars
C. Mandibular second molars
At the age of 6 years, a child’s head is what percentage of its adult size?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 90%
D. 90%
The first deciduous (primary) tooth to erupt is the:
A. mandibular central incisor
B. mandibular first molar
C. maxillary central incisor
D. maxillary first molar
A. mandibular central incisor
Ordinarily, a 6-year-old child would have what teeth clinically visible in the mouth?
A. all (20) primary teeth and 4 permanent first molars
B. 18 primary teeth and 2 permanent mandibular central incisors
C. 18 primary teeth, 2 permanent mandibular central incisors, and 4 permanent first molars
A. all (20) primary teeth and 4 permanent first molars
When attempting a MO Class II amalgam preparation and filling on a primary tooth, you encounter a very large mesial marginal ridge that resembles a cusp. You also notice a transverse ridge from mesiolingual to mesiobuccal cusp that is rather large. This tooth proves difficult to restore, which tooth is it?
A. mandibular first molar
B. maxillary first molar
C. mandibular second molar
D. maxillary second molar
A. mandibular first molar
A neophyte dental student, only about 2 weeks into the program, gets scared when her 10-year-old cousin gets hit in the face and loses a tooth. She calls you and says that her cousin lost his permanent mandibular first molar. Once she tells you more about the root morphology of the tooth, you realize it is a primary tooth and the child simply lost his:
A. primary mandibular canine
B. primary mandibular first molar
C. primary mandibular second molar
D. primary maxillary first molar
C. primary mandibular second molar
Which tooth is the only anterior tooth in either dentition to have a shorter incisocervical height than mesiodistal width?
A. the primary mandibular central incisor
B. the primary mandibular lateral incisor
C. the primary maxillary lateral incisor
D. the primary maxillary central incisor
D. the primary maxillary central incisor
Morphologically, the primary maxillary second molar strikingly resembles the:
A. permanent maxillary third molar
B. permanent maxillary second molar
C. permanent maxillary first molar
D. permanent mandibular second molar
C. permanent maxillary first molar
A 10-1/2-year-old patient comes into your office. You are not sure whether his maxillary canines are permanent or primary. Which of the following statements will help you determine whether they are permanent or primary canines?
A. the cusp of the primary maxillary canine is much shorter than the cusp of the permanent maxillary canine
B. the mesial cusp ridge on the primary maxillary canine is shorter than the distal cusp ridge; this is opposite of all other canines
C. the cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much longer and sharper than the cusp on the permanent maxillary canine
D. The primary maxillary canine is much narrower and longer than the permanent maxillary canine
C. the cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much longer and sharper than the cusp on the permanent maxillary canine
The occlusal form of the ____ varies from that of any tooth in the permanent dentition.
A. the primary mandibular first molar
B. the primary maxillary first molar
C. the primary mandibular second molar
D. the primary maxillary second molar
B. the primary maxillary first molar- atypical
An 11-year-old child traumatized a permanent maxillary central incisor some time ago. The tooth has never been restored. It is now painful and there is evidence of swelling. A periapical x-ray discloses a pathosis associated with the apex. The suggested treatment is:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Extraction
C. Pulpectomy
D. Observation
E. AOTA
E. AOTA
Indirect pulp treatment is a procedure performed in a tooth with:
A. A necrotic pulp
B. A deep carious lesion adjacent to the pulp
C. A periapical radiolucency
D. Pulp tissue that is irreversibly infected due to caries or trauma
B. A deep carious lesion adjacent to the pulp
A 4-year-old child presents with acute pain associated with a primary mandibular second molar that has a large carious lesion with pulpal involvement. Radiographically, there is periapical pathology on the distal root. The child is very cooperative and is able to tolerate long appointments. What is the preferred choice of therapy for the primary mandibular second molar?
A. Incision and drainage
B. Pulpotomy
C. Primary tooth endodontics (pulpectomy)
E. Extraction
C. Primary tooth endodontics (pulpectomy)
Which treatment is the proper one for a Class II fracture of a permanent tooth with an immature apex?
