Pollution Flashcards

1
Q

In cases involving alleged bypass of oil filtration equipment, samples may be sent to the MSL to determine ___.

A

Path of discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What three tests can MSL run on oil samples?

A

Gas Chromatography (GC)
Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
Infrared Spectrometry (IR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of gloves should be worn when taking oil samples?

A

Nitrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of tape used to seal sample jars?

A

Electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Swipe samples should be taken with ___.

A

4” x 4” PTFE pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which samples should be taken first?

A

Spill (due to weathering)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimum number of samples in order to run a comparison at MSL

A

3 samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What three locations should spill samples be taken from?

A

Center, leading edge, trailing edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Spill samples should be taken where the oil appears ___ .

A

Heaviest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

McGill sheen net samples are highly susceptible to ___.

A

Biodegradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Source samples should be taken from any facility or vessel that had ___.

A

Opportunity to cause the spill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where should you take samples from each suspected source?

A

All tanks and bilges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

As oil samples are subject to weathering even after collection, samples should be sent to the MSL when?
-As soon as possible
-Immediately
-As soon as practical
-Within specified time

A

As soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Oil samples should be kept in a ___,___ place.

A

Cool, dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Optimal conditions for storing samples at the unit are in what type of refrigerator?

A

Explosion proof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A ___ storage fridge may be used instead of an explosion proof fridge if conditions are appropriate.

A

Flammable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The refrigerator temperature for storing oil samples should be___.

A

40-42 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MSL does not require the use of ___ when taking samples.
-Chain of Custody Labels
-Paper tubes
-Electrical tape
-Sorbents

A

Chain of custody labels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cases sent to the MSL shall use what number for tracking on the Chain of Custody, Letter of Request, and sample jar labels?

A

MISLE Incident Investigation Activity number (IIA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most important document related to samples sent to MSL?

A

Chain of Custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sample labels should be copied to the chain of custody___
-word for word
-you can correct spelling
-verbatim
-add additional detail

A

Verbatim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If unit policy states the watch stander has custody of samples in the storage fridge, the Chain of Custody___ need to be signed each time the watch changes.

A

Does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What two documents should be shipped with the oil samples?

A

Chain of custody and letter of request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The letter of request should be signed by a unit representative with ___.

A

“By Direction” signing authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Oil samples with nothing to compare them to, but the unit wishes to preserve, may be sent to MSL ___.

A

For prep only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long does it take MSL to acquire the analytical data for each sample?

A

65 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How quickly does MSL handle “priority” samples after receipt?

A

1-3 business days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What priority should be used when a vessel is detained, commerce is interrupted, or high media interest?

A

Rush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What regulations are oil samples shipped under?

A

IATA DGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the shipping name, UN number, and packaging group for oil samples?

A

Petroleum products, N.O.S.
UN 1268
PG II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the inner packaging for oil samples?

A

4 oz glass jars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many sample jars may go in one box?

A

8 jars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max weight of outer packaging of a shipment of oil samples?

A

30kg (66lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unit personnel designated to sign the Shipper’s Declaration of Dangerous Goods must be ___.

A

Properly trained and certified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long does MSL retain oil samples before requesting to destroy?

A

5 fiscal years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How big is a Boulder?

A

> 257 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How big is a cobble?

A

64-256 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How big is a pebble?

A

4-64 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How big is a granule?

A

2-4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How big is sand?

A

0.06-2 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Surface oil distribution from 91-100%

A

Continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Surface oil distribution from 51-90%

A

Broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Surface oil distribution from 11-50

A

Patchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Surface oil distribution from 1-10%

A

Sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Surface oil distribution of less than 1%

A

Trace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How big is a tar ball?

A

Less than 10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How big is a tar patty?

A

Greater than 10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

For oil weathering models, what level of uncertainty should be used for crude oil

A

Medium to high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can increase the amount of pollutant to be recovered by a factor of 2-4?

