EPME E-5 and below Flashcards
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to ____ months of education benefits.
36 months
A purpose of what program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard?
Advanced Education
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than ____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
95,000
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5 drinks
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4 drinks
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 oz
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
What term is defined as self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self-Harm
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a ____ level of intensity.
Medium to vigorous
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process ____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increases mission success
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew endurance
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE and STAAR Models
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed ____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
14 hours
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Desert Storm/Shield
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
2005
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following ____.
The World Trade Center attack
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Manufacturer
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the ____ to prevent improper use or handling.
Safety Data Sheet
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O-6 or higher
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide ____ with local resource information.
Welcome Packages
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April and October
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?
Servicewide Eligibility Date (SED)
A first term enlisted member’s IDP must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within ____ days of reporting to the unit.
30 days
What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
Avoid
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
6 months.
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
Investigator Rating or Diver Rating
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
based on service need and will be announced by ALCOAST message.
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self-Harm
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
Self Harm Level 1
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
Self Harm Level 2
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
Self Harm Level 3
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Attempt Level 2
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Attempt Level 1
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-Related Ideations
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Death
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicide-Related Ideation.
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
Episode of Suicidal Thinking
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide-Related Communications.
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.
Suicide Plan
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM? (Ideation, Substance use, Purposelessness, Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood Changes.
_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Asking
What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”
Statement of your observations.
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE (Ask, Care, Escort)
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask step.
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care step.
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care step.
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care Step
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care Step
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care step.
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care Step
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort Step.
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort Step.
If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious.
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
How? Situation? History?
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Regional Work-Life Office.
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
Abstinence
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
All Active Duty
Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
Submitted to their supervisors.
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
Months of April and October.
The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.
the member and supervisor.
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
2 or more days.
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.
180 minutes per week.
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150 minutes.
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes.
Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
10 minutes
In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days per week.
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.
medium to vigorous level of intensity.
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate-Intensity.
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
CG-6049.
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.
Acceptance of some level of risk.
What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
7 human factors (mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness).
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increases mission success.
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.
expected risk exposure.
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
Risk Management Process.
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.
continuous and adaptive.
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
5 steps (1. Identify Hazards, 2. Assessing Hazards, 3. Developing controls and making decisions, 4. Implementing controls, 5. Supervising and evaluation controls).
What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM).
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew Endurance
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.
Address unique operational realities.
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE and STAAR models.
_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
Risk
_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Risk Management (RM).
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
3 steps (Assess Hazard Exposure, Assess Hazard Severity, Assess Probability).
What is binge drinking for women?
04 drinks within a 2 hour period.
What is binge drinking for men?
05 drinks within a 2 hour period
A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.
Passes out and cannot be awakened
Vomiting while passed out
Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin
Breathing is slow and irregular
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0,1,2,3 model
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when _____.
when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180 days
The music for Semper Paratus was Written by __?
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of__ praising the revenue cutter ingham
New Orleans
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Not known exactly, between 1896 and 1897
The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG Emblem
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in
1927
The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG Seal
The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG Seal
The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Union Jack
The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Union Jack
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.
43
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.
U.S. Marine Corps.
Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major Headquarters Commands
Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.
Streamers
Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard Standard
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard Standard
The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
Coast Guard Standard
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.
Coast Guard Ensign
The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard Ensign
The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard Ensign
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26 times
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star with Combat “V” and the purple heart.
In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.
87 days
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.
9/11
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurrican Katrina?
2005
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Operation Desert Shield/Storm in the Persian Gulf
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26 Point class patrol boats
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6 Cutters. CGC Tampa was one of them and sunk.
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
World War 1
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the Port.
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.
A torpedo
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
USRC HARRIET LANE
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.
United States Revenue Cutter Service.
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Ellsworth Price Bertholf
Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?
LT Elmer Stone
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
March 1st, 2003.
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
April 1st, 1967.
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
January 28th, 1915.
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
