Facilities Flashcards

1
Q

An analysis that examines and evaluates the infrastructure and operations of a port, taking into account possible threats, vulnerabilities, and existing protective measures.

A

Area Maritime Security (AMS) Assessment

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2
Q

An evaluation of a security assessment or security plan, intended to identify inadequacies that would render the assessment of plan insufficient.

A

Audit

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3
Q

Which MARSEC level involves additional security measures for a period of time as a result of a heightened risk of a TSI?

A

MARSEC Level 2

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4
Q

Which MARSEC level involves specific protective security measures for a limited time when a TSI is probable or imminent?

A

MARSEC Level 3

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5
Q

Term for the area with access control that the FSP applies to:

A

Secure area

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6
Q

Who does a facility submit an alternate security program to?

A

Commandant

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7
Q

Who sets MARSEC Levels?

A

Commandant

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8
Q

Who can temporarily raise the MARSEC Level for a port?

A

COTP

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9
Q

Waterfront facilities must report TSIs to…

A

COTP

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10
Q

Who do Outer Continental Shelf facilities report TSIs to?

A

District Commander

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11
Q

Report security breaches to…

A

NRC

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12
Q

Who issues MARSEC Directives?

A

Commandant

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13
Q

105 does not apply to which facilities?
A-Receives commercial fishing vessels subject to 46 CFR 105
B-Receives passenger vessels with 150 passengers.
C-Receives SOLAS vessels.
D-Receives US cargo vessels subject to Subchapter I.

A

A-Receives commercial fishing vessels subject to 46 CFR 105

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14
Q

The same person can be the FSO for more than one facility, provided…

A

-The facilities are in the same COTP zone, and
-Not more than 50 miles apart.

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15
Q

To count a MARSEC Level change as an exercise, a facility must…

A

Report attainment to the COTP.

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16
Q

How often must facility security drills be conducted?

A

Every 3 months

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17
Q

Facility security drills must cover what parts of the FSP?

A

Individual

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18
Q

If a vessel is at a facility during a security drill, the vessel…

A

Cannot be required to participate.

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19
Q

How often must facility security exercises conducted?

A

Every calendar year, not to exceed 18 months between

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20
Q

Security exercises must test…

A

-Communication and notification procedures,
-Coordination, resource availability, and response

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21
Q

Facility security exercises are…

A

A full test of the security program.

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22
Q

How long must a facility keep security training, drills, exercises, and maintenance records?

A

2 years, except for USCG inspection forms

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23
Q

How long must a facility retain a Declaration of Security?

A

90 days

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24
Q

How long a facility must attain a MARSEC level change in…

A

12 hours

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25
Q

How long is a Declaration of Security valid for at MARSEC Level 1?

A

90 days

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26
Q

What is the maximum duration of a Declaration of Security?

A

90 days

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27
Q

How long is a Declaration of Security valid for at MARSEC Level 2?

A

30 days

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28
Q

Where do you need a TWIC to have unescorted access?

A

-Secure area

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29
Q

At MARSEC Level 2, what type of screening must be conducted on all unaccompanied baggage?

A

X-Ray

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30
Q

At all MARSEC levels, cruise ship terminals must ensure the screening of…

A

All persons, baggage, and personal effects.

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31
Q

How many towing vessels must be available for a barge fleeting facility?

A

One for every 100 barges.

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32
Q

FSPs must be protected per…

A

49 CFR 1520 (Protecting SSI)

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33
Q

Designated dangerous cargo includes:

A

Division 1.1 and 1.2 explosives

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34
Q

Arrangement of cargo to allow for access to firefighting must be according to what NFPA and chapter?

A

NFPA 307 Ch 8-5

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35
Q

On a designated waterfront facility, what must be kept in adequate numbers and locations?

A

Fire extinguishing equipment

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36
Q

Hazardous materials used in the operation or maintenance of a 126 facility may be stored in what quantities?

A

Amounts necessary for normal operation conditions.

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37
Q

Storage of flammable liquids must be in accordance with what?

A

NFPA 30

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38
Q

Where on a facility of particular hazard must warning alarms be installed?

A

Waterside

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39
Q

On a facility of a particular hazard, how far must visual warning alarms be installed to be seen or heard from a distance away of__.

