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Ortho-Pedo > MOSBY > Flashcards

MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true regarding crowding of the dentition?

A. Crowding of the primary dentition usually resolves as the permanent teeth erupt.
B. Spacing in the primary dentition usually indicates
spacing will be present in the adult.
C. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding
severe enough to consider extraction of
permanent teeth as part of treatment.
D. Lower incisor crowding is more common in
African-American than white populations.

A

C. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding
severe enough to consider extraction of
permanent teeth as part of treatment.

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2
Q

Bones of the cranial base include which of the following?

A. Maxilla, mandible, and cranial vault
B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital
C. Palatal, nasal, and zygoma
D. Frontal and parietal

A

B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital

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3
Q

According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?

A. Neural tissues
B. Lymphoid tissues
C. Reproductive tissues

A

C. Reproductive tissues

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4
Q

Children in the primary dentition most often
present with _____.

A. An increased overbite
B. A decreased overbite
C. An ideal overbite
D. A significant open bite

A

B. A decreased overbite

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5
Q

An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?

A. Class II dental malocclusion
B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Class I dental malocclusion
D. Class II skeletal malocclusion

A

A. Class II dental malocclusion

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6
Q

Which of the following reactions is least likely to
be observed during orthodontic treatment?

A. Root resorption
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. Mobility of teeth that are moved
D. Development of occlusal interferences

A

B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved

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7
Q

Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a
tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?

A. The moment would decrease by 50%.
B. The moment would not change.
C. The moment would double.
D. The moment would increase by 4 times.

A

C. The moment would double.

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8
Q

Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?

A. From the posterior to the anterior within the
maxillary arch
B. From the posterior to the anterior within the
mandibular arch
C. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the
anterior of the mandibular arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the
anterior of the maxillary arch

A

D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the
anterior of the maxillary arch

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9
Q

When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary
first molars will _____.

A. Move distally and intrude
B. Move mesially and extrude
C. Move mesially and intrude
D. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in
the vertical direction

A

B. Move mesially and extrude

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10
Q

Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen
as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?

A. Primary second molars, primary first molars,
permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent
first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars,
primary canines
D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first
molars, permanent first premolars

A

B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent
first premolars

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11
Q

A 7-year-old has a 4-mm maxillary midline diastema. Which of the following should be done?

A. Brackets should be placed to close it.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the
presence of a supernumerary tooth.
C. Nothing should be done. It will close on its own.
D. Nothing should be done. Treatment should be
deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition
erupts.

A

B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the
presence of a supernumerary tooth.

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12
Q

Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which of the following tooth movements?

A. Intruding maxillary incisors
B. Uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
C. Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
D. Using a lip bumper

A

A. Intruding maxillary incisors

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13
Q

Congenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development?

A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification

A

A. Initiation

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14
Q

During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately mentally challenged. 5-year-old child becomes physically combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do?

A. Discuss the situation with the parents.
B. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s
mouth and nose.
C. Use the hand over mouth exercise (HOME).
D. Use a firm voice control.

A

A. Discuss the situation with the parents.

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15
Q

Which of the following is the definition of
conscious sedation?

A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that
retains the patient’s ability to independently and
continuously maintain an airway and respond
appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal
command.
B. A significantly depressed level of consciousness
that retains the patient’s ability to independently
and continuously maintain an airway and respond
appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal
command.
C. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that
retains the patient’s ability to independently and
continuously maintain an airway.
D. A significantly depressed level of consciousness
that retains the patient’s ability to independently
and continuously maintain an airway.

A

A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that
retains the patient’s ability to independently and
continuously maintain an airway and respond
appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal
command.

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16
Q

The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth, and the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and flatter than permanent teeth.

A. The first statement is true and the second
statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second
statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second
statement is false.

A

A. The first statement is true and the second
statement is true.

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17
Q

Formocresol has been shown to have a very
good success rate when used as a medicament for pulpotomy procedures. Why is there continued interest to find another medicament that performs as well as or better than formocresol?

A. Application of formocresol is a clinically time
consuming procedure.
B. Formocresol is toxic and there is possible bloodborne spread to vital organs.
C. It has been demonstrated that formocresol may
cause spontaneous abortion.
D. It has been demonstrated that formocresol may
cause failure to develop adequate lung capacity in
children.

