Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) Flashcards

1
Q

Define polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).

A

A heterogeneous endocrine disorder that appears to emerge at puberty.

Includes:

  1. symptoms of hyper-androgenism,
  2. presence of hyper-androgenaemia,
  3. oligo-/anovulation,
  4. and polycystic ovarian morphology on ultrasound
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2
Q

What are the clinical features of PCOS?

A

Clinical features vary widely

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3
Q

What is the aetiology of PCOS?

A

Unknown

Insulin resistance and consequent compensatory hyperinsulinaemia are key factors. Hyperinsulinaemia then causes:

  • Reduced SHBG -so more testosterone in biologically active unbound form is available
  • Increased androgen producttion which stops follicular development and causes anovulation amd menstrual disturbance
  • Weight gain due to insulin resistance

Hormonal imbalance is common

  • LH elevated due to increased amplitute and frequency of LH pulses
  • Theca cells of ovary produce excess androgens due to hyperinsulinaemia/high LH. Theca cells in PCOS are more efficient at converting androgens to testosterone
  • Serum oestrogen levels raised as follicular development stops at a stage short of full maturity of the ovulatory follicle so there is no oestrogen deficiency and no progestogen so endometrium becomes hyperplastic. Excess oestrogen may also be converted to testosterone in peripheral fat.

Genetic link in some cases but no specific genes identified

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4
Q

What are some risk factors for PCOS?

A
  • FH of PCOS
  • Premature adrenarche
  • Obesity - having PCOS does not appear to increase risk of obesity
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5
Q

How common is PCOS?

A

1 in 10 - many undiagnosed

Single most common cause of infertility in young women

Most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age

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6
Q

What are the clinical features of PCOS?

A
  • subfertility and infertility
  • menstrual disturbances: oligomenorrhea and amenorrhoea
  • hirsutism, acne (due to hyperandrogenism)
  • obesity
  • acanthosis nigricans (due to insulin resistance)
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7
Q

What investigations should be done for PCOS?

A

Bloods:

  • Calculate free androgen index - normal or elevated
  • FSH, LH - measure to rule out premature ovarian insufficiency etc.
  • TSH - exclude hypothyroidism
  • Prolactin - exclude hyperprolactinaemia

Imaging:

  • US - multiple cysts on ovaries. Ultrasound scan should not be used for the diagnosis of PCOS in adolescents due to the high incidence of multi-follicular ovaries in this life stage.
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8
Q

What does the free androgen index show? What is it in PCOS?

A

Used to caculate physiologically active testosterone level

100 x total testosterone / SHBG level

Normal or elevated in PCOS

Normal is <5

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9
Q

If testosterone is twice upper limit of normal/>5nmol/L, should you suspect PCOS?

A

No suspect other causes e.g. andorgen-secreting tumour or CAH

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10
Q

What is the conservative management (advice and screening) of PCOS?

A

Inform of possible long-term complications

Advise on measures to reduce CVD risk, including diet, exercise, and where appropriate, weight loss and smoking cessation.

Offer screening for IGT/T2DM (2 hour post 75g OGTT), CVD risk factors (QRISK2 assessment tool).

Check BP for HTN

Regular monitoring

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11
Q

What are the benefits of weight loss in PCOS?

A

Explain that weight loss may:

  1. Reduce hyperinsulinism and hyperandrogenism.
  2. Reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes and CVD.
  3. Result in menstrual regularity.
  4. Improve the chance of pregnancy (if it is desired).
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12
Q

What is the management of oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea in PCOS?

A
  • Cyclical progestogen e.g. medroxyprogesterone 10 mg daily for 14 days every 1–3 months. This helps prevent endometrial hyperplasia.
  • Low-dose COC
  • LNG-IUS
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13
Q

What is the management of acne in PCOS?

A

COC - 1st line

+/- topical retinoids, topical/oral antibiotics

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14
Q

What is the management of hirsutism in PCOS?