A. Pulpectomy
B. Apply calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin and restore tooth with a permanent restoration
C. Pulpotomy
D. Observe
B. Apply calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin and restore tooth with a permanent restoration
The first indication for a pulpotomy is carious invasion deep enough to cause mechanical exposure of the pulp or inflammation of the coronal pulp.
Inflammation or infection of pulp tissue beyond the coronal pulp contraindicates a pulpotomy.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Both statements are true
Direct pulp caps (PC) involve direct placement of the capping material on the pulp ____ is the agent that is most frequently used.
A. Cavity varnish
B. Glass Ionomer
C. ZOE
D. Calcium hydroxide
D. Calcium hydroxide
One alternative to the traditional full-strength formocresol pulpotomy is the formocresol pulpotomy using a diluted solution of formocresol. A ____ dilution has been recommended and has been shown to produce good long- term therapeutic results.
A. one-third
B. one-quarter
C. one-fifth
D. three-fifths
C. one-fifth
All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. The occlusal anatomy of primary teeth is not as defined as that of permanent teeth; therefore, amalgam preps can be more conservative
B. Enamel and dentin are thicker in primary teeth; therefore, amalgam preps are deeper
C. The pulpal horns of primary teeth are longer and pointed; therefore, amalgam preps must be conservative to avoid a pulpal exposure
D. Primary molars have an exaggerated cervical bulge that makes matrix adaptation much more difficult
E. The occlusal table is narrower on primary molars
B. Enamel and dentin are thicker in primary teeth; therefore, amalgam preps are deeper❌
Enamel and dentin are THINNER in primary teeth; therefore, amalgam preps are SHALLOWER
The success rates for mandibular nerve blocks are higher in children than in adults because of the anatomy of less- developed mandibles.
The anterioposterior position of the mandibular foramen is about the same or slightly more mesial in children than in adults.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
The anterioposterior position of the mandibular foramen is about the same or slightly more mesial in children than in adults.❌
The anterioposterior position of the mandibular foramen is about the same or slightly more DISTAL in children than in adults.
The bulbous, conically shaped primary teeth also affect the amount of extension of the occlusal outline of the preparation. The general rule is that the occlusal outline is about ___ of the intercuspal distance, between the buccal and lingual cusps, on the occlusal surtace of primary molars.
A. one-half
B. one-third
C. two-thirds
D. three-quarters
B. one-third
Depth cuts can be used as a gauge to help establish the depth of the occlusal reduction when preparing a primary tooth for a stainless steel crown. Approximately ____ of the occlusal surface should be removed.
A. 1 to 1.5 mm
B. 3 to 3.5 mm
C. 4 to 4.5 mm
D. 5 to 5.5 mm
A. 1 to 1.5 mm
All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Dental decay in primary teeth is an infectious process that can be very painful and can spread and affect the development of the adult teeth
B. Dental decay in primary teeth most often means there will be dental decay in the adult teeth
C. Radiographically, the appearance of primary teeth differs from that of permanent teeth because of the lower organic content found in primary teeth
D. Dental decay in primary teeth tends to progress more rapidly from initial surface demineralization to involvement of the dentin
E. The enamel layer of primary teeth is thinner in all dimensions as compared to permanent teeth
C. Radiographically, the appearance of primary teeth differs from that of permanent teeth because of the lower organic content found in primary teeth❌
Radiographically, the appearance of primary teeth differs from that of permanent teeth because of the HIGHER organic content found in primary teeth
What cement is the best choice for cementing a lower fixed bilateral holding arch in place?
A. Zinc phosphate cement
B. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
C. IRM
D. Glass ionomer cement
D. Glass ionomer cement
A mother of a 6-year-old female reports that her daughter has complained of a severe spontaneous pain on the upper right side of her mouth. Your examnation indicates a large lesion on the distal aspect of the primary maxillary right first molar which extends to the pulp. All other maxillary teeth are present and are noncarious. You decide that extraction of the tooth is warranted. What type of space maintainer will you advise for the patient?
