MOSBY

Question 1

Which of the following is true regarding crowding of the dentition?

A. Crowding of the primary dentition usually resolves as the permanent teeth erupt.
B. Spacing in the primary dentition usually indicates spacing will be present in the adult.
C. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.
D. Lower incisor crowding is more common in African-American than white populations.

Answer 1

C. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.

Question 2

Bones of the cranial base include which of the following?

A. Maxilla, mandible, and cranial vault
B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital
C. Palatal, nasal, and zygoma
D. Frontal and parietal

Answer 2

B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital

Question 3

According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?

A. Neural tissues
B. Lymphoid tissues
C. Reproductive tissues

Answer 3

C. Reproductive tissues

Question 4

Children in the primary dentition most often present with _____.

A. An increased overbite
B. A decreased overbite
C. An ideal overbite
D. A significant open bite

Answer 4

B. A decreased overbite (openbite)

Question 5

An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?

A. Class II dental malocclusion
B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Class I dental malocclusion
D. Class II skeletal malocclusion

Answer 5

A. Class II dental malocclusion

NOTES:
SNA ANGLE- angle created in the intersection from from the sella turcica (S) to nasion (N) and one from nasion to Point A. (82°)
MAXILLARY PROGNATHISM: > 82° SNA
MAXILLARY RETROGNATHISM: < 82° SNA

SNB ANGLE - created by the intersection of line SN and NB defines the sagittal location of the mandibular denture base. (80°)

MANDIBULAR PROGNATHISM: > 80° SNB
MANDIBULAR RETROGNATHISM: < 80° SNB

SNA- SNB= ANB
ANB= 2°

SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 1: 2° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 2: > 4° ANB
SKELETAL PROFILE CLASS 3: <0° ANB

Question 6

Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?

A. Root resorption
B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. Mobility of teeth that are moved
D. Development of occlusal interferences

Answer 6

B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved

Question 7

Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?

A. The moment would decrease by 50%.
B. The moment would not change.
C. The moment would double.
D. The moment would increase by 4 times.

Answer 7

C. The moment would double.

Question 8

Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?

A. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
B. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
C. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Answer 8

D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Question 9

When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars will _____.

A. Move distally and intrude
B. Move mesially and extrude
C. Move mesially and intrude
D. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction

Answer 9

B. Move mesially and extrude

Question 10

Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?

A. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

Answer 10

B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars (CD4)

NOTES:
METHODS OF SERIAL EXTRACTION

DEWEL’S METHOD: CD4- most common
TWEED’S METHOD: D4C

Question 11

A 7-year-old has a 4-mm maxillary midline diastema. Which of the following should be done?

A. Brackets should be placed to close it.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
C. Nothing should be done. It will close on its own.
D. Nothing should be done. Treatment should be deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition erupts.

Answer 11

B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.

Question 12

Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which of the following tooth movements?

A. Intruding maxillary incisors
B. Uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
C. Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
D. Using a lip bumper

Answer 12

A. Intruding maxillary incisors

NOTES:
DEVELOPING SKELETAL CLASS II
- Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars

HYPERACTIVE MENTALIS/ SPACE REGAINER
- Using a lip bumper

Question 13

Congenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development?

A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification

Answer 13

A. Initiation

Question 14

During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately mentally challenged. 5-year-old child becomes physically combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do?

A. Discuss the situation with the parents.
B. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose.
C. Use the hand over mouth exercise (HOME).
D. Use a firm voice control.

Answer 14

A. Discuss the situation with the parents.

Question 15

Which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation?

A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
B. A significantly depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
C. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway.
D. A significantly depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway.

Answer 15

A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.

Question 16

The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth, and the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and flatter than permanent teeth.

A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

Answer 16

A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.

Question 17

Formocresol has been shown to have a very good success rate when used as a medicament for pulpotomy procedures. Why is there continued interest to find another medicament that performs as well as or better than formocresol?

A. Application of formocresol is a clinically time consuming procedure.
B. Formocresol is toxic and there is possible bloodborne spread to vital organs.
C. It has been demonstrated that formocresol may cause spontaneous abortion.
D. It has been demonstrated that formocresol may cause failure to develop adequate lung capacity in children.

Answer 17

B. Formocresol is toxic and there is possible bloodborne spread to vital organs.

Question 18

The following teeth are erupted in an 8-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice?