A

1 mile

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40
Q

What must be marked on all containers of ammonium nitrate?

A

Proper shipping name

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41
Q

Ammonium nitrate must be separated from organic materials by a wall or a distance of…

A

30 feet

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42
Q

Distance of hot work from hazmat stores:

A

100 feet from explosives
50 feet from other hazmat

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43
Q

Distance of hot work from gas freezing operations?

A

100 feet

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44
Q

Distance of hot work from fueling operations?

A

100 feet

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45
Q

LNG products marked with the letter T means?

A

Toxic

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46
Q

How far in advance must a 127 facility submit a Letter of Intent to the COTP?

A

1 year prior to the start of construction

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47
Q

How soon must the COTP be notified if any of the information on the Letter of Intent changes?

A

Within 15 days

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48
Q

The preliminary waterway suitability assessment must be submitted with the _

A

Letter of Intent

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49
Q

When must the follow-on Water Suitability Assessment be submitted?

A

180 days prior to transfer

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50
Q

After receiving the Letter of Intent from a 127 facility, the COTP will…

A

Issue a Letter of Recommendation

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51
Q

How far in advance of operations must a 127 facility submit alternative compliance requests?

A

30 days

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52
Q

Each LNG loading flange must be _ from each bridge crossing a navigable waterway and each entrance to a tunnel under a navigable waterway

A

300 meters

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53
Q

What must an LNG facility’s emergency power provide power to?

A

Emergency shutdown, communications, firefighting, emergency lighting

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54
Q

What does not need to be serviced by an LNG facility’s emergency power?

A

Security

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55
Q

Lighting on a 127 facility must be how bright?

A

55 lux (5 foot-candles) at loading flanges
11 lux (1 foot-candle) in work areas

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56
Q

Emergency lighting in an LNG facility must illuminate what 3 things?

A

Emergency shutdown systems
Communications equipment
Firefighting equipment

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57
Q

LNG fixed sensors must have…

A

Audio and visual alarms in the control room

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58
Q

Warning alarms on an LNG facility must maintain 50% flash intensity in a vertical arc…

A

1 degree above and below the horizontal plane

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59
Q

Each light and siren on an LNG/LHG facility must be located…

A

So that the warning alarm is not obstructed for a distance of 1 mile in all directions

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60
Q

Parking spaces on an LNG facility must be ___ from any storage tank or loading flange.

A

15 meters

61
Q

What must the PIC test before transferring LNG?

A

Sensors/alarms
Emergency shutdown
Communication systems

62
Q

What does the PIC not need to do for a shoreside LNG release?

A

Notify nearby vessels
(This is an operator responsibility)

63
Q

What must the PIC do in the event of an LNG release?

A

Immediately notify vessel PIC
Shutdown transfer
Notify COTP
Not resume until authorized by COTP

64
Q

LNG personnel must receive refresher training how often?

A

Every 5 years

65
Q

Each hose on an LNG facility must be___ diameter, and ___or less in length.

A

1 1/2 inches
100 feet

66
Q

LNG facilities must have an international shore connection meeting what standard?

A

ASTM F1121-87

67
Q

Underwater pipelines must be protected as per:

A

49 CFR 195.248
Applies to LHG facilities

68
Q

Each LHG hose and loading arm must be adequately supported against the weight of its constituent parts, the LHG being transferred, and___.

A

Any ice formed on it.

69
Q

Each LHG loading arm must have an alarm to indicate when it is approaching the limits of its extension, unless___.

A

The Operations Manual requires a person to perform the same function

70
Q

Each LHG loading arm must have a nameplate or other permanent marking which indicates what 3 things?

A

Each LHG it handles
MAWP and corresponding service temperature
Minimum service temperature

71
Q

Substructures in the marine transfer area of an LHG facility must have a fire endurance rating of ___.

A

2 hours

72
Q

Each LHG manifold or loading arm must be ___ from bridges or tunnels crossing navigable waterways.

A

60 meters

73
Q

Each LHG manifold or loading arm must be___ from public roadways.

A

30 meters

74
Q

What must an LHG facility’s gas detectors be able to detect?

A

30% LEL of each flammable product, and
PEL of each toxic product

75
Q

What type of shut-off valve must LHG facilities be equipped with?

