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Social Sciences 6-12 > Political Science > Flashcards

Political Science Flashcards

1
Q

The historical exploration of major contributions to political thought that involves philosophical and speculative consideration of the political world is called what?

A

Political Theory

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2
Q

This is a systematic study of the structures of two or more political systems to understand how different societies manage the realities of governing.

A

Comparative Government & Politics

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3
Q

How nations interact with each other within the frameworks of law, diplomacy, and international organizations is called what?

A

International Relations

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4
Q

What are the four subfields of political science?

A

Political Theory
American Government & Politics
Comparative Government & Politics
International Relations

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5
Q

Where was the systematic study of government developed in the 19th century?

A

The United States and Europe

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6
Q

Prior to 1850, what did the study of political science rely on?

A

Philosophy

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7
Q

Where was the curriculum for political science finalized?

A

Columbia & Johns Hopkins

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8
Q

What was the curriculum of political science deeply influenced by?

A

German scholarship on the nation-state and the formation of democratic institutions.

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9
Q

This was founded in 1903 and promoted the organized study of politics to distinguish the field from history.

A

American Political Science Association (APSA)

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10
Q

What is the time frame of the Behavioral Period of the study of political science?

A

1920-Present

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11
Q

What does the study of political science in the Behavioral Period focus on?

A

Psychological interpretations and analysis of behavior of individuals and groups within a political context.

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12
Q

What is the basic plan that outlines the structure and functions of the national government?

A

Constitution

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13
Q

This sets limits on the government and protects property and individual rights.

A

Constitution

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14
Q

This is a plan of government that was implemented after revolt against the British. It was consciously weak and considered ineffective.

A

The Articles of Confederation

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15
Q

This served as the national government from 1781-1787

A

The Articles of Confederation

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16
Q

A one house legislature is called what?

A

Unicameral

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17
Q

How many votes did each state get under the Articles of Confederation?

A

One

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18
Q

What powers and authority did the national government have under the Articles of Confederation?

A
  1. Control foreign policy
  2. Declare War/Make Treaties
  3. Assess state contributions to war efforts
  4. Borrow and Issue money
  5. Settle Disputes between states
  6. Admit new states to the union
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19
Q

What were the key weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?

A
  1. Inability to levy taxes
  2. Inability to draft troops
  3. Inability to regulate interstate and foreign trade
  4. Lack of a powerful/effective chief executive
  5. Lack of a national court system
  6. Rule that amendments must be approved by unanimous consent
  7. Couldn’t enforce states to enforce legislation it did not agree on or support.
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20
Q

This was a rebellion in rural Massachusetts of farmers against tax collectors and banks seizing their property and symbolized the governments inability to maintain order under the Articles of Confederation.

A

Shays’ Rebellion

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21
Q

This was held in Philadelphia in 1787 to revise the Articles of Confederation.

A

Constitutional Convention

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22
Q

When and where was the First Constitutional Convention held?

A

1787, Philadelphia

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23
Q

These were essays that expressed the political philosophy of the founders and was instrumental in the ratification of the Constitution.

A

The Federalist Papers

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24
Q

Who were the authors of the Federalist Papers?

A

Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison

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25
Q

What documents were drawn on by the Founders when they were writing the Constitution

A

The Magna Carta (1215), The Petition of Rights (1628), and the Bill of Rights (1689)

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26
Q

What did all three of the documents drawn on by the Founders when they were writing the Constitution have in common?

A

They all promoted the principle of limited government.

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27
Q

What two writers did the Founders draw on while drafting the Constitution?

A

John Locke & Thomas Hobbes

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28
Q

What did Locke and Hobbes believe in that caused the Founders to draw on their writings?

A

The government had a social contract with the people they represented.

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29
Q

Where did the idea of checks and balances come from when drafting the Constitution?

A

Montesquieu

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30
Q

Why did the founders disagree on the role of the executive?

A

Some were worried about problems that could be caused by an unchecked/strong chief executive while others argued that the weak Presidency in the Articles of Confederation caused problems.

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31
Q

This makes sure that no one branch has unlimited powers.

A

Checks and Balances

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32
Q

What powers did Congress have over the President under the Constitution?

A

If the President is convicted of a crime they can impeach him, Congress is required to give consent on all appointments to offices and conclusions of treaties.

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33
Q

Why did small states have a problem with their representation in government?

A

They did not agree that large states should have more of a voice just because they represented more people.

