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SWE 2023 > EPME E-5 and below > Flashcards

EPME E-5 and below Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil

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2
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to ____ months of education benefits.

A

36 months

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3
Q

A purpose of what program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard?

A

Advanced Education

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4
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than ____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.

A

95,000

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5
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

5 drinks

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6
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

4 drinks

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7
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?

A

0.08

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8
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 oz

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9
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?

A

Suicide Attempt

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10
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

A

Suicide

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11
Q

What term is defined as self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

A

Self-Harm

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12
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a ____ level of intensity.

A

Medium to vigorous

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13
Q

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?

A

Moderate

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14
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process ____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success

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15
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

GAR 2.0

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16
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew endurance

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17
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

PEACE and STAAR Models

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18
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed ____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.

A

14 hours

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19
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?

A

Desert Storm/Shield

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20
Q

In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?

A

2005

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21
Q

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following ____.

A

The World Trade Center attack

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22
Q

What language did Semper Paratus originate from?

A

Latin

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23
Q

If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?

A

Manufacturer

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24
Q

Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the ____ to prevent improper use or handling.

A

Safety Data Sheet

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25
Q

Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?

A

O-6 or higher

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26
Q

Transition/Relocation Managers may provide ____ with local resource information.

A

Welcome Packages

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27
Q

What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?

A

Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)

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28
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?

A

March and September

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29
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?

A

April and October

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30
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?

A

Servicewide Eligibility Date (SED)

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31
Q

A first term enlisted member’s IDP must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within ____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30 days

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32
Q

What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

Avoid

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33
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR

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34
Q

In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Feedback

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35
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 months.

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36
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

Investigator Rating or Diver Rating

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37
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

based on service need and will be announced by ALCOAST message.

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38
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

A

Suicide

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39
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

A

Self-Harm

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40
Q

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

A

Suicide Threat

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41
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?

A

Suicide Attempt

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42
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm Level 1

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43
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm Level 2

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44
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm Level 3

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45
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide Attempt Level 2

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46
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide Attempt Level 1

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47
Q

What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?

A

Suicide-Related Ideations

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48
Q

What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?

A

Death

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49
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?

A

Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior

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50
Q

Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.

A

Suicide-Related Ideation.

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51
Q

In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.

A

Episode of Suicidal Thinking

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52
Q

What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?

A

Suicide-Related Communications.

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53
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.

A

Suicide Plan

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54
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?

A

Suicide Plan

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55
Q

Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?

A

IS PATH WARM? (Ideation, Substance use, Purposelessness, Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood Changes.

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56
Q

_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.

A

Asking

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57
Q

What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”

A

Statement of your observations.

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58
Q

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

A

ACE (Ask, Care, Escort)

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59
Q

During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?

A

Ask step.

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60
Q

During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.

A

Care step.

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61
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?

A

Care step.

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62
Q

During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?

A

Care Step

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63
Q

In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?

A

Care Step

64
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?

A

Care step.

65
Q

You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?

A

Care Step

66
Q

During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?

A

Escort Step.

67
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?

A

Escort Step.

68
Q

If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?

A

Ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious.

69
Q

If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?

A

How? Situation? History?

70
Q

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?

A

Regional Work-Life Office.

71
Q

Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?

A

Abstinence

72
Q

Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?

A

All Active Duty

73
Q

Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?

A

Submitted to their supervisors.

74
Q

When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?

A

Months of April and October.

75
Q

The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.

A

the member and supervisor.

76
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?

A

150 minutes

77
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?

A

2 or more days.

78
Q

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.

A

180 minutes per week.

79
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.

A

150 minutes.

80
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.

A

30 minutes.

81
Q

Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.

A

10 minutes

82
Q

In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?

A

3 days per week.

83
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.

A

medium to vigorous level of intensity.

84
Q

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?

A

Moderate-Intensity.

85
Q

What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?

A

CG-6049.

86
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.

A

Acceptance of some level of risk.

87
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?

A

7 human factors (mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness).

88
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success.

89
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.

A

expected risk exposure.

90
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

Risk Management Process.

91
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

GAR 2.0

92
Q

When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?

A

When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.

93
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.

A

continuous and adaptive.

94
Q

Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?

A

5 steps (1. Identify Hazards, 2. Assessing Hazards, 3. Developing controls and making decisions, 4. Implementing controls, 5. Supervising and evaluation controls).

95
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?

A

Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM).

96
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew Endurance

97
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.

A

Address unique operational realities.

98
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

PEACE and STAAR models.

99
Q

_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.

A

Risk

100
Q

_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.

A

Risk Management (RM).

101
Q

How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

3 steps (Assess Hazard Exposure, Assess Hazard Severity, Assess Probability).

102
Q

What is binge drinking for women?

A

04 drinks within a 2 hour period.

103
Q

What is binge drinking for men?

A

05 drinks within a 2 hour period

104
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.

A

 Passes out and cannot be awakened
 Vomiting while passed out
 Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin
 Breathing is slow and irregular

105
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

0,1,2,3 model

106
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when _____.

A

when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications

107
Q

A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.

A

180 days

108
Q

The music for Semper Paratus was Written by __?

A

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck

109
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of__ praising the revenue cutter ingham

A

New Orleans

110
Q

When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?

A

Not known exactly, between 1896 and 1897

111
Q

The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.

A

CG Stripe

112
Q

The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.

A

CG Stripe

113
Q

The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.

A

CG Shield

114
Q

The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.

A

CG Emblem

115
Q

The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in

A

1927

116
Q

The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.

A

CG Seal

117
Q

The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.

A

CG Seal

118
Q

The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.

A

Commissioning Pennant

119
Q

The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.

A

Union Jack

120
Q

The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.

A

Union Jack

121
Q

The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.

A

43

122
Q

The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.

A

U.S. Marine Corps.

123
Q

Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.

A

Major Headquarters Commands

124
Q

Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.

A

Streamers

125
Q

Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.

A

Coast Guard Standard

126
Q

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.

A

Coast Guard Standard

127
Q

The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.

A

Coast Guard Standard

128
Q

On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

129
Q

The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

130
Q

The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

131
Q

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?

A

26 times

132
Q

Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?

A

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal

133
Q

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?

A

Bronze Star with Combat “V” and the purple heart.

134
Q

In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.

A

87 days

135
Q

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.

A

9/11

136
Q

In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurrican Katrina?

A

2005

137
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?

A

Operation Desert Shield/Storm in the Persian Gulf

138
Q

During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?

A

26 Point class patrol boats

139
Q

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.

A

Operation Market Time

140
Q

Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

141
Q

During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

142
Q

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?

A

6 Cutters. CGC Tampa was one of them and sunk.

143
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?

A

World War 1

144
Q

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.

A

Captain of the Port.

145
Q

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.

A

A torpedo

146
Q

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?

A

USRC HARRIET LANE

147
Q

On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.

A

United States Revenue Cutter Service.

148
Q

Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?

A

Ellsworth Price Bertholf

149
Q

Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?

A

LT Elmer Stone

150
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?

A

March 1st, 2003.

151
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?

A

April 1st, 1967.

152
Q

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?

A

January 28th, 1915.

153
Q

The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.

A

1831

154
Q

In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?

A

Steamboat Inspection Service

155
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.

A

10

SWE 2023 (7 decks)

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