A

B. Formocresol is toxic and there is possible bloodborne spread to vital organs.

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18
Q

The following teeth are erupted in an 8-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice?
3-A-B-C-7-8-9-10-H-I-X-14
30-T-S-R-26-25-24-23-M-L-K

A. Band-loop space maintainer
B. Lower lingual holding arch
C. Nance holding arch
D. Distal shoe space maintainer

A

A. Band-loop space maintainer

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19
Q

The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice?

A. Refer to a speech pathologist.
B. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
C. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and
recall the patient in 3 months.

A

D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and
recall the patient in 3 months.

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20
Q

Orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient with a heavy maxillary frenum _____.

A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
B. Is accomplished after the frenum surgery.
C. After orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is
typically not indicated.
D. After frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is
typically not indicated.

A

A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.

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21
Q

Your patient is 4 years old. Tooth E was traumatically intruded and approximately 50% of the crown is visible clinically. What is your treatment of choice?

A. Reposition and splint
B. Reposition, splint, and primary endodontics
C. Reposition, splint, and formocresol pulpotomy
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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22
Q

Your patient is 4 years old. The maxillary right primary central incisor was traumatically avulsed 60 minutes ago. What is the treatment of choice?

A. Replant, splint, primary endo
B. Replant, splint, formocresol pulpotomy
C. Replant, no splint, primary endo
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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23
Q

A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is _____.

A. Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint
exposure
B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
C. Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
D. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with
gutta-percha

A

B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy

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24
Q

A permanent incisor with an open apex is
extruded 4 mm following an injury 15 minutes
ago. What is the treatment of choice?

A. No immediate treatment, monitor closely for
vitality.
B. Reposition, splint, monitor closely for vitality.
C. Reposition, splint, initiate calcium hydroxide
pulpotomy.
D. Reposition, splint, initiate calcium hydroxide
pulpectomy.

A

B. Reposition, splint, monitor closely for vitality.

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25
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause of
pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth?

A. Ankylosis
B. Calcific metamorphosis
C. Pulpal hyperemia
D. Dilaceration

A

C. Pulpal hyperemia

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26
Q

Which of the following types of malocclusions
is most common?

A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. Open bite malocclusion

A

A. Class I malocclusion

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27
Q

According to Scammon’s growth curves, which
of the following tissues has a growth increase
that can be used to help predict timing of the
adolescent growth spurt?

A. Neural tissues
B. Lymphoid tissues
C. Reproductive tissues

A

C. Reproductive tissues

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28
Q

Of the following, which is the least reliable way
to predict the timing of the peak of the adoles-
cent growth spurt for an individual?
A. Plotting changes in height over time on a growth curve
B. Following eruption timing of the dentition
C. Taking a hand–wrist radiograph to assess
skeletal development
D. Observing changes in secondary sex
characteristics

A

B. Following eruption timing of the dentition

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29
Q

In a patient with incomplete cleft palate, which
of the following aspects is most likely to remain open?

A. The anterior aspect
B. The middle aspect
C. The posterior aspect
D. The right aspect

A

C. The posterior aspect

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30
Q

Children in the primary dentition most often
present with _____.

A. An increased overbite
B. A decreased overbite
C. An ideal overbite
D. A significant open bite

A

B. A decreased overbite

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31
Q

During the mixed dentition, a 1-mm diastema
develops between the maxillary incisors. Which of the following is most likely?

A. The diastema will need orthodontic intervention to be closed
B. The diastema will resolve once the canines
erupt
C. The diastema will only resolve when all of the permanent teeth erupt
D. The diastema will continue to widen as
permanent teeth erupt

A

B. The diastema will resolve once the canines
erupt

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32
Q

A patient with the maxillary first permanent
molar mesiobuccal cusp sitting distal to the
buccal groove of the mandibular first molar
has which type of malocclusion?

A. Class I
B. Class II, division 1
C. Class II, division 2
D. Class III

A

D. Class III

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33
Q

An adult patient with a Class II molar relation-
ship and a cephalometric ANB angle of
2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?