A

Quick Closing

76
Q

If transferring flammable LHG, valves must have fusible elements that melt at less than 105 c (221 F), or ___

A

Sensors that perform the same function

77
Q

LHG facilities must have a warning alarm that is audible for ___

A

1 mile from the transfer in all directions

78
Q

Lights and sirens on an LNG facility must be located___

A

So as to minimize obstructions, and to be heard and seen for 1 mile

79
Q

What first aid training is not required for PICs on LHG facilities?

A

Frostbite

Actual requirements are:
Burns
CPR
Toxic exposure (if handled)
Medical transport

80
Q

Pressure tests for LHG hoses and loading arms must be at least ___times the MAWP and last for at least___.

A

1.1 times the MAWP
30 minutes

81
Q

When testing the pressure gauges on an LHG facility, displayed pressure must be within ___ of actual pressure.

A

10 percent

82
Q

Each water system on an LHG facility must have pipes and hoses of ___ diameter, enough hose to___.

A

2 1/2 inches,
Connect the hydrant to the vessel.

83
Q

Each water system on an LHG facility must supply water for how long?

A

At least 2 hours

84
Q

Where is the Marine transfer area for oil/hazmat?

A

Between the vessel and the first manifold or shutoff valve after the pipeline enters secondary containment.

85
Q

When is a transfer considered to be complete?

A

After all connections are uncoupled and closed, and the DOI is complete.

86
Q

When is an ops manual reviewed?

A

After initial submission, following substantial changes, and when required by the COTP.

87
Q

A facility operator may request that portions of their operations manual be considered _or__

A

Privileged or confidential

88
Q

After reviewing an OPS manual, the COTP will provide notice stating…

A

Examined by the coast guard

89
Q

What manual or document provides the PIC with initial notification procedures, means of accessing emergency containment equipment, and procedures for reporting initial containment of a spill?

A

Ops manual (no reference requiring the PIC to have the FRP immediately available).

90
Q

How many days does a facility have to respond to COTP written notice of inadequacies in their ops manual?

A

45 days

91
Q

The minimum design burst pressure for oil or hazmat hoses must be ____ times the relief valve setting plus static head pressure.

A

4

92
Q

HAZMAT hoses shall be marked:

A

HAZMAT SERVICE – SEE LIST, followed by a letter, number, or symbol.

93
Q

What does not need to be marked on a hose if it is listed in hose records?

A

-Date of manufacture
-Date of last test

94
Q

What must never be marked on a transfer hose?

A

Burst pressure and test pressure.

95
Q

There are hoses in the transfer area which have not been blanked off. The facility manager says the hoses are new, and have never been used. Is this a deficiency?

A

No. New, unused hoses and hoses which have been gas-freed are exempt from this requirement.

96
Q

What may the COTP require an MTR facility to install?

A

Monitoring devices

97
Q

Small discharge containment on a facility that has four hoses of 6” diameter.

A

2 barrels

98
Q

Small discharge containment on a facility with 12” hoses:

A

4 barrels

99
Q

Amount of small discharge containment for a mobile facility.

A

5 gallons

100
Q

How quickly must the emergency shut-off activate on a bulk oil facility constructed on or after Nov 1, 1980?

A

30 seconds

101
Q

How quickly must the emergency shut-off activate on a bulk HAZMAT facility constructed on or after Oct 4, 1990?

A

30 seconds

102
Q

COTP may require a lighting inspection with a meter held…

A

3 feet above the deck

103
Q

Lighting: On a horizontal place ____ ft above the deck, must measure ____ at transfer connection points and ____ in work areas.

A

3 feet
5.0 foot candles
1.0 foot candle

104
Q

A small or remote 154 facility may be allowed to use an adequate amount of lighting approved by whom?

A

COTP

105
Q

Where must designation of PICs be kept?

A

Carried by each PIC while engaged in transfer operations, unless immediately available at the facility.

Often kept in the Ops Manual, but this is not a requirement.

106
Q

How long must a facility maintain records of Coast Guard examinations?

A

3 years

107
Q

How long must a 154 facility retain records of repairs?