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34
Q

This called for a strong national government with representation favoring large states.

A

The Virginia Plan

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35
Q

This retained the structure of the Articles of Confederation including equal representation of states in Congress.

A

The New Jersey Plan

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36
Q

This resulted in the division of Congress into two parts.

A

The Great Compromise

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37
Q

This branch of Congress gives each state equal voting power

A

The Senate

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38
Q

This branch of Congress gives representation in proportion to a state’s population.

A

House

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39
Q

What was the Three Fifths Compromise?

A

Each slave counted as 3/5 of a person for the purposes of determining the population count of a state with regard to taxation.

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40
Q

What was the “Compromise” part of the Three Fifths Compromise?

A

Slaves remained property of owners even if they had fled to a free state and it prohibited the passing of laws prohibiting slave importation for 20 years.

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41
Q

This group actually elects the President.

A

Electoral College

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42
Q

How many representatives does each state have in the Electoral College?

A

The same number as their representatives and Senators.

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43
Q

This group was in support of the new Constitution and a strong federal government.

A

Federalists

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44
Q

This group was made up of opponents of the Constitution.

A

Anti-Federalists

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45
Q

Why were the Anti-Federalists against the Constitution?

A

They felt it failed to uphold some of the basic rights for which the American Revolution had been fought. They felt it would weaken states power, favor the wealthy, increase taxes and diminish individual liberties. They also objected to the absence of a Bill of Rights.

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46
Q

What is Federalism?

A

The division of powers of the government between the states and a national government.

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47
Q

Which articles of the Constitution deal with the separation of powers?

A

Articles I, II, and III

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48
Q

When the government derives power from the people it is called what?

A

Popular Sovereignty

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49
Q

This part of the Constitution lists the reasons why the colonies sought independence.

A

The Preamble

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50
Q

Which article established the Legislative Branch as a two body entity comprised of the Senate and House of Representatives?

A

Article I

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51
Q

What did Article I establish?

A

The Legislative Branch (Congress) as a two body entity.

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52
Q

What are the two bodies of Congress?

A

The Senate and the House of Representatives

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53
Q

Which article established the executive branch?

A

Article II

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54
Q

What constitutes the executive branch?

A

President, Vice President, Cabinet & Under-departments to the Cabinet.

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55
Q

What did Article II establish?

A

The Executive Branch

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56
Q

Which article established the judicial branch?

A

Article III

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57
Q

What did Article III establish?

A

The Judicial Branch

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58
Q

What constitutes the Judicial Branch?

A

Supreme Court and Lower Courts

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59
Q

What does Article IV define?

A
  1. State’s powers to make and carry out laws
  2. Obligates states to respect other states laws
  3. Sets up how new states enter and are admitted to the union.
  4. Says that new states may not trample over another state’s borders.
  5. Federal Government must make sure each state has a Republican/Constitutional government.
  6. Federal Government must provide for the defense of each state against invasion or domestic unrest.
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60
Q

What is “full faith credit”?

A

Legal documents valid in one state must be valid in others.

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61
Q

What does Article V define?

A

How to amend the Constitution.

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62
Q

What is required to amend the Constitution?

A

2/3 vote in each house of Congress and a 3/4 vote of state legislatures.

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63
Q

What does Article VI establish?

A

Establishes that the Constitution and federal laws are the supreme law of the land and state law must yield to federal if they conflict.

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64
Q

What does Article VII state?

A

9 of 13 original state needed to ratify the Constitution in order for it to come into effect.

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65
Q

When was the Constitution presented?

A

September 17, 1787

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66
Q

How many states ratified the Constitution?

A

12 out of 13

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67
Q

Amendment 1

A

Freedom of religion, speech, press, assembly & the right of individuals to petition the government to respond to grievances.

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68
Q

Amendment 2

A

Right to bear arms in a regulated militia

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69
Q

Amendment 3

A

Security against quartering troops in their homes during either war or peace without consent of the owner.

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70
Q

Amendment 4

A

Protects against unreasonable search and seizure - must have probable cause and a search warrant.

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71
Q

Amendment 5

A

Due Process, Right against self incrimination, no double jeopardy

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72
Q

Amendment 6

A

Public and speedy trial by an impartial jury in criminal cases. Right to legal council, informed of charges against them, ability to confront witnesses against them and call witnesses on their behalf.

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73
Q

Amendment 7

A

Right to a jury trail in civil cases in federal court, no decision made by a jury shall be overturned by any US court except according to the rules of common law.