            3- A - B - C- 7   - 8  -   9 - 10  - H - I - ❌ -14
         30- T - S - R- 26 - 25 - 24 - 23 - M - L - K-  19

A. Band-loop space maintainer
B. Lower lingual holding arch.
C. Nance holding arch.
D. Distal shoe space maintainer.

Answer 18

A. Band-loop space maintainer
A band-loop space maintainer would work well in this case because the maxillary first bicuspid normally erupts prior to the loss of either the sec ond primary molar or the primary cuspid.

NOTES:
Band-loop space maintainer- single tooth loss
Lower lingual holding arch- bilateral/ multiple tooth loss (mandibular)
Nance holding arch- bilateral/ multiple tooth loss (maxillary)
Distal shoe space maintainer- early loss of 2nd molar before the permanent 1st molar erupts

Question 19

The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice?

A. Refer to a speech pathologist.
B. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
C. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

Answer 19

D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

Question 20

Orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient with a heavy maxillary frenum _____.

A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.
B. Is accomplished after the frenum surgery.
C. After orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is typically not indicated.
D. After frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is typically not indicated.

Answer 20

A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery.

Question 21

Your patient is 4 years old. Tooth E was traumatically intruded and approximately 50% of the crown is visible clinically. What is your treatment of choice?

A. Reposition and splint
B. Reposition, splint, and primary endodontics
C. Reposition, splint, and formocresol pulpotomy
D. None of the above

Answer 21

D. None of the above

Question 22

Your patient is 4 years old. The maxillary right primary central incisor was traumatically avulsed 60 minutes ago. What is the treatment of choice?

A. Replant, splint, primary endo
B. Replant, splint, formocresol pulpotomy
C. Replant, no splint, primary endo
D. None of the above

Answer 22

D. None of the above

Question 23

A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is _____.

A. Place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure
B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
C. Initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
D. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha

Answer 23

B. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy

Question 24

A permanent incisor with an open apex is extruded 4 mm following an injury 15 minutes ago. What is the treatment of choice?

A. No immediate treatment, monitor closely for vitality.
B. Reposition, splint, monitor closely for vitality.
C. Reposition, splint, initiate calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.
D. Reposition, splint, initiate calcium hydroxide pulpectomy.

Answer 24

B. Reposition, splint, monitor closely for vitality.

Question 25

Which of the following is the most likely cause of pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth? A. Ankylosis B. Calcific metamorphosis C. Pulpal hyperemia D. Dilaceration

Answer 25

C. Pulpal hyperemia

Question 26

Which of the following types of malocclusion is most common? A. Class I malocclusion B. Class II malocclusion C. Class III malocclusion D. Open bite malocclusion

Answer 26

A. Class I malocclusion

Question 27

According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt? A. Neural tissues B. Lymphoid tissues C. Reproductive tissues

Answer 27

C. Reproductive tissues

Question 28

Of the following, which is the least reliable way to predict the timing of the peak of the adolescent growth spurt for an individual? A. Plotting changes in height over time on a growth curve B. Following eruption timing of the dentition C. Taking a hand–wrist radiograph to assess skeletal development D. Observing changes in secondary sex characteristics

Answer 28

B. Following eruption timing of the dentition

Question 29

In a patient with incomplete cleft palate, which of the following aspects is most likely to remain open? A. The anterior aspect B. The middle aspect C. The posterior aspect D. The right aspect

Answer 29

C. The posterior aspect

Question 30

Children in the primary dentition most often present with _____. A. An increased overbite B. A decreased overbite C. An ideal overbite D. A significant open bite

Answer 30

B. A decreased overbite (openbite)

Question 31

During the mixed dentition, a 1-mm diastema develops between the maxillary incisors. Which of the following is most likely? A. The diastema will need orthodontic intervention to be closed B. The diastema will resolve once the canines erupt C. The diastema will only resolve when all of the permanent teeth erupt D. The diastema will continue to widen as permanent teeth erupt

Answer 31

B. The diastema will resolve once the canines erupt

Question 32

A patient with the maxillary first permanent molar mesiobuccal cusp sitting distal to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar has which type of malocclusion? A. Class I B. Class II, division 1 C. Class II, division 2 D. Class III