A

3 years

108
Q

Significant and substantial harm facilities, and substantial harm facilities must submit…

A

Facility response plans.

109
Q

How is the maximum most probable discharge calculated?

A

Lesser of 1,200 barrels or 10% of the worst case discharge

110
Q

Where must a Qualified Individual be located?

A

Within the United States.

111
Q

What is the worst case discharge for a mobile facility?

A

Loss of the entire contents of the container in which oil is stored or transported.

112
Q

Facility Response Plans must be written in…

A

English

113
Q

Facilities of significant and substantial harm, and facilities of significant harm must have what in their Response Plans?

A

Emergency Response Action Plan

114
Q

FRPs must be in accordance with the ACP in effect ___ months prior to initial plan submission or the annual plan review.

A

6 months

115
Q

A significant and substantial harm facility’s response plan must list enough trained personnel to respond to a spill for how long?

A

7 days

116
Q

Who must guarantee training for private response personnel?

A

Owner/operator

117
Q

How often must QI notification drills be conducted?

A

Quarterly

118
Q

How often must equipment deployment exercises be conducted for facility owned equipment?

A

Semiannually

119
Q

How often must OSRO owned response equipment be deployed?

A

Annually

120
Q

All components of a Facility Response Plan must be exercised how often?

A

Every 3 years

121
Q

How long must a 154 facility’s owner or operator maintain exercise records?

A

3 years

122
Q

Period of validity for a Facility Response Plan:

A

5 years

123
Q

When must a facility submit corrections to their FRP requested by the COTP?

A

Within the time specified by the COTP in the deficiency letter.

124
Q

When must the COTP finish reviewing requested corrections to a Facility Response Plan?

A

Within 30 days of submission

125
Q

Which subpart of 154 covers vapor control systems?

A

Subpart P

126
Q

An “existing” vapor control system began operating prior to:

A

July 23rd, 1990?
August 15th, 2013?

127
Q

Vapor control systems (VCSs) must be certified by whom?

A

Certifying entity

128
Q

A vapor control system must comply with which NFPA?

A

NFPA 70: Electrical equipment

129
Q

A vapor collection arm must be painted ____ and labeled ____.

A

Red/yellow/red; “VAPOR”

130
Q

Each facility vapor connection flange must be protected by a…

A

Stud ½” in diameter and 1” long

131
Q

Hoses that transfer vapors must have a design burst pressure of at least ____, and max allowable working pressure of ____.

A

-Burst: 25 PSI
-MAWP: 5 PSI

132
Q

Vapor recovery hoses must be able to withstand a vacuum of…

A

2 psi

133
Q

A VCS’s vapor collection rate must be at least ____ times the maximum cargo transfer rate.

A

1.25
(vapor growth plus inerting gas)

134
Q

A VCS must be designed to prevent tank pressure or vacuum from exceeding ____ of the relief valve settings.

A

80%

135
Q

A VCS must be designed to prevent tank pressure from going below ____ PSI.

A

0.2

136
Q

When does a transfer begin?

A

When both PICs first meet to begin completing the declaration of inspection.

137
Q

What in a transfer system is allowed to leak?

A

Packing glands

138
Q

What must be available to PICs during a transfer?

A

Ops manual and DOI

139
Q

How many bolts must be used for temporary transfer connections?

A

At least every other hole, and in no case less than 4

140
Q

How long must a facility retain a DOI?

A

1 month from the date of signature

141
Q

Prior to transferring oil, non-metallic hoses must not burst, bulge, leak, or distort under ____ times the MAWP.

A

1 ½

142
Q

A facility must have reception facilities if it takes vessels of…

A

-400 GT

143
Q

COA form for NLS:

A

Form B

144
Q

A reception facility receives what document?

A

Certificate of Adequacy (COA)

145
Q

How much notice is required for an oil reception facility to receive oil and oily mixtures?

A

24 hours

146
Q

Oil reception facilities must be able to complete transfer of oily ballast water in less than…

A

10 hours

147
Q

Oil reception facilities must be able to complete transfer of other oily mixtures in less than…

A

4 hours

148
Q

Where must all rubbish or waste be stored on a designated waterfront facility?

A

Adequate receptacles

149
Q

What certificate does a reception facility receive?

A

Certificate of adequacy