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74
Q

Amendment 8

A

No excessive bails or fines can be imposed on individuals. Prohibits cruel and unusual punishment

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75
Q

Amendment 9

A

Citizens and States have rights beyond those stated in the Constitution that cannot be violated or abridged.

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76
Q

Amendment 10

A

Powers not delegated to the federal government by the Consitution shall be reserved for the states or citizens.

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77
Q

Amendment 11

A

States have a degree of sovereign immunity and individuals cannot sue states in Federal Court.

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78
Q

Amendment 12

A

Outlines how the election of the President and Vice President works. Establishes that they must be on a ballot together and chosen by the Electoral College. Whoever runs as VP must be eligible for Presidency.

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79
Q

Amendment 13

A

Bans slavery and involuntary servitude except as punishment for a convicted crime.

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80
Q

Amendment 14

A

Addresses Citizenship.
Extends protection of due process to states as well as federal government
Allows for reappointment of seats in the House following a census and counts all but untaxed Native Americans.

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81
Q

Which Amendment voided the 3/5 Clause in Article I?

A

14

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82
Q

Amendment 15

A

US Citizens shall not be denied the right to vote regardless of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.

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83
Q

Amendment 16

A

Allows Congress to tax income

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84
Q

Amendment 17

A

Progressive Movement

Changed election of Senators from state legislature to direct popular election

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85
Q

Amendment 18

A

Prohibition

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86
Q

When was Amendment 18 repealed?

A

1933

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87
Q

Amendment 19

A

Women’s Right to Vote

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88
Q

Amendment 20

A

Changed inauguration date to 1/20 from 3/4.
Changed term start date to 1/3 for Senators and Representatives to shorten “lame duck” session of Congress.
Established what happens if the President dies before swearing in.

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89
Q

Amendment 21

A

Repealed Amendment 18 (Prohibition)

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90
Q

Amendment 22

A

Limited President to 2 terms or 10 years if a VP becomes President after death or removal.

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91
Q

Amendment 23

A

Gave D.C. Residents the right to vote for President and gave D.C. 3 electoral votes.

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92
Q

Amendment 24

A

Illegal to use poll tax as a way to deny someone’s right to vote.

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93
Q

Amendment 25

A

Established order of succession (President-VP-Speaker of House-President pro Tempore of Senate - Secretary of State - Secretary of Treasury - Secretary of Defense - Attorney General…)

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94
Q

Amendment 26

A

Extends the right to vote to 18+ (down from 21+)

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95
Q

Amendment 27

A

Procedures for Congressional pay - increases go into effect after the next election

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96
Q

What are the powers reserved for federal government?

A
  1. Regulate Foreign Commerce
  2. Regulate Interstate Commerce
  3. Mint Money
  4. Regulate Immigration & Naturalization
  5. Grant Copyrights & Patents
  6. Declare/Wage War & Declare Peace
  7. Admit New States
  8. Fix Standards for Weights and Measures
  9. Raise/Maintain an Army & Navy
  10. Govern D.C.
  11. Conduct Relations with Foreign Nations
  12. Universalize Bankruptcy Laws
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97
Q

What are the powers reserved for the state governments

A
  1. Conduct & Monitor Elections
  2. Establish voter qualifications within guidelines established by the Constitution
  3. Provide for local governments
  4. Ratify proposed Constitutional amendments
  5. Regulate Contracts & Wills
  6. Provide education for its citizens
  7. Regulate Interstate Commerce
  8. Levy Direct Taxes
  9. Maintain police power over public health & safety
  10. Maintain integrity of state borders.
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98
Q

Where is the power of the legislative branch vested?

A

Congress

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99
Q

Where are the expressed/delegated powers of Congress outlined?

A

Article I, Section 8

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100
Q

What are the four broad power groups of Congress?

A

Economic Powers, Judicial Powers, War Powers, and Peace Powers

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101
Q

What are the economic powers of Congress?

A
  1. Lay and collect taxes
  2. Borrow Money
  3. Regulate Foreign/Interstate Commerce
  4. Coin Money & Regulate Value
  5. Establish rules concerning bankruptcy.
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102
Q

What are the Judicial powers of Congress?

A
  1. Establish courts inferior to the Supreme Court
  2. Provide punishment for counterfeiting.
  3. Define/Punish piracy/felony committed on the high seas.
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103
Q

What are the war powers of Congress?