A
  1. Lifestyle changes - weight loss may reduce hyperandrogenism; shaving and waxing
  2. Topical eflornithine cream - ameliorates hirsutism
  3. COC - but more effective for acne than hisrsutism; modestly inhibits gonadotrophin secretion + increases SHBG to decrease testosterone
  4. Anti-androgens e.g. spironolactone, flutamide, cyproterone, finasteride. Used for severe hisrsutism.
  5. GnRH analogues e.g. leuprorelin in very severe ovarian hyper-androgenism
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15
Q

What is the management of infertility in PCOS?

A
  1. Lifestyle changes - weight loss if overweight will improve chances of pregnancy, avoid smoking.
  2. Metformin - if weight loss is unsuccessful; may restore menses/ovulation to the point that conception is possible
  3. Letrozole or clomifene - induce ovulation/anti-oestrogen; letrozole for all women or clomifene if BMI>30kg/m2. Letrozole is an aromatase inhibitor (prevents conversion of androgens to oestrogens).
  4. Consider referral for fertility treatment e.g. IVF
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16
Q

Which surgical treatment may help restore fertility in PCOS?

A

Laparoscopic ovarian drilling - procedure that destroys the ovarian stroma and may prompt ovulatory cycles

17
Q

What is a risk associated with clomifene? How does it work?

A

There is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen* therapies such as clomifene

*work by occupying hypothalamic oestrogen receptors without activating them. This interferes with the binding of oestradiol and thus prevents negative feedback inhibition of FSH secretion

18
Q

What are some important symptoms to screen for in PCOS which may require further investigation?

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea - ask about snoring and daytime fatigue/somnolence

Emotional wellbeing - PCOS may cause negative views of body image, psychosexual problems and loss of feminine identity, eating disorders.

19
Q

What are the complications of PCOS?

A
  • Metabolic disorders - insulin resistance in 65-80%, T2DM, IGT
  • Cardiovascular disease - more risk factors for this including central obesity, high TG, low HDL, HTN.
  • NAFLD - in 40-55%; 10% of these develop NASH and of these 20% progress to cirrhosis
  • Infertility
  • Pregnancy complications - gestational diabetes, HTN, pre-eclampsia (x4), premature delivery (x2), miscarriage, C-section.
  • Endometrial cancer - risk due to prolonged oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea (x3 compared to normal).
  • Psychological - higher risk of depression, anxiety, eating disorders, sexual and relationship dysfunction
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea
20
Q

What is the prognosis with PCOS?

A

Chronic condition with no cure but goal is to treat to alleviate signs/symptoms and prevent complications.

21
Q

What other causes of hyperandrogenism must be ruled out before PCOS diagnosis?

A
  • CAH
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • Androgen-secreting tumour
22
Q

What other causes of oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea must be ruled out before diagnosis of PCOS?

A
  • premature ovarian failure - raised LH and FSH and decreased in hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
  • hypothyroidism
  • hyperprolactinaemia - although in PCOS prolactin mey be mildly elevated
23
Q

What is the definition of polycystic ovaries? Do these have to be present for PCOS diagnosis?

A

Polycystic ovaries on US are defined as:

  • the presence of _>_12 or more follicles in at least one ovary (measuring 2–9 mm diameter)
  • or increased ovarian volume (greater than 10 cm3)

Do not have to be present to make the diagnosis and the finding of polycystic ovaries does not alone establish the diagnosis.

24
Q

What is IGT?

A

Plasma glucose of 7.8mmol/L or more but <11.1mmol/L after 2-hour OGTT of 75g

25
Q

Define osteomyelitis.

A

Inflammatory condition of bone caused by an infecting organism (commonly Staph aureus). Usually involves a single bone but may rarely affect multiple sites.

26
Q

What is the aetiology of osteomyelitis?

A

Infection is either:

  • haematogenous - originating from bacteraemia e.g. from skin infection, acute/subactue endocarditis, IV drug use
  • contiguous focus - originating from a focus of infection adjacent to the area of osteomyelitis

Micro organisms in haematogenous osteomelitis: (most common is Staph aureus). Different groups of patients are susceptible to different organisms

27
Q

Which organisms most commonly cause haematogenous osteomyelitis in infants and young children?

