MOSBY Flashcards
Which of the following is true regarding crowding of the dentition?
A. Crowding of the primary dentition usually resolves as the permanent teeth erupt.
B. Spacing in the primary dentition usually indicates spacing will be present in the adult.
C. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.
D. Lower incisor crowding is more common in African-American than white populations.
C. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.
Bones of the cranial base include which of the following?
A. Maxilla, mandible, and cranial vault
B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital
C. Palatal, nasal, and zygoma
D. Frontal and parietal
B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital
According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?
A. Neural tissues
B. Lymphoid tissues
C. Reproductive tissues
C. Reproductive tissues
Children in the primary dentition most often present with _____.
A. An increased overbite
B. A decreased overbite
C. An ideal overbite
D. A significant open bite
B. A decreased overbite (openbite)
An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?
A. Class II dental malocclusion
B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Class I dental malocclusion
D. Class II skeletal malocclusion
A. Class II dental malocclusion
NOTES:
SNA ANGLE- angle created in the intersection from from the sella turcica (S) to nasion (N) and one from nasion to Point A. (82°)
MAXILLARY PROGNATHISM: > 82° SNA
MAXILLARY RETROGNATHISM: < 82° SNA
SNB ANGLE - created by the intersection of line SN and NB defines the sagittal location of the mandibular denture base. (80°)
MANDIBULAR PROGNATHISM: > 80° SNB
MANDIBULAR RETROGNATHISM: < 80° SNB
SNA- SNB= ANB
ANB= 2°
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 1: 2° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 2: > 4° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 3: <0° ANB
Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
A. Root resorption
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. Mobility of teeth that are moved
D. Development of occlusal interferences
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?
A. The moment would decrease by 50%.
B. The moment would not change.
C. The moment would double.
D. The moment would increase by 4 times.
C. The moment would double.
Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
A. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
B. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
C. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars will _____.
A. Move distally and intrude
B. Move mesially and extrude
C. Move mesially and intrude
D. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction
B. Move mesially and extrude
Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
A. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars (CD4)
NOTES:
METHODS OF SERIAL EXTRACTION
DEWEL’S METHOD: CD4- most common
TWEED’S METHOD: D4C
A 7-year-old has a 4-mm maxillary midline diastema. Which of the following should be done?
A. Brackets should be placed to close it.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
C. Nothing should be done. It will close on its own.
D. Nothing should be done. Treatment should be deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition erupts.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which of the following tooth movements?
A. Intruding maxillary incisors
B. Uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
C. Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
D. Using a lip bumper
A. Intruding maxillary incisors
NOTES:
DEVELOPING SKELETAL CLASS II
- Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
HYPERACTIVE MENTALIS/ SPACE REGAINER
- Using a lip bumper
Congenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development?
A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification
A. Initiation
During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately mentally challenged. 5-year-old child becomes physically combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do?
A. Discuss the situation with the parents.
B. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose.
C. Use the hand over mouth exercise (HOME).
D. Use a firm voice control.
A. Discuss the situation with the parents.
Which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation?
A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
B. A significantly depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
C. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway.
D. A significantly depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway.
A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth, and the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and flatter than permanent teeth.
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
Formocresol has been shown to have a very good success rate when used as a medicament for pulpotomy procedures. Why is there continued interest to find another medicament that performs as well as or better than formocresol?
A. Application of formocresol is a clinically time consuming procedure.
B. Formocresol is toxic and there is possible bloodborne spread to vital organs.
C. It has been demonstrated that formocresol may cause spontaneous abortion.
D. It has been demonstrated that formocresol may cause failure to develop adequate lung capacity in children.
B. Formocresol is toxic and there is possible bloodborne spread to vital organs.
The following teeth are erupted in an 8-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice?
3- A - B - C- 7 - 8 - 9 - 10 - H - I - ❌ -14
30- T - S - R- 26 - 25 - 24 - 23 - M - L - K- 19
A. Band-loop space maintainer
B. Lower lingual holding arch.
C. Nance holding arch.
D. Distal shoe space maintainer.
A. Band-loop space maintainer
A band-loop space maintainer would work well in this case because the maxillary first bicuspid normally erupts prior to the loss of either the sec ond primary molar or the primary cuspid.
NOTES:
Band-loop space maintainer- single tooth loss
Lower lingual holding arch- bilateral/ multiple tooth loss (mandibular)
Nance holding arch- bilateral/ multiple tooth loss (maxillary)
Distal shoe space maintainer- early loss of 2nd molar before the permanent 1st molar erupts
The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice?
A. Refer to a speech pathologist.
B. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
C. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.
Orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient with a heavy maxillary frenum _____.