A
  1. Declare War
  2. Raise & Support Armies
  3. Provide & Maintain a Navy
  4. Provide for organizing, arming, & calling forth the militia.
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104
Q

What are the peace powers of Congress?

A
  1. Establish rules on naturalization
  2. Establish post offices and post roads
  3. Promote science/arts by granting patents and copyrights
  4. Exercise jurisdiction over the seat of the federal government in D.C.
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105
Q

This grants Congress implied powers.

A

Elastic Clause

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106
Q

Who holds the power of impeachment?

A

Congress

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107
Q

When Congress moves to remove a public official from office following the committing and conviction of a crime it’s called what?

A

Impeachment

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108
Q

Who was the first impeachment?

A

Andrew Johnson

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109
Q

Which Legislative house holds the power to charge an official for impeachment?

A

The House of Representatives

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110
Q

Which Legislative house holds the power to hold trials for impeachment?

A

Senate

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111
Q

What is required for an amendment to be passed?

A

2/3 vote in both houses or proposed by 2/3 of the states legislatures.

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112
Q

If there is no majority in the Electoral College during the Presidential election, how is the President chosen?

A

A vote in the House between the top 3 candidates.

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113
Q

Who votes for the Vice President in the event of no majority in the Electoral College?

A

The Senate

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114
Q

How many times has there been no majority in the Electoral College?

A

Twice. 1800 & 1824

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115
Q

What is the writ of habeas corpus?

A

Authorities must show cause for detainment for arrested party.

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116
Q

What is a standing committee?

A

A permanent committee that deals with agriculture, armed services, budget, energy, finance, or foreign policy.

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117
Q

What is a select committee?

A

A committee established to deal with certain issues and has a limited duration.

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118
Q

What is a conference committee?

A

A committee established to fix differences between the House and Senate versions of a bill before it is sent to the President

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119
Q

What is a rules committee?

A

A committee unique to the House of Representatives that weeds out bills unworthy for consideration before the House.

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120
Q

What is a ways and means committee?

A

A committee that scrutinizes revenue raising bills.

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121
Q

How is committee membership determined?

A

It is:

  1. Organized on party lines
  2. Seniority is a key factor
  3. Composition is largely based on the ratio of each party in Congress.
  4. Chairmen are selected by leaders of the majority party.
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122
Q

Which party is allotted more members on each committee?

A

The Majority Party

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123
Q

How does a bill become a law?

A
  1. Introduced in Either House (revenue must originate in House of Representatives)
  2. Referred to appropriate committee
  3. Referred to sub-committee
  4. Sub-committee holds hearings if members agree the bill has merit.
  5. Bill goes back to full committee - decides if it goes to the full chamber for debate.
  6. Bill passes full chamber, sent to the other chamber and begins the process again.
  7. Differences between the House and Senate versions must be resolved in a conference committee.
  8. Sent to President for consideration.
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124
Q

What does the House of Representatives have debate rules?

A

Because of its size.

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125
Q

Which House of Congress allows filibusters?

A

Senate

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126
Q

What is a parliamentary procedure that limits debates and ends a filibuster?

A

Cloutre

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127
Q

What are the Constitutional Qualifications to be a Representatives in the House of Representatives?

A
  1. Must be 25+
  2. US Citizen for more than 7 years
  3. Resident of a State that sends them to Congress
  4. 2 Year Terms
  5. The presiding officer and most powerful member is the Speaker of the House.
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128
Q

What did the Reapportionment Act of 1929 do?

A

Fixed the House at 435 members.

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129
Q

Who is the Speaker of the House?

A

The most powerful member and presiding officer of the House of Representatives. He or she is the leader of the political party with majority of a given term.

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130
Q

What are the Constitutional Qualifications for Senate?

A
  1. Must be 30+
  2. US Citizen for more than 9 years
  3. Inhabitant of state they represent
  4. 6 year terms
  5. Terms are staggered so 1/3 of the Senate is up for election in each national election.
  6. VP is President of the Senate (only votes in the chance of a tie)
  7. Majority Leader is the most powerful
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131
Q

Who is the head of the executive branch?

A

The President

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132
Q

Where are the duties of the President outlined?

A

Article II

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133
Q

What are the duties of the President?