A. Maxillary right removable unilateral appliance
B. Maxillary removable bilateral appliance
C. Maxillary right band and loop appliance
D. Distal shoe space maintainer
C. Maxillary right band and loop appliance
The maxillary fixed bilateral space maintainer is also known as:
A. Frankel appliance
B. Nance appliance
C. Herbst appliance
D. Ricketts appliance
B. Nance appliance
NOTES:
Frankel appliances- used to correct jaw imbalances and crowding problems
Nance appliance (Nance Holding Arch) is used when premature bilateral loss of maxillary primary teeth has occurred
Ricketts retainer- often used if the top of the mouth is supposedly taller than average.
Herbst appliance - is a splint with tubes and hinges to hold the mandible forward so it will grow and
push the maxilla back so it won’t grow. It’s for kids who won’t wear their headgears or to help headgears work
The minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop is:
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
C. four
Listed below are the usual events in the histogenesis of a tooth. Place them in their correct sequence from what happens first to what happens last.
A. deposition of the first layer of dentin
B. differentiation of odontoblasts
C. deposition of the first layer of enamel
D. elongation of the inner enamel epithelial cells of the enamel organ
(D) elongation of the inner enamel epithelial cells of the enamel organ -this influences mesenchymal cells on the periphery of the dental papilla to differentiate into odontoblasts
(B) differentiation of odontoblasts
(A) deposition of the first layer of dentin
(C) deposition of the first layer of enamel
A young girl presents to the dentist with yellow, thin, chalky enamel, but sound dentin. The diagnosis is amelogenesis imperfecta. In amelogenesis imperfecta, there is an error in what stage in the life cycle of a tooth?
A. initiation
B. bud stage
C. cap stage
D. bell stage
E. apposition
F. calcification
G. eruption
H. Attrition
D. bell stage
Which structure functions to shape the root (or roots) and induce dentin formation in the root area so that it is continuous with the coronal dentin?
A. dental papilla
B. dental lamina
C. dental sac
D. hertwig sheath
D. hertwig sheath
A 3-year-old patient reports to your office with an intrusion injury on teeth #E and#F. You inform the child’s parents about the current standard of care regarding intruded teeth. Which of the following statements best describes the current understanding regarding intruded primary teeth?
A. The intruded teeth should be extracted
B. The intruded teeth should be left to reerupt
C. The therapeutic approach to intrusion injuries in primary teeth is controversial. Some authors in the field advocate extraction and some advocate leaving the tooth to reerupt
E. The intruded teeth should be gently moved into position with gauze and stabilized by splinting
C. The therapeutic approach to intrusion injuries in primary teeth is controversial. Some authors in the field advocate extraction and some advocate leaving the tooth to reerupt
Discolored primary teeth that are symptom-free and show no radiographic changes are best treated by:
A. No treatment
B. Extirpation of the pulp tissue followed by the placement of ZOE paste in the root canal space
C. Extraction
D. Pulpotomy
A. No treatment
An 8-year-old patient presents to your office with a small pulp exposure on the permanent maxillary left central incisor, resulting from a fracture of the tooth. The injury is about 1-hour old. Your clinical and radiographic examinations show there are no other injuries. What is the indicated course of therapy at the time of the emergency?
A. Place a direct pulp cap and proceed with a glass ionomer Band-Aid restoration
B. Begin partial pulpotomy therapy immediately
C. Begin endodontic therapy immediately
D. Schedule the patient for endodontic therapy as soon as possible, once the initial anxiety from the traumatic episode has abated
A. Place a direct pulp cap and proceed with a glass ionomer Band-Aid restoration
A 9-year-old patient has fractured the root of the permanent maxillary right lateral incisor. There is no other identifiable injury. The fracture occurred around the middle of the root. What is the indicated course of therapy at this time?
A. Begin endodontic therapy immediately
B. Extract the tooth and the root remnant if possible
C. Do nothing if the tooth seems fairly stable
D. Splint the tooth to the adjacent two or three teeth
D. Splint the tooth to the adjacent two or three teeth
What is the most reliable method to determine the pulp vitality in the case of a recently traumatized primary tooth?
A. Radiograph
B. Electric pulp test
C. Thorough intraoral exam
D. There is no reliable method
D. There is no reliable method