Answer 32

D. Class III

Question 33

An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion? A. Class II dental malocclusion B. Class II skeletal malocclusion C. Class I dental malocclusion D. Class II skeletal malocclusion

Answer 33

A. Class II dental malocclusion

Question 34

In a patient who displays excessive maxillary incisor at rest, has an excessive lower face height, and has a deep overbite, which of the following would be the preferred method of overbite correction? A. Eruption of posterior teeth to rotate the mandible open B. Intrusion of maxillary incisors C. Intrusion of mandibular incisors D. Flaring of maxillary and mandibular incisors

Answer 34

B. Intrusion of maxillary incisors

Question 35

In tooth movement, the formation of a hyalinized zone on the pressure side is due to _____. A. The application of light, continuous forces B. The application of heavy forces C. The normal forces of mastication D. Abnormal swallowing patterns

Answer 35

B. The application of heavy forces

Question 36

Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment? A. Root resorption B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved C. Mobility of teeth that are moved D. Development of occlusal interferences

Answer 36

B. Devitalization of teeth that are moved

Question 37

Root resorption is correlated to the pattern of stress distribution in the PDL and type of tooth movement. A. True B. False

Answer 37

A. True

Question 38

Putting a force through which of the following points would cause pure translation of a tooth without rotation, tipping, or torque? A. Center of rotation B. Center of resistance C. Center of the bracket D. Apex of the root

Answer 38

B. Center of resistance

Question 39

Doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement? A. The moment would decrease by 50%. B. The moment would not change. C. The moment would double. D. The moment would increase by four times.

Answer 39

C. The moment would double.

Question 40

Two equal and opposite forces that are not collinear applied to a tooth are called which of the following? A. The center of resistance B. The center of rotation C. Root movement D. A couple

Answer 40

D. A couple

Question 41

A wire extending from the molars to the incisors is activated to intrude the incisors. What is the side effect on the molars? A. The molars will tip forward and intrude B. The molars will rotate mesiobuccally C. The molars will tip distally and extrude D. The molars will rotate distobuccally

Answer 41

C. The molars will tip distally and extrude

Question 42

Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points? A. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch B. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch C. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Answer 42

D. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Question 43

What makes it possible for nickel-titanium archwires to exhibit superelastic behavior? A. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation within the austenitic phase. B. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation between the austenitic and martensitic phases. C. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation within the martensitic phase. D. This behavior is based on an irreversible transformation within the martensitic phase.

Answer 43

B. This behavior is based on a reversible transformation between the austenitic and martensitic phases.

Question 44

What is a second-order bend? A. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip) C. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque) D. A bend to rotate a tooth

Answer 44

B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip) NOTES: THREE ORDER BENDS OF TOOTH MOVEMENT (1) First-order bend: In and Out bend - to position a tooth buccolingually/ faciolingually of the CROWN (2) Second order bend: Tip bends - to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip) (3) Third order bend: Torque - to position a tooth buccolingually/ faciolingually of the ROOT

Question 45

When Class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars will _____. A. Move distally and intrude B. Move mesially and extrude C. Move mesially and intrude D. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction

Answer 45

B. Move mesially and extrude

Question 46

An adolescent patient presents to your office with a skeletal and dental Class II malocclusion and a deep bite. Which of the following would be a proper treatment plan for this patient? A. Reverse-pull headgear, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances B. Reverse-pull headgear, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances C. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances D. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances

Answer 46

D. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances

Question 47

When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move in which of the following ways? A. Mesially and to extrude B. Distally and to extrude C. Mesially and to intrude D. Distally and to intrude

Answer 47

B. Distally and to extrude

Question 48

Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding? A. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

Answer 48

B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

Question 49

Closure of a 2-mm maxillary midline diastema should be accomplished orthodontically in an 8-year-old in which of the following circumstances? A. If the lateral incisors are missing B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it C. If there is also deep overbite present D. If mild crowding is also present

Answer 49

B. If the space creates an esthetic concern and the child is being teased about it

Question 50

In a patient with missing permanent maxillary lateral incisors, the decision of whether to substitute canines in the lateral spaces depends on all of the following except _____. A. The amount of crowding in the maxillary arch B. The interarch relationship between the maxillary and mandibular dentition C. The esthetic appearance of the permanent canines D. The type of orthodontic appliance used to align the teeth

Answer 50

D. The type of orthodontic appliance used to align the teeth

Question 51

All of the following may be indications to consider extraction of permanent teeth in an orthodontic patient except _____. A. Excessive crowding B. Class II interarch relationship C. Flat lip profile D. Anterior open bite

Answer 51

C. Flat lip profile

Question 52

Advantages of fixed wire retention compared to a removable Hawley-type retainer include which of the following? A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it. B. Is easier to clean. C. The design can be altered to achieve minor tooth movements. D. It can incorporate an acrylic bite plate to avoid relapse of overbite correction.