A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
B. Is accomplished after the frenum surgery.
C. After orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is typically not indicated.
D. After frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is typically not indicated.
A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
Your patient is 4 years old. Tooth E was traumatically intruded and approximately 50% of the crown is visible clinically. What is your treatment of choice?
A. Reposition and splint
B. Reposition, splint, and primary endodontics
C. Reposition, splint, and formocresol pulpotomy
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Your patient is 4 years old. The maxillary right primary central incisor was traumatically avulsed 60 minutes ago. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Replant, splint, primary endo
B. Replant, splint, formocresol pulpotomy
C. Replant, no splint, primary endo
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is _____.
A. Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure
B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
C. Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
D. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha
B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
A permanent incisor with an open apex is extruded 4 mm following an injury 15 minutes ago. What is the treatment of choice?
A. No immediate treatment, monitor closely for vitality.
B. Reposition, splint, monitor closely for vitality.
C. Reposition, splint, initiate calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.
D. Reposition, splint, initiate calcium hydroxide pulpectomy.
B. Reposition, splint, monitor closely for vitality.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth?
A. Ankylosis
B. Calcific metamorphosis
C. Pulpal hyperemia
D. Dilaceration
C. Pulpal hyperemia
Which of the following types of malocclusion is most common?
A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. Open bite malocclusion
A. Class I malocclusion
According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?
A. Neural tissues
B. Lymphoid tissues
C. Reproductive tissues
C. Reproductive tissues
Of the following, which is the least reliable way to predict the timing of the peak of the adolescent growth spurt for an individual?
A. Plotting changes in height over time on a growth curve
B. Following eruption timing of the dentition
C. Taking a hand–wrist radiograph to assess skeletal development
D. Observing changes in secondary sex characteristics
B. Following eruption timing of the dentition
In a patient with incomplete cleft palate, which of the following aspects is most likely to remain open?
A. The anterior aspect
B. The middle aspect
C. The posterior aspect
D. The right aspect
C. The posterior aspect
Children in the primary dentition most often present with _____.
A. An increased overbite
B. A decreased overbite
C. An ideal overbite
D. A significant open bite
B. A decreased overbite (openbite)
During the mixed dentition, a 1-mm diastema develops between the maxillary incisors. Which of the following is most likely?
A. The diastema will need orthodontic intervention to be closed
B. The diastema will resolve once the canines erupt
C. The diastema will only resolve when all of the permanent teeth erupt
D. The diastema will continue to widen as permanent teeth erupt
B. The diastema will resolve once the canines erupt
A patient with the maxillary first permanent molar mesiobuccal cusp sitting distal to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar has which type of malocclusion?
A. Class I
B. Class II, division 1
C. Class II, division 2
D. Class III
D. Class III
An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?
A. Class II dental malocclusion
B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Class I dental malocclusion
D. Class II skeletal malocclusion
A. Class II dental malocclusion
In a patient who displays excessive maxillary incisor at rest, has an excessive lower face height, and has a deep overbite, which of the following would be the preferred method of overbite correction?
A. Eruption of posterior teeth to rotate the mandible open
B. Intrusion of maxillary incisors
C. Intrusion of mandibular incisors
D. Flaring of maxillary and mandibular incisors
B. Intrusion of maxillary incisors
In tooth movement, the formation of a hyalinized zone on the pressure side is due to _____.
A. The application of light, continuous forces
B. The application of heavy forces
C. The normal forces of mastication
D. Abnormal swallowing patterns
B. The application of heavy forces
Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
A. Root resorption
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. Mobility of teeth that are moved
D. Development of occlusal interferences
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
Root resorption is correlated to the pattern of stress distribution in the PDL and type of tooth movement.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Putting a force through which of the following points would cause pure translation of a tooth without rotation, tipping, or torque?
A. Center of rotation
B. Center of resistance
C. Center of the bracket
D. Apex of the root
B. Center of resistance
Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?
A. The moment would decrease by 50%.
B. The moment would not change.
C. The moment would double.
D. The moment would increase by four times.
C. The moment would double.
Two equal and opposite forces that are not collinear applied to a tooth are called which of the following?
A. The center of resistance
B. The center of rotation
C. Root movement
D. A couple
D. A couple
A wire extending from the molars to the incisors is activated to intrude the incisors. What is the side effect on the molars?
A. The molars will tip forward and intrude
B. The molars will rotate mesiobuccally
C. The molars will tip distally and extrude
D. The molars will rotate distobuccally
C. The molars will tip distally and extrude
Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
A. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
B. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
C. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch
What makes it possible for nickel-titanium archwires to exhibit superelastic behavior?
A. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation within the austenitic phase.
B. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation between the austenitic and martensitic phases.
C. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation within the martensitic phase.
D. This behavior is based on an irreversible transformation within the martensitic phase.
B. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation between the austenitic and martensitic phases.
What is a second-order bend?
A. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually
B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
C. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque)
D. A bend to rotate a tooth
B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
NOTES:
THREE ORDER BENDS OF TOOTH MOVEMENT
(1) First-order bend: In and Out bend
- to position a tooth buccolingually/ faciolingually of the CROWN
(2) Second order bend: Tip bends
- to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
(3) Third order bend: Torque
- to position a tooth buccolingually/ faciolingually of the ROOT
When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars will _____.
A. Move distally and intrude
B. Move mesially and extrude
C. Move mesially and intrude
D. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction
B. Move mesially and extrude
An adolescent patient presents to your office with a skeletal and dental Class II malocclusion and a deep bite. Which of the following would be a proper treatment plan for this patient?
A. Reverse-pull headgear, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
B. Reverse-pull headgear, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
C. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
D. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
D. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move in which of the following ways?
A. Mesially and to extrude
B. Distally and to extrude
C. Mesially and to intrude
D. Distally and to intrude
B. Distally and to extrude
Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
A. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
Closure of a 2-mm maxillary midline diastema should be accomplished orthodontically in an 8-year-old in which of the following circumstances?
A. If the lateral incisors are missing
B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it
C. If there is also deep overbite present
D. If mild crowding is also present
B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it
In a patient with missing permanent maxillary lateral incisors, the decision of whether to substitute canines in the lateral spaces depends on all of the following except _____.
A. The amount of crowding in the maxillary arch
B. The interarch relationship between the maxillary and mandibular dentition
C. The esthetic appearance of the permanent canines
D. The type of orthodontic appliance used to align the teeth
D. The type of orthodontic appliance used to align the teeth
All of the following may be indications to consider extraction of permanent teeth in an orthodontic patient except _____.
A. Excessive crowding
B. Class II interarch relationship
C. Flat lip profile
D. Anterior open bite
C. Flat lip profile
Advantages of fixed wire retention compared to a removable Hawley-type retainer include
which of the following?
A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.
B. Is easier to clean.
C. The design can be altered to achieve minor tooth movements.
D. It can incorporate an acrylic bite plate to avoid relapse of overbite correction.
A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.
The preferred surgical procedure to correct a Class II malocclusion due to a deficient mandible is which of the following?
A. Maxillary impaction
B. Maxillary setback
C. Mandibular setback
D. Mandibular advancement
D. Mandibular advancement
Of the following, which is considered to be the least stable orthognathic surgical movement?
A. Advancement of the mandible
B. Advancement of the maxilla
C. Superior movement (impaction) of the maxilla
D. Inferior movement of the maxilla
D. Inferior movement of the maxilla
Your patient exhibits enamel hypoplasia near the incisal edges of all permanent incisors and cuspids, except for the maxillary lateral incisors, which appear normal. At what age would you suspect some kind of systemic problem?
A. Prior to birth
B. From birth to 1 year of age
C. From 1 to 2 years of age
D. From 2 to 3 years of age
B. From birth to 1 year of age
Fluorosis is the result of excessive systemic fluoride during which stage of tooth development?
A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification
D. Calcification
Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally missing
lateral incisors?
A. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure.
B. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an esthetic issue with most children that age.
C. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older.
D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.
D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.
On the health history form, the mother of a 6-year-old new patient notes that the child is moderately mentally challenged. The dentist should _____.
A. Refer to a pediatric dentist
B. Use a Tell-Show-Do technique of behavior management
C. Use conscious sedation
D. Use restraints after obtaining informed consent
B. Use a Tell-Show-Do technique of behavior management
The functional inquiry questionnaire reveals that the mother has had negative dental experiences and remains very nervous regarding her dental care. How would this most likely influence her 3-year-old child’s reaction to dentistry?
A. Increase the likelihood of a negative behavior.
B. Increase the likelihood of a positive response to dentistry.
C. Will likely cause an initial positive reaction, which changes to a negative reaction with the slightest stress.
D. Maternal anxiety has little effect on a child’s behavior in a dental setting.
A. Increase the likelihood of a negative behavior.
Which of the following local anesthetic techniques is recommended for anesthetizing a primary mandibular second molar which will be extracted?
A. Buccal and lingual infiltration adjacent to the second primary molar
B. Inferior alveolar nerve block
C. Inferior alveolar nerve block and lingual nerve block
D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block
D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block
In the primary dentition, the mandibular foramen is located where in relation to the plane of occlusion?