A

Emulsification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the mixing of the water-soluble components of oil into the water?

A

Dissolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Two major processes that transport oil on water.

A

Spreading and advection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are advection mechanisms that can transport oil across great distances?

A

Wind, currents, and large-scale turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Wind affects the trajectory of oil in what three major ways?

A

Oil weathering, Surface effects on water, and Direct transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What current can transport oil for thousands of miles in months to years?

A

Ocean circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What current can transport oil for hundreds of miles in weeks?

A

Ocean coastal flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What current can transport oil for tens of miles in weeks?

A

Estuarine circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What current can transport oil for tens of miles in hours to days?

A

Rivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Dominant tidal pattern in most of the world’s oceans, having two cycles per day.

A

Semi-diurnal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pattern of one high tide and one low tide per day.

A

Diurnal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is mixed semi-diurnal tide?

A

When the two high tides and two low tides are at different levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Highest and lowest tide when the moon is full or new.

A

Spring tide

62
Q

When tidal range is the lowest, and occurs near the first and last lunar quarters.

A

Neap tide

63
Q

Where is the strongest tidal current found?

A

In shallow waters or narrow channels connecting large bodies of water.

64
Q

This type of current is important for trajectory purposes as it provides a mechanism for transporting oil in nearshore areas beyond the breakers and offshore.

A

Langmuir currents
Tidal currents
Tidal convergence
Longshore currents

65
Q

What can be placed at the mouths of creeks or streams to prevent oil from entering, or to prevent oil in the creek from being released into offshore waters?

A

Barriers/Berms

66
Q

What cleanup method involves removal of oil from debris or pushing oil to a collection site with water pressure?

A

Physical Herding

67
Q

What is it called when oil is removed using backhoes, graders, bulldozers, or dredgers?

A

Mechanical Removal

68
Q

What pressure is used for high pressure hot water flushing?

A

720 kpa (~104 psi)

69
Q

What surfaces can high pressure hot water flushing be used on?

A

Gravel substrates, bedrock, and man-made structures.

70
Q

Shoreline type with a steep intertidal zone, with greater than a 30 degree slope.

A

Exposed rocky shores

71
Q

Shoreline type consisting of a bedrock shelf with a gentle slope, and rich tide pool communities.

A

Exposed wave-cut platforms in bedrock

72
Q

Shoreline type where cleanup is usually not required, because stranded oil is quickly removed by wave action.

A

Exposed scarps and steep slopes in clay.

73
Q

Shoreline type used by turtles and birds for nesting.

A

Fine to medium-grained sand

74
Q

Shoreline type where maximum oil penetration is 10-15 cm.

A

Fine to medium-grained sand

75
Q

Shoreline type among the easiest to clean; efforts should focus on preventing the mixing of oil deeper into sediment by vehicular and foot traffic.

A

Fine to medium-grained sand

76
Q

Shoreline types (3) where manual removal is recommended to reduce the amount of removed material.

A

-Fine to medium-grained sand
-Scarps and steep slopes in sand
-Course-grained sand

77
Q

Shoreline type where removal of too much material may increase erosion.

A

Scarps and steep slopes in sand

78
Q

Course-grained sand beaches show oil behavior of ____ penetration and ____ burial.

A

25 cm penetration and 60 cm burial.

79
Q

Oil behavior on mixed sand and gravel beaches includes ____ penetration and ____ burial.

A

50 cm penetration, and deep.

80
Q

Shoreline type where low pressure flushing may be used to separate oil from sediment, but high pressure should be avoided to avoid transporting contaminated sediment into the intertidal zone.

A

Mixed sand and gravel

81
Q

Shoreline type with deep oil penetration due to high permeability

A

Gravel beaches

82
Q

Shoreline type made of cobble to bounder sized rocks used to protect harbors:

A

Rip rap

83
Q

Shoreline type composed of sand and minor amounts of shell, gravel, or mud; heavy use by birds for roosting and foraging and use by foraging fish.