A. Class II dental malocclusion
B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Class I dental malocclusion
D. Class II skeletal malocclusion

A

A. Class II dental malocclusion

34
Q

In a patient who displays excessive maxillary
incisor at rest, has an excessive lower face
height, and has a deep overbite, which of the
following would be the preferred method of
overbite correction?

A. Eruption of posterior teeth to rotate the
mandible open
B. Intrusion of maxillary incisors
C. Intrusion of mandibular incisors
D. Flaring of maxillary and mandibular incisors

A

B. Intrusion of maxillary incisors

35
Q

In tooth movement, the formation of a hyalin-
ized zone on the pressure side is due to _____.

A. The application of light, continuous forces
B. The application of heavy forces
C. The normal forces of mastication
D. Abnormal swallowing patterns

A

B. The application of heavy forces

36
Q

Which of the following reactions is least likely
to be observed during orthodontic treatment?

A. Root resorption
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. Mobility of teeth that are moved
D. Development of occlusal interferences

A

B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved

37
Q

Root resorption is correlated to the pattern of
stress distribution in the PDL and type of tooth movement.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

38
Q

Putting a force through which of the following
points would cause pure translation of a tooth
without rotation, tipping, or torque?

A. Center of rotation
B. Center of resistance
C. Center of the bracket
D. Apex of the root

A

B. Center of resistance

39
Q

Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a
tooth would have what effect on the moment
affecting tooth movement?

A. The moment would decrease by 50%.
B. The moment would not change.
C. The moment would double.
D. The moment would increase by four times.

A

C. The moment would double.

40
Q

Two equal and opposite forces that are not
collinear applied to a tooth are called which of
the following?

A. The center of resistance
B. The center of rotation
C. Root movement
D. A couple

A

D. A couple

41
Q

A wire extending from the molars to the incisors is activated to intrude the incisors. What is the side effect on the molars?

A. The molars will tip forward and intrude
B. The molars will rotate mesiobuccally
C. The molars will tip distally and extrude
D. The molars will rotate distobuccally

A

C. The molars will tip distally and extrude

42
Q

Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?

A. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
B. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
C. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

A

D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

43
Q

What makes it possible for nickel-titanium
archwires to exhibit superelastic behavior?

A. This behavior is based on a reversible
transformation within the austenitic phase.
B. This behavior is based on a reversible
transformation between the austenitic and
martensitic phases.
C. This behavior is based on a reversible
transformation within the martensitic phase.
D. This behavior is based on an irreversible
transformation within the martensitic phase.

A

B. This behavior is based on a reversible
transformation between the austenitic and
martensitic phases.

44
Q

What is a second-order bend?

A. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually
B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in
mesiodistal direction (tip)
C. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque)
D. A bend to rotate a tooth

A

B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in
mesiodistal direction (tip)

45
Q

When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary
first molars will _____.

A. Move distally and intrude
B. Move mesially and extrude
C. Move mesially and intrude
D. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction

A

B. Move mesially and extrude

46
Q

An adolescent patient presents to your office
with a skeletal and dental Class II malocclusion
and a deep bite. Which of the following would be a proper treatment plan for this patient?
A. Reverse-pull headgear, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
B. Reverse-pull headgear, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
C. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
D. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances

A

D. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances

47
Q

When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move in which of the following ways?

A. Mesially and to extrude
B. Distally and to extrude
C. Mesially and to intrude
D. Distally and to intrude

A

B. Distally and to extrude

48
Q

Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
A. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. Primary canines, primary first molars,
permanent first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

A

B. Primary canines, primary first molars,
permanent first premolars

49
Q

Closure of a 2-mm maxillary midline diastema
should be accomplished orthodontically in an
8-year-old in which of the following circum-
stances?

A. If the lateral incisors are missing
B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it
C. If there is also deep overbite present
D. If mild crowding is also present

A

B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it

50
Q

In a patient with missing permanent maxillary
lateral incisors, the decision of whether to substitute canines in the lateral spaces depends on all of the following except _____.