Answer 52

A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.

Question 53

The preferred surgical procedure to correct a Class II malocclusion due to a deficient mandible is which of the following? A. Maxillary impaction B. Maxillary setback C. Mandibular setback D. Mandibular advancement

Answer 53

D. Mandibular advancement

Question 54

Of the following, which is considered to be the least stable orthognathic surgical movement? A. Advancement of the mandible B. Advancement of the maxilla C. Superior movement (impaction) of the maxilla D. Inferior movement of the maxilla

Answer 54

D. Inferior movement of the maxilla

Question 55

Your patient exhibits enamel hypoplasia near the incisal edges of all permanent incisors and cuspids, except for the maxillary lateral incisors, which appear normal. At what age would you suspect some kind of systemic problem? A. Prior to birth B. From birth to 1 year of age C. From 1 to 2 years of age D. From 2 to 3 years of age

Answer 55

B. From birth to 1 year of age

Question 56

Fluorosis is the result of excessive systemic fluoride during which stage of tooth development? A. Initiation B. Morphodifferentiation C. Apposition D. Calcification

Answer 56

D. Calcification

Question 57

Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally missing lateral incisors? A. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure. B. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an esthetic issue with most children that age. C. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older. D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

Answer 57

D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

Question 58

On the health history form, the mother of a 6-year-old new patient notes that the child is moderately mentally challenged. The dentist should _____. A. Refer to a pediatric dentist B. Use a Tell-Show-Do technique of behavior management C. Use conscious sedation D. Use restraints after obtaining informed consent

Answer 58

B. Use a Tell-Show-Do technique of behavior management

Question 59

The functional inquiry questionnaire reveals that the mother has had negative dental experiences and remains very nervous regarding her dental care. How would this most likely influence her 3-year-old child’s reaction to dentistry? A. Increase the likelihood of a negative behavior. B. Increase the likelihood of a positive response to dentistry. C. Will likely cause an initial positive reaction, which changes to a negative reaction with the slightest stress. D. Maternal anxiety has little effect on a child’s behavior in a dental setting.

Answer 59

A. Increase the likelihood of a negative behavior.

Question 60

Which of the following local anesthetic techniques is recommended for anesthetizing a primary mandibular second molar which will be extracted? A. Buccal and lingual infiltration adjacent to the second primary molar B. Inferior alveolar nerve block C. Inferior alveolar nerve block and lingual nerve block D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block

Answer 60

D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block

Question 61

In the primary dentition, the mandibular foramen is located where in relation to the plane of occlusion? A. Higher than the plane of occlusion B. Much higher than the plane of occlusion C. Lower than the plane of occlusion D. The same level as the plane of occlusion

Answer 61

C. Lower than the plane of occlusion

Question 62

What is the minimum alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide (Vol %)? A. 50 B. 75 C. 95 D. 105

Answer 62

D. 105

Question 63

Following the administration of a local anesthetic, most patients can be maintained in conscious sedation at _____. A. 20%–40% nitrous oxide B. 20%–40% oxygen C. 50% nitrous oxide D. 10% nitrous oxide

Answer 63

A. 20%–40% nitrous oxide

Question 64

Your patient is 9 years old. The mandibular left first primary molar has a large, carious lesion on the distal and on the occlusal and the tooth has greater mobility than what you would normally expect. You should _____. A. Take a radiograph of the area B. Perform a pulpotomy C. Perform a pulpectomy D. Extract the tooth and consider space maintenance

Answer 64

A. Take a radiograph of the area

Question 65

Why are rounded internal line angles desirable in the preparation of amalgam restorations in primary teeth? A. They increase retention B. They conserve tooth structure C. They increase resistance D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material