A

Exposed Tidal Flats

84
Q

Shoreline type with a narrow window for cleanup only at low tide.

A

Exposed tidal flats

85
Q

Hard to clean shoreline type where use of heavy machinery should be restricted to prevent mixing of oil into the sediments.

A

Exposed tidal flats

86
Q

Shoreline types (3) with rough surfaces oil will readily adhere to.

A

-Rip Rap
-Sheltered rocky shores
-Sheltered, solid man-made structures

87
Q

Shoreline type with soft sediments that cannot support even light foot traffic in many areas.

A

Sheltered tidal flats

88
Q

When cleaning sheltered, vegetated low banks, what should be placed on the water side of the cleanup operations to contain and collect oil outflow?

A

Sorbent and containment boom

89
Q

Shoreline types (3) where natural recovery is recommended for light oiling

A

-Salt and brackish-water marshes
-Freshwater marshes
-Swamps

90
Q

Shoreline type where wrack should be removed after the threat of oiling has passed.

A

Mangroves

91
Q

Part of boom that sits underwater to prevent or reduce the escape of oil:

A

Skirt

92
Q

When oil travels under boom due to current:

A

Entrainment

93
Q

Entrainment can occur at how many knots?

A

0.7-1.0 Knots

94
Q

Deploying boom at what angle may prevent entrainment?

A

Less than 90 degrees to the direction of flow

95
Q

When too much oil builds up against the face of the boom and escapes underneath:

A

Drainage failure

96
Q

When oil is splashed or blown over the top of the boom:

A

Splash-over failure

97
Q

Splash over failure occurs when the water is:

A

Choppy

98
Q

When boom is deployed in fast current or is pulled at high speeds, this may occur other than entrainment:

A

Submergence failure

99
Q

hen booming lays flat due to wind and current in opposite directions:

A

Planing

100
Q

Booming strategy used in little to no current to isolate a spill?

A

Containment Booming

101
Q

What are the four types of boom per the Exxon Mobile Field Manual?

A

-Internal foam floatation
-Self-inflating
-Pressure-inflatable
-Fence

102
Q

Boom towing strategy using two boats:

A

U Booming

103
Q

Boom towing strategy using three boats and a skimmer:

A

V Booming

104
Q

Boom towing strategy using two boats and a skimmer:

A

J Booming

105
Q

What booming strategy should be used to protect the entrances to harbors when current is greater than 1 kt and breaking waves are under 1.5 ft?

A

Diversion Booming

106
Q

Booming strategy used to protect a sensitive area:

A

Exclusion Booming

107
Q

Booming strategy used to divert oil away from a sensitive area to a less sensitive location for recovery:

A

Diversion Booming

108
Q

Constructed along the upper intertidal zone to prevent incoming tides from depositing oil onto back-shore areas:

A

Beach Berms

109
Q

What viscosity of oil is a rope mop skimmer good for?

A

Medium viscosity

110
Q

What MER Manual chapter covers ACP compliance?

A

Chapter 4

111
Q

What MER Manual chapter covers industry response plans?

A

Chapter 5

112
Q

Coast Guard response personnel must be trained to which HAZWOPER levels prior to responding to an actual or potential discharge or release?

A

-First Responder Awareness (FRA)
-First Responder Operations (FRO)

113
Q

What gives the FOSC authority to direct or monitor all federal, state, and private actions to remove a discharge?

A

Section 311 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA)

114
Q

All IMDs in Sectors and MSUs with COTP authority shall maintain how many FOSCRs and PRs?

A

-2 FOSCRs
-3 PRs

115
Q

All IMDs in Sectors and MSUs without COTP authority shall maintain how many FOSCRs and PRs?

A

-2 FOSCRs
-2 PRs

116
Q

IMD pollution response teams shall be deployable within ____.