A

Infants:

  • S aureus
  • Group B streptococci
  • Aerobic garm -ve bacilli

Children <4:

  • S aureus
  • Strep pyogenes
  • H. influenzae (if not immunised)
  • Kingella kingae
28
Q

Which organisms cause haematogeous osteomyelitis in older children and older adults?

A

Older children and adults

Staph aureus

Older adults

Gram -ve bacilli

29
Q

What is the pathophysiology of osetomyelitis?

A
  • Bacteria enter bloodstream
  • Most of these are biofilm forming bacteria
  • Infecetion spreads once bacteria adhere to surface
  • Antibiotics that act on cell division are ineffective because these bacteria have minimal cellular invasion
  • Usually affects metaphysis of long bones in children or vertebral bodies in adults
  • Usually spares joint - but septic arthritis of adjacent joint may be indication of acute osteomyelitis esp in children
30
Q

What are the four anatomical subtypes of osteomyelitis?

A
  • I - medullary and endosteal bone (haem)
  • II - suuperficial osteomyelitis (contiguous)
  • III - medullary and cortical involvement, but only part of circumference of bone affected
  • IV - diffuse involvement of entire circumference of bone
32
Q

How common is osteomyelitis?

A
  • 21.8/100,000 incidence
  • Higher in men
  • Recently incidence triples in patients with diabetes-related illnesses
33
Q

What are the risk factors for osteomyelitis?

A
  • penetrating injuries
  • surgical contamination
  • IV drug use - S aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • diabetes mellitus - usually following minor trauma
  • periodonitis - periodontal abscesses occur in osteomyelitis of the mandible
34
Q

What are the symptoms of osteomyelitis?

A
  • Fever (typically low-grade)
  • Non-specific pain at the site of infection
  • Decreased sensation in cases of diabetic foot
  • Malaise and fatigue
  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Sinus or wound drainage.
35
Q

What investigations would you do for osteomyelitis?

A

Bloods:

  • FBC - raised WCC/normal in chronic
  • ESR/CRP - raised/normal in chronic. Good indicator of treatment efficacy.
  • Culture of aspirate/biopsy/blood - deep samples should be taken after stopping antibiotics for 2 weeks.
  • Histology - gram stainng of aspirate gives good indication of organism present

Imaging:

  • Plain radiographs - look for fractures, tumours, osteopenia (6-7 days after infection onset). In chronic infection “fallen leaf” sign is when piece of endosteal sequestrum detaches and falls into medullary canal.
  • US - associated collections, subperiosteal abscesses, joint effusions (=septic arthritis), guiding biopsy
  • MRI /CT - most hepful T2.
36
Q

What may be seen in acute and chronic osteomyelitis on plain radiograph imaging?

A

acute disease:

  • osteopenia appears 6-7 days after infection onset,
  • and evidence of bone destruction,
  • cortical breaches,
  • and periosteal reaction follow quickly;
  • involucrum and sequestra* can sometimes be seen, with further diffuse osteopenia developing later secondary to disuse of the affected limb;

chronic disease:

  • intramedullary scalloping, cavities, and cloacae may be seen,
  • with a ‘fallen leaf’ sign noted when a piece of endosteal sequestrum has detached and fallen into the medullary canal
37
Q

What are the signs of osteomyelitis on examination?

A
  • Local inflammation and erythema/swelling
  • Acute/old healed sinuses, scars from previous surgery, fracture fixture
  • Previous operations, scars/flap designs
  • Decreased range of motion above and below the infected segment
  • Deformitu of limd - esp in childhood osteomyelitis that may resulted in premature fusion of the physeal plate, resulting in limb shortening or angular deformity
  • Tenderness to percussion over subcutaenous border of affected bones in chronic osteomyelitis
  • Cervical vertebral osteomyelitis in those with torticollis secondary to seft-tissue infection of the neck
  • Lumbar vertebral osteomyelitis will present with low back pain and may be associated with recen urosepsis, possibly due to anatomy of Batson’s plexus
40
Q

What are involucrum and sequestra in osteomyelitis?

A

The sequestrum is a piece of dead bone that has become separated during the process of necrosis from normal or sound bone.

When the sequestrum becomes encased in a thick sheath of periosteal new bone, known as an involucrum.