A. The amount of crowding in the maxillary arch
B. The interarch relationship between the maxillary and mandibular dentition
C. The esthetic appearance of the permanent
canines
D. The type of orthodontic appliance used to align the teeth

A

D. The type of orthodontic appliance used to align the teeth

51
Q

All of the following may be indications to con-
sider extraction of permanent teeth in an orthodontic patient except _____.

A. Excessive crowding
B. Class II interarch relationship
C. Flat lip profile
D. Anterior open bite

A

C. Flat lip profile

52
Q

Advantages of fixed wire retention compared to a removable Hawley-type retainer include
which of the following?

A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.
B. Is easier to clean.
C. The design can be altered to achieve minor tooth movements.
D. It can incorporate an acrylic bite plate to avoid relapse of overbite correction.

A

A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.

53
Q

The preferred surgical procedure to correct a
Class II malocclusion due to a deficient
mandible is which of the following?

A. Maxillary impaction
B. Maxillary setback
C. Mandibular setback
D. Mandibular advancement

A

D. Mandibular advancement

54
Q

Of the following, which is considered to be the
least stable orthognathic surgical movement?

A. Advancement of the mandible
B. Advancement of the maxilla
C. Superior movement (impaction) of the maxilla
D. Inferior movement of the maxilla

A

D. Inferior movement of the maxilla

55
Q

Your patient exhibits enamel hypoplasia near
the incisal edges of all permanent incisors and
cuspids, except for the maxillary lateral inci-
sors, which appear normal. At what age would
you suspect some kind of systemic problem?

A. Prior to birth
B. From birth to 1 year of age
C. From 1 to 2 years of age
D. From 2 to 3 years of age

A

B. From birth to 1 year of age

56
Q

Fluorosis is the result of excessive systemic fluoride during which stage of tooth development?

A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification

A

D. Calcification

57
Q

Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally missing
lateral incisors?
A. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure.
B. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an
esthetic issue with most children that age.
C. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older.
D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

A

D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

58
Q

On the health history form, the mother of a
6-year-old new patient notes that the child is
moderately mentally challenged. The dentist
should _____.

A. Refer to a pediatric dentist
B. Use a Tell-Show-Do technique of behavior
management
C. Use conscious sedation
D. Use restraints after obtaining informed consent

A

B. Use a Tell-Show-Do technique of behavior
management

59
Q

The functional inquiry questionnaire reveals
that the mother has had negative dental experiences and remains very nervous regarding her dental care. How would this most likely influence her 3-year-old child’s reaction to dentistry?

A. Increase the likelihood of a negative behavior.
B. Increase the likelihood of a positive response to
dentistry.
C. Will likely cause an initial positive reaction,
which changes to a negative reaction with the
slightest stress.
D. Maternal anxiety has little effect on a child’s
behavior in a dental setting.

A

A. Increase the likelihood of a negative behavior.

60
Q

Which of the following local anesthetic techniques is recommended for anesthetizing a primary mandibular second molar which will be extracted?

A. Buccal and lingual infiltration adjacent to the second primary molar
B. Inferior alveolar nerve block
C. Inferior alveolar nerve block and lingual nerve block
D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block

A

D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block

61
Q

In the primary dentition, the mandibular fora-
men is located where in relation to the plane of occlusion?

A. Higher than the plane of occlusion
B. Much higher than the plane of occlusion
C. Lower than the plane of occlusion
D. The same level as the plane of occlusion

A

C. Lower than the plane of occlusion

62
Q

What is the minimum alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide (Vol %)?

A. 50
B. 75
C. 95
D. 105

A

D. 105

63
Q

Following the administration of a local anes-
thetic, most patients can be maintained in conscious sedation at _____.

A. 20%–40% nitrous oxide
B. 20%–40% oxygen
C. 50% nitrous oxide
D. 10% nitrous oxide

A

A. 20%–40% nitrous oxide

64
Q

Your patient is 9 years old. The mandibular left
first primary molar has a large, carious lesion
on the distal and on the occlusal and the tooth
has greater mobility than what you would nor-
mally expect. You should _____.

A. Take a radiograph of the area
B. Perform a pulpotomy
C. Perform a pulpectomy
D. Extract the tooth and consider space
maintenance

A

A. Take a radiograph of the area

65
Q

Why are rounded internal line angles desirable
in the preparation of amalgam restorations in
primary teeth?

