Population Perspective Flashcards

1
Q

What does the PRISMA statement stand for, what does it do, and what is it useful for?

A

. Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic reviews and Meta-Analysis (27 item checklist)

evidence based minimum set of items aimed at helping authors report on systematic reviews and meta-analyses that assess the benefits and harms of healthcare interventions.

Useful for critical appraisal

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2
Q

What is the CONSORT used for?

A

Evidence based set of requirements for reporting RCTs. Standard way of reporting findings.
Reduces influence of bias and and aides critical appraisal and interpretation.

Consort = rCt

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3
Q

What does the GRADE criteria stand for and what is it used for?

A

Grading of Recommendations, Assessment, Development and Evaluations.

Systematic approach to judging the quality of evidence and strength of recommendations.
It links evidence quality evaluations to clinical recommendations

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4
Q

What is the Bayesian approach.

A

A method of statistical inference that allows you to combine prior information to an already set hypothesis.

AKA it allows a hypothesis to be updated as more information is acquired.

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5
Q

Give 3 types of mortality data and 5 uses for it.

A

1 Cause of death (form 66) (devil)
2 Neonatal death certificate (65) (baby devil)
3 Certificate of still birth (form 34) (steroids)

1 use in epidemiology
2 plan and evaluate health services
3 set health policies and priorities and monitor targets
4 report on the publics health
5 allocate resources
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6
Q

What is the Mills Method/Canons

A

5 methods of induction that are intended to illuminate issues of causation

1 “DIRECT METHOD OF AGREEMENT” (if 2+ instances of the phenomenon have the same circumstance then the circumstance is the cause)
2 “METHOD OF DIFFERENCE” (in an instance where a phenomenon occurs and an instance where it doesn’t occur and all variables bar 1 are the same then differing variable is the cause)
3 “JOINT METHOD OF AGREEMENT AND DIFFERENCE” (combination of the 2)
4 “METHOD OF RESIDUE” (if a range of phenomena can be attributed to a range of factors and all the phenomena have been matched with all the factors bar 1. Then the remaining phenomena can be attributed to the remaining factor)
5 “METHOD OF CONCOMITANT VARIATIONS” (whenever 1 phenomena varies in any manner which causes another phenomena to vary in any manner at the same time then the 2 phenomena are said to be causative)

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7
Q

What are the 4 criteria of HENLE-KOCH POSTULATES and what do they do?

EVANS POSTULATES also look at the same thing.

A

They identify the causative agent of an infectious disease.

1 Microorganism must be found in those suffering but not in the healthy.
2 Microorganism must be isolated and grown in a pure culture.
3 The cultured microorganism must cause disease when introduced to a healthy person.
4 The microorganism must be reisolated from the diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original causative agent.

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8
Q

What is Finagles law of information (Murphys Law)

A

anything that CAN go wrong WILL go wrong.
1 Info you have is not what you want
2 Info you want is not what you need
3 Info you need is not what you can obtain
4 Info you can get costs more that what you want to pay

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9
Q

What is a random error?

A

Happens by chance.

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10
Q

What is a systematic error?

A

Happens due to bias.

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11
Q

What is a measurement error?

A

also an ‘observational error’

The difference between the measured value and the true value therefore affecting reliability and validity

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12
Q

what is a misclassification error?

A

also a type of observational error or an information bias

happens due to recall bias

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13
Q

what is a sampling error

A

occurs when the statistical characteristics of a population are estimated for a sample of the population therefore the actual value of the population may differ from the estimate.
results in type 1 or type 2 errors

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14
Q

What is a type 1 error?

A

also called alpha error

error or REJECTING a TRUE null hypothesis

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15
Q

what is a type 2 error?

A

also calls a beta error

error of NOT REJECTING (accepting) a FALSE null hypothesis

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16
Q

what is a short form health survey (SF36)

A

places a self rated value on QOL

based on PHYSICAL and MENTAL health

17
Q

What is the EuroQuol? (EQ-5D)

A
standardised instrument for measuring generic health status.
1 mobility
2 self care
3 usual activities
4 pain/discomfort
5 anxiety/depression

also comprises of an evaluation part with a VISUAL ANOLOGUE SCALE rating current feeling/health from 0-100

18
Q

Define opportunity costs.

A

The loss of other opportunities when 1 alternative is chosen.

19
Q

Notification of disease. Who does it? to which agency? what the time frame? what are the management steps? (7)

A
Consultant in communicable disease control
Health Protection Agency
within 3 days
1 Preliminary assessment
2 Case definition and identification
3 Descriptive study
4 Analytical study
5 Verify hypothesis
6 Institute control measures
7 Communicate
20
Q

when must a birth notification/ registration be done and by who?

A

midwife within 36 hours

Parents within 42 days

21
Q

what is the significance of 1/12/2003

A

prior to this date if the parents were not married then the father has no parental responsibility, even if named on the birth certificate.

22
Q

whats the child bearing age?

23
Q

when is the fetal period?

A

24 weeks gestation to birth

24
Q

when is the early neonatal period?

A

Birth to 1 week

25
when is the late neonatal period?
1 week - 4 weeks
26
when is the post neonatal period?
1 month - 1 year
27
when is a baby know as an infant?
>1 year
28
what is the crude birth rate?
number of live births in a population in 1 year/ x1000 | total people in that population in the same year
29
what is the general birth/fertility rate?
No of live births in a population in 1 year/ x1000 No women of CBA in same population in same year
30
what is the Total Period Fertility Rate
The expected number of live births per woman of child bearing age in a population. The TPFR for a population is the number of children a women will have on average from that population.
31
what is the crude death rate?
No deaths in Pop in 1 year/ x1000 No people in same Pop in same year
32
what is the case fatality rate?
the proportion of cases of a specified condition that are fatal within a specified time (the chance of dying from a particular disease) useful indicator for severity No deaths from that disease/ x100 No diagnosed cases of that disease
33
what is the perinatal mortality rate?
fetal deaths + early neonate deaths/ x1000 | fetal deaths + live births
34
what is the still birth rate?
number of fetal deaths in 1 year/ x1000 | number of live and stillbirths in same year
35
what is the incidence rate?
Number of new cases/ | population at risk in a given time
36
what is the all cause mortality?
all deaths that occur in a population regardless of the cause. measured in clinical trials as a measure of safety of intervention.
37
what is maternal mortality rate?
maternal death= death of woman whilst pregnant or within 42 days of pregnancy due to factors caused or aggravated by pregnancy. does not include accidental or incidental causes. rate = maternal deaths in pop/ x1000 women of CBA in same pop
38
what is the bradford hill criteria and what are its aspects (9)?
Epidemiological framework to use when assessing in an observed association is likely to be causal. 1 TEMPORAL - Exposure must precede outcome 2 BIOGRAPHICAL GRADIENT - dose respond relationship 3 STRENGTH - stronger the association the more likely it is causative 4 CONSISTENCY - are the same findings found in different populations at different times? 5 PLAUSIBILITY - realistic? potential biological mechanism? 6 ALTERNATIVE EXPLANATION - have all hypotheses been considered/researched? 7 EXPERIMENT - does removal of the exposure affect frequency of the outcome? 8 SPECIFICITY - 1 to 1 relationship between cause an effect 9 COHERENCE - does relationship agree with current knowledge of the natural history/biology of the disease?