Answer 65

D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material

Question 66

Your patient is 7 years old and has a very large, carious lesion on tooth T. What radiological factors should be used in determining the best treatment of choice between pulpotomy and primary endodontics? A. Furcation involvement B. External root resorption C. Internal root resorption D. Two of the above E. All of the above

Answer 66

A. Furcation involvement

Question 67

Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates better success rates than formocresol? A. Mineral trioxide aggregate B. Calcium hydroxide C. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement D. Fifth-generation bonding agents

Answer 67

A. Mineral trioxide aggregate

Question 68

The pulp tissue of primary teeth _____. 1. In general, is smaller proportionately than permanent pulps in relation to tooth crown size. 2. Is closer to the outer surface of the tooth than the permanent teeth. 3. Follows the general surface contour of the crown. 4. Has the mesial pulp horn closer to the surface than the distal pulp horn. A. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct. B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct. C. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct. D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Answer 68

B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Question 69

The following teeth are erupted in a 4-year-old patient. What is the space maintenance of choice? ❌- A - B - C - D - E - F - G - H - I - J - ❌ ❌- ❌- S - R - Q - P - O - N - M - L - K - ❌ A. Band-loop space maintainer. B. Lower lingual holding arch. C. Nance holding arch. D. Distal shoe space maintainer.

Answer 69

D. Distal shoe space maintainer.

Question 70

If the fluoride level in the drinking water is greater than 0.6 ppm at any age, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated. If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level. A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true. B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

Answer 70

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.❌ If the patient is less than 6 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level NOTES: The systemic fluoride “Rule of 6s” states: > 0.6 ppm= no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated. < 6 months old= no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated. > 16 years old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated.

Question 71

A 1-year-old patient has his first dental examination. The dentist reviews with the parent when to expect the next teeth to erupt, teething, oral hygiene tips for toddlers, and discusses fluoride issues with bottled water and toothpaste. The term that describes this proactive approach to dental care is _____. A. Risk assessment B. Probability counseling C. Anticipatory guidance D. Preventive support counseling

Answer 71

C. Anticipatory guidance

Question 72

Most natal and neonatal teeth are primary teeth. They should be extracted. A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true. B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

Answer 72

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. They should be extracted.❌ NOTES: Extraction of primary teeth should be accomplished only if they are extremely mobile and there is danger of aspiration. Most commonly, natal and neonatal teeth are left in position.

Question 73

The “willful failure of parent or guardian to seek and follow-through with treatment necessary to ensure a level of oral health essential for adequate function and freedom from pain and infection” is a definition of _____. A. Munchausen syndrome by proxy B. Emotional abuse C. Parental corruption D. Neglect

Answer 73

D. Neglect

Question 74

Where do lesions commonly occur in the primary form of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis? A. Buccal mucosa B. Tonsils, hard and soft palate C. Tongue D. Gingiva E. All of the above

Answer 74

E. All of the above

Question 75

Localized aggressive periodontitis in the primary dentition is seen most commonly in the primary molar area. It is most common in Asian children. A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true. B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

Answer 75

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. It is most common in Asian children.❌ It is most common in AFRICAN-AMERICAN children.

Question 76

Your patient is 8 years old. Tooth #8 was avulsed and you replanted it within 30 minutes. What is the best splint to use? A. Rigid fixation for 7 days B. Rigid fixation for 2 months C. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days D. Nonrigid fixation for 2 months

Answer 76

C. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days

Question 77

Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9 have approximately 50% of their crowns erupted. One month ago, the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows open apices of these teeth, normal PDL, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice? A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy B. Formocresol apexification technique C. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

Answer 77

D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

Question 78

A permanent incisor with a closed apex is traumatically intruded. What is the treatment of choice? A. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy B. Surgical repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy C. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy D. Surgical repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy

Answer 78

A. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy NOTES: Treatment includes: a. Gradual repositioning orthodontically (2–3 weeks) b. Stabilize for 2 to 4 weeks c. Calcium hydroxide pulpectomy 2 weeks after injury

Question 79

Which of the following is the most likely cause pulpal necrosis following trauma to a tooth? A. Ankylosis B. Calcific metamorphosis C. Pulpal hyperemia D. Dilaceration

Answer 79

C. Pulpal hyperemia