A. They increase retention
B. They conserve tooth structure
C. They increase resistance
D. They decreases internal stresses in the
restorative material

A

D. They decreases internal stresses in the
restorative material

66
Q

Your patient is 7 years old and has a very
large, carious lesion on tooth T. What radiological factors should be used in determining the best treatment of choice between pulpotomy and primary endodontics?

A. Furcation involvement
B. External root resorption
C. Internal root resorption
D. Two of the above
E. All of the above

A

A. Furcation involvement

67
Q

Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates
better success rates than formocresol?

A. Mineral trioxide aggregate
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement
D. Fifth-generation bonding agents

A

A. Mineral trioxide aggregate

68
Q

The pulp tissue of primary teeth _____.
1. In general, is smaller proportionately than
permanent pulps in relation to tooth crown
size.
2. Is closer to the outer surface of the tooth than the permanent teeth.
3. Follows the general surface contour of the
crown.
4. Has the mesial pulp horn closer to the surface than the distal pulp horn.

A. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

A

B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

69
Q

The following teeth are erupted in an 8-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice?

3-A-B-C-7-8-9-10-H-I-X-14
30-T-S-R-26-25-24-23-ML-K-19

A. Band-loop space maintainer.
B. Lower lingual holding arch.
C. Nance holding arch.
D. Distal shoe space maintainer.

A

C. Nance holding arch.

70
Q

The following teeth are erupted in a 4-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice?

X-A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I-J-X
X-X-S-R-Q-P-O-N-M-L-K-X

A. Band-loop space maintainer.
B. Lower lingual holding arch.
C. Nance holding arch.
D. Distal shoe space maintainer.

A

D. Distal shoe space maintainer.

71
Q

If the fluoride level in the drinking water is
greater than 0.6 ppm at any age, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated. If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.

A. The first statement is true and the second
statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second
statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second
statement is false.

A

B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.

72
Q

A 1-year-old patient has his first dental exami-
nation. The dentist reviews with the parent
when to expect the next teeth to erupt, teething, oral hygiene tips for toddlers, and discusses fluoride issues with bottled water and tooth- paste. The term that describes this proactive approach to dental care is _____.

A. Risk assessment
B. Probability counseling
C. Anticipatory guidance
D. Preventive support counseling

A

C. Anticipatory guidance

73
Q

Most natal and neonatal teeth are primary
teeth. They should be extracted.

A. The first statement is true and the second
statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second
statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second
statement is false.

A

B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.

74
Q

The “willful failure of parent or guardian to
seek and follow-through with treatment necessary to ensure a level of oral health essential for adequate function and freedom from pain and infection” is a definition of _____.

A. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
B. Emotional abuse
C. Parental corruption
D. Neglect

A

D. Neglect

75
Q

Where do lesions commonly occur in the primary form of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A. Buccal mucosa
B. Tonsils, hard and soft palate
C. Tongue
D. Gingiva
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

76
Q

Localized aggressive periodontitis in the pri-
mary dentition is seen most commonly in the
primary molar area. It is most common in
Asian children.

A. The first statement is true and the second
statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second
statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second
statement is false.

A

B. The first statement is true and the second
statement is false.

77
Q

Your patient is 8 years old. Tooth #8 was
avulsed and you replanted it within 30 min-
utes. What is the best splint to use?

A. Rigid fixation for 7 days
B. Rigid fixation for 2 months
C. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days
D. Nonrigid fixation for 2 months

A

C. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days

78
Q

Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9
have approximately 50% of their crowns
erupted. One month ago, the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows open apices of these teeth, normal PDL, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice?

A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
B. Formocresol apexification technique
C. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique
D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

A

D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

79
Q

A permanent incisor with a closed apex is
traumatically intruded. What is the treatment
of choice?

A. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
B. Surgical repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
C. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and
conventional endodontic therapy
D. Surgical repositioning and conventional
endodontic therapy

A

A. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy

80
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause
pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth?

A. Ankylosis
B. Calcific metamorphosis
C. Pulpal hyperemia
D. Dilaceration

A

C. Pulpal hyperemia

Ortho-Pedo (1 decks)

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