A

90 minutes

117
Q

Preliminary assessments shall be conducted for all reports of pollution, and shall encompass these 5 factors:

A

-Injuries or Risk to the public
-Source of the pollution
-Source status (secured or not)
-Suspected responsible party
-RP’s actions

118
Q

What 4 factors go into determining a substantial threat?

A

-Size of the spill
-Character of the spill
-Threat to public health and welfare
-Proximity to an environmentally sensitive site

119
Q

When determining a threat to public health or welfare, the FOSC should consider the potential for harm to____.

A

Human populations, drinking water, and food supplies.

120
Q

What is not considered when determining a threat to public health and welfare?

A

Proximity to an environmentally sensitive area

121
Q

What form is used at the beginning of a response, before the IAP is available?

A

ICS 201

122
Q

What is the ICS 201 not?

A

A detailed incident report

123
Q

What ICS component prepares the Incident Action Plan?

A

Planning Section

124
Q

Incident Objectives form number

A

-ICS 202

125
Q

Organization Assignment List form number

A

-ICS 203

126
Q

Assignment List form number`

A

-ICS 204

127
Q

ICS Medical plan

A

ICS 206

127
Q

ICS Medical plan

A

ICS 206

128
Q

ICS Site Safety Plan

A

ICS 208

129
Q

IAP Safety Analysis form number

A

-ICS 215A

130
Q

According to the NCP, who coordinates responses?

A

-FOSC-

131
Q

The FOSC can take over what part of the response?

A

All or some

132
Q

PRFA: Must agree on these items except:
A-Time frame
B-Specific goods/services to be provided
C-A good faith estimate of total anticipated costs
D-A line item breakdown of expense categories

A

A-Time frame

133
Q

A PRFA must be completed to get a Scientific Support Coordinator, unless waived by:

A

-NOAA

134
Q

Who is responsible for reporting pollution incidents from a vessel?
a-Owner/operator
b-Master
c-Chief Officer
d-Chief Engineer

A

b-Master

“Any person in charge of a vessel or facility shall, as soon as he has knowledge of a discharge, immediately notify NRC.”

135
Q

Who are the best people to conduct SCAT?

A

Trained team members

136
Q

Who is responsible for employee PPE?
A-Employer
B-Supervisor
C-Individual

A

C-Employer

137
Q

When taking witness statements, PR…

A

May NOT make corrections

138
Q

USCG exposure limit for benzene:
A) OSHA PEL: 1 ppm
B) ACGIH TLV: 0.5 ppm
c) NIOSH REL: 0.1 ppm

A

C)NIOSH REL: 0.1 ppm

139
Q

What CFR cite do you find information on marine casualties?

A

46 CFR 4

140
Q

A discharge of 10,000 gallons or more, irrespective of location, is defined as what?

A

A Serious Marine Incident

141
Q

What should be emphasized when writing witness statements?
a) Proper spelling
b) Proper wording
c) Accuracy
d) Length

A

c) Accuracy

142
Q

What is not part of the definition of IDLH?
a-Disease, affects behavior, and cancer
b-Limit ability to escape.
c-Permanent injury of long-term onset
d-Danger to life and health

A

a-Disease, affects behavior, and cancer

“An atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual’s ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.”

143
Q

A serious threat, as determined by the Commandant, and confirmed by the Chairman of the National Transportation Safety Board, to life, property, or the environment by hazardous materials.

A

-Major Marine Casualty

144
Q

Spilling, pumping, or dumping of oil into a navigable waterway counts as a…

A

-Discharge

145
Q

Cite for Coast Guard pollution jurisdiction

A

-33 CFR 2

146
Q

What does SMAC stand for?

A

Stop, Move away, Alert, and Close-off

147
Q

How big is a medium coastal spill?

A

10,000 to 100,000 gallons

148
Q

Info from the ICS 203 is used to create what form?

A

-ICS 207

149
Q

For oil weathering models, what level of uncertainty should be used for crude oil?

A

Medium to high

150
Q

For oil weathering models, what level of uncertainty should be used for crude oil?

A

Medium to high