A. Higher than the plane of occlusion
B. Much higher than the plane of occlusion
C. Lower than the plane of occlusion
D. The same level as the plane of occlusion
C. Lower than the plane of occlusion
What is the minimum alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide (Vol %)?
A. 50
B. 75
C. 95
D. 105
D. 105
Following the administration of a local anesthetic, most patients can be maintained in conscious sedation at _____.
A. 20%–40% nitrous oxide
B. 20%–40% oxygen
C. 50% nitrous oxide
D. 10% nitrous oxide
A. 20%–40% nitrous oxide
Your patient is 9 years old. The mandibular left first primary molar has a large, carious lesion on the distal and on the occlusal and the tooth has greater mobility than what you would normally expect. You should _____.
A. Take a radiograph of the area
B. Perform a pulpotomy
C. Perform a pulpectomy
D. Extract the tooth and consider space maintenance
A. Take a radiograph of the area
Why are rounded internal line angles desirable in the preparation of amalgam restorations in primary teeth?
A. They increase retention
B. They conserve tooth structure
C. They increase resistance
D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material
D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material
Your patient is 7 years old and has a very large, carious lesion on tooth T. What radiological factors should be used in determining the best treatment of choice between pulpotomy and primary endodontics?
A. Furcation involvement
B. External root resorption
C. Internal root resorption
D. Two of the above
E. All of the above
A. Furcation involvement
Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates better success rates than formocresol?
A. Mineral trioxide aggregate
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement
D. Fifth-generation bonding agents
A. Mineral trioxide aggregate
The pulp tissue of primary teeth _____.
- In general, is smaller proportionately than permanent pulps in relation to tooth crown size.
- Is closer to the outer surface of the tooth than the permanent teeth.
- Follows the general surface contour of the crown.
- Has the mesial pulp horn closer to the surface than the distal pulp horn.
A. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
The following teeth are erupted in a 4-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice?
❌- A - B - C - D - E - F - G - H - I - J - ❌
❌- ❌- S - R - Q - P - O - N - M - L - K - ❌
A. Band-loop space maintainer.
B. Lower lingual holding arch.
C. Nance holding arch.
D. Distal shoe space maintainer.
D. Distal shoe space maintainer.
If the fluoride level in the drinking water is greater than 0.6 ppm at any age, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated.
If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.❌
If the patient is less than 6 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level
NOTES:
The systemic fluoride “Rule of 6s” states:
> 0.6 ppm= no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated.
< 6 months old= no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated.
> 16 years old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated.
A 1-year-old patient has his first dental examination. The dentist reviews with the parent when to expect the next teeth to erupt, teething, oral hygiene tips for toddlers, and discusses fluoride issues with bottled water and toothpaste. The term that describes this proactive approach to dental care is _____.
A. Risk assessment
B. Probability counseling
C. Anticipatory guidance
D. Preventive support counseling
C. Anticipatory guidance
Most natal and neonatal teeth are primary teeth. They should be extracted.
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
They should be extracted.❌
NOTES:
Extraction of primary teeth should be accomplished only if they are extremely mobile and there is danger of aspiration. Most commonly, natal and neonatal teeth are left in position.
The “willful failure of parent or guardian to seek and follow-through with treatment necessary to ensure a level of oral health essential for adequate function and freedom from pain and infection” is a definition of _____.
A. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
B. Emotional abuse
C. Parental corruption
D. Neglect
D. Neglect
Where do lesions commonly occur in the primary form of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A. Buccal mucosa
B. Tonsils, hard and soft palate
C. Tongue
D. Gingiva
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Localized aggressive periodontitis in the primary dentition is seen most commonly in the primary molar area. It is most common in Asian children.
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
It is most common in Asian children.❌
It is most common in AFRICAN-AMERICAN children.
Your patient is 8 years old. Tooth #8 was avulsed and you replanted it within 30 minutes. What is the best splint to use?
A. Rigid fixation for 7 days
B. Rigid fixation for 2 months
C. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days
D. Nonrigid fixation for 2 months
C. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days
Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9 have approximately 50% of their crowns erupted. One month ago, the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows open apices of these teeth, normal PDL, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice?
A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
B. Formocresol apexification technique
C. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique
D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks
D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks
A permanent incisor with a closed apex is traumatically intruded. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
B. Surgical repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
C. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy
D. Surgical repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy
A. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
NOTES:
Treatment includes:
a. Gradual repositioning orthodontically (2–3 weeks)
b. Stabilize for 2 to 4 weeks
c. Calcium hydroxide pulpectomy 2 weeks after injury
Which of the following is the most likely cause pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth?
A. Ankylosis
B. Calcific metamorphosis
C. Pulpal hyperemia
D. Dilaceration
C. Pulpal hyperemia
