Portfolio Management (Part One) Flashcards
Real Return
= Nominal Return Less Inflation
Why is evaluating investments using expected return and variance of returns a simplif ication?
Because returns do not follow a normal distribution; distributions are negatively skewed, with greater kurtosis (fatter tails) than a normal distribution. The negative skew ref lects a tendency towards large downside deviations, while the positive excess kurtosis re flects frequent extreme deviations on both the upside and
downside. These non-normal characteristics of skewness (≠ 0) and kurtosis (≠ 3) should be taken into account when analyzing investments.
How does liquidity impact evaluation of investments?
Liquidity can affect the price and, therefore, the expected return of a security. Liquidity can be a major concern in emerging markets and for securities that trade infrequently, such as low-quality corporate bonds.
Who is a risk-averse investor?
A risk-averse investor is simply one that dislikes risk (i.e., prefers less risk to more risk). Given two investments that have equal expected returns, a risk-averse investor will choose the one with less risk (standard deviation, σ). Financial models assume all investors are risk averse.
Who is a risk-seeking investor?
A risk-seeking (risk-loving) investor would actually prefer more risk to less and, given equal expected returns, would prefer the more risky investment.
Who is a risk-neutral investor?
A risk- neutral investor would have no preference regarding risk and would therefore be indifferent between any two investments with equal expected returns.
What are an investor’s utility functions?
Investors’ utility functions represent their preferences regarding the tradeoff between risk and return (i.e., their degrees of risk aversion)
What is an indifference curve?
An indifference curve is a tool from economics that, in this application, plots combinations of risk (standard deviation) and expected returns among which an investor is indifferent.
In constructing indifference curves for portfolios based on only their expected return and standard deviation of returns, we are assuming that these are the only portfolio characteristics that investors care about.
Expected Risk for a 2 Asset Portfolio where one asset is risk free
Wa*SDa
where, a is the risk bearing asset
An Indifference curve for a risk averse investor will be (flatter/steeper)
Steeper - as they will require a greater increase in expected return per unit increase in risk reflecting a higher risk aversion coefficient
The capital allocation line is a line from the risk-free return through the:
optimal risky portfolio
Expected Return for a 2 Asset Portfolio
E(Rp) = WaE(Ra) + WbE(Rb)
Sample Variance
S^2 = [Sum of (Rt - R_)]^2 / T-1
Rt = Return for period t
R_ = Mean of Sample
T = Total periods
Expected Risk for a 2 Asset Portfolio
SDp = Root of Wa^2SDa^2 + Wb^2SDb^2 + 2WaWbCorrel(A,B)SDa*SDb
Capital Allocation Line
The line representing thes possible combinations of risk-free assets and the optimal risky asset portfolio is referred to as the capital allocation line.
Two-fund separation theorem
Combining a risky portfolio with a risk-free asset is the process that supports the two-fund separation theorem, which states that all investors’ optimal portfolios will be made up of some combination of the optimal portfolio of risky assets and the risk-free asset.
Combination of Capital Allocation Line + Indifference Curve
Gives the Optimal Portfolio that maximises investors expected utility
Population Variance
SD^2 = [Sum of (Rt - Mu)]^2 / T
Rt = Return for period t
Mu = Mean of Population
T = Total periods
Covariance for Returns of Two Assets (Features)
- extent to which two variables move together over time
- does not indicate strength, only direction
- Cov = 0 - no LINEAR relation (may have non-linear relation)
Covariance for Returns of Two Assets (Formula)
Cov1,2 = Sum of [(Rt,1 - R_1)(Rt,2 - R_2)] / n-1
Rt,1 = return on Asset 1 in period t
Rt,2 = return on Asset 2 in period t
R_1 = mean return on asset 1
R_2 = mean return on asset 2
n = number of periods
Correlation
- magnitude of covariance
- standardised measure
P1,2 = Cov1,2 / SD1*SD2
P1,2 = Correlation Coefficient
-1 <= P1,2 <= 1
-1 = perfectly negatively correlated
1 = perfectly positively correlated
0 = no LINEAR relationship
Portfolio Variance
Varp = Wa^2SDa^2 + Wb^2SDb^2 + 2WaWb*Cov(a,b)
= Wa^2SDa^2 + Wb^2SDb^2 + 2WaWbCorrel(a,b)SDa*SDb
Zero-Variance Portfolio
A zero-variance portfolio can only be constructed if the correlation coeff icient between assets is -1
Can you get diversification benefits if correlation is less than 1?
Yes
Lower the correlation, (lower/greater) the expected benefit of diversification
greater - one stock hedges the other
If Correl (1,2) = 1, then Standard Deviation of Portfolio is…
weighted average of Std devs
SDp = Root of Varp = Root of W1^2SD1^2 + W2^2SD2^2 + 2W1W2SD1SD21 = Root of (W1SD1 + W2*SD2)^2
= W1SD1 + W2SD2
Portfolio Risk decreases as correlation….
decreases, thus, diversification benefit
minimum variance frontier
For each level of expected portfolio return, we can vary the portfolio weights on the individual assets to determine the portfolio that has the least risk. These portfolios that have the lowest standard deviation of all portfolios with a given expected return are known as minimum-variance portfolios. Together they make up the minimum-variance frontier.
Efficient Frontier
Those portfolios that have the greatest expected return for each level of risk (standard deviation) make up the ef ficient frontier. The ef ficient frontier coincides with the top portion of the minimum-variance frontier. A risk-averse investor would only choose portfolios that are on the eff icient frontier because all available portfolios that are not on the eff icient frontier have lower expected returns than an eff icient portfolio with the same risk.
Global minimum variance portfolio
The portfolio on the ef icient frontier that has the least risk is the global minimum-variance portfolio.
Homogenous expectations
- simplifying assumption underlying modern portfolio theory and capital asset pricing model
- investors have homogeneous expectations (i.e., they all have the same estimates of risk, return, and correlations with other risky assets for all risky assets). Under this assumption, all investors face the same eff icient frontier of risky portfolios and will all have the same optimal risky portfolio and CAL.
Optimal CAL
- tangent to Efficient Frontier
Market Portfolio
Depending on their preferences for risk and return (their indifference curves), investors may choose different portfolio weights for the risk-free asset and the risky (tangency) portfolio. Every investor, however, will use the same risky portfolio. When this is the case, that portfolio must be the market portfolio of all risky assets because all investors that hold any risky assets hold the same portfolio of risky assets.