A
  1. Serves as the Commander In Chief of the Armed Services
  2. Negotiates treaties (2/3 Senate Approval)
  3. Appoints Judges, Ambassadors, and other High officials with Senate Consent.
  4. Grants Pardons and Reprieves of people convicted of Federal Crimes (not impeachment cases)
  5. Seeks advisement/counsel of departments heads (cabinet members)
  6. Recommends legislation
  7. Meets with Representatives of Foreign states.
  8. Sees that laws are faithfully executed
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134
Q

What is the most significant domestic tool the president has?

A

The budget

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135
Q

How can a veto be over-ridden?

A

2/3 vote in both houses of Congress.

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136
Q

What is a pocket veto?

A

A veto that occurs when the President does not sign or reject a bill and Congress adjourns within 10 days of his receipt of legislation.

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137
Q

What is the most recently created Cabinet department

A

Homeland Security

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138
Q

What are the duties of the Executive Office of the President

A

Supervising the daily work of the government

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139
Q

Who heads the White House Staff?

A

Chief of Staff

140
Q

What is the most crucial agency of the Executive Office?

A

Office of Management and Budget

141
Q

Who directs the Central Intelligence Agency?

A

National Security Council

142
Q

What are the Constitutional requirements for Presidency?

A
  1. 35+ Years Old
  2. Natural Born Citizen
  3. Resided in the US for minimum of 14 years
143
Q

How many votes do states have in the Electoral College?

A

The same as their number of members in Congress

144
Q

How many Electoral Votes does D.C. have?

A

3

145
Q

How many total electors does the Electoral College have?

A

538

146
Q

Why was the Electoral College created?

A

To provide an indirect method of choosing the chief executive.

147
Q

Which article establishes the Supreme Court?

A

Article III

148
Q

What did the Judiciary Act of 1789 do?

A

It organized the Supreme Court and established 13 Federal District Courts

149
Q

What jurisdiction do Federal District Courts have?

A

Original jurisdiction for federal cases involving criminal and civil law.

150
Q

What makes up the Supreme Court?

A

A chief justice and 8 associate justices that are appointed for life.

151
Q

What is meant by Judicial Review?

A

The power to determine the constitutionality of laws and actions of the legislative and executive branches. The foundation of the justice system.

152
Q

When and why was the Judicial Review created?

A

1803 under Chief Justice John Marshall during the case of Marbury vs. Madison.

153
Q

What are the writs of certiorari?

A

Orders that call up records from a lower court and are issued if a case is selected for review by the Supreme Court.

154
Q

What happens in the case of a split decision in the Supreme Court?

A

A majority opinion is written by one justice in agreement.

155
Q

When is a concurring opinion written?

A

If a judge agrees with a majority decision but for a different principle, it is written to explain the different point of view.

156
Q

When is a dissenting opinion written?

A

When the judge doesn’t vote with the majority it is written to air conflicting arguments.

157
Q

What does the US Tax Court handle?

A

Conflict between individuals and the IRS.

158
Q

What is handled in the Court of Claims?

A

When citizens bring suit against the US Government.

159
Q

What is the Federal Bureaucracy?

A

A series of independent agencies that were created to protect consumers and regulate industries engaged in interstate trade or oversee government programs.

160
Q

What is the most important part of the Federal Bureaucracy?

A

Regulatory Commissions.

161
Q

What does the Interstate Commerce Regulatory Commission do?

A

Monitor surface transportation and some pipelines

162
Q

What does the Federal Reserve Board Regulatory Commission do?

A

Supervise banking system, sets interest rates and controls money supply

163
Q

What does the Federal Trade Regulatory Commission do?

A

Protects consumers by looking into false advertising and antitrust violations.

164
Q

What does the Federal Communications Regulatory Commission do?

A

Polices airwaves by licensing tv and radio stations and regulating phone and cable companies.

165
Q

What does the Security and Exchange Regulatory Commission do?

A

Monitors the sale of stocks and bonds to protect investors.

166
Q

What does the National Labor Relations Board do?

A

Oversees labor and management practices

167
Q

What does the Consumer Product Safety Commission do?

A

Sets standards of safety for manufactured items.

168
Q

What does the Nuclear Regulatory Commission do?

A

Licenses and inspects nuclear power plants.

169
Q

What are some examples of Independent Executive Agencies?

A

Civil Rights Commission, EPA, NASA

170
Q

What is a government corporation?

A

A commercial enterprise created by Congress to perform necessary services.

171
Q

What was the first government corporation?

A

First Bank of the United States in 1791

172
Q

Who established the First Bank of the US?

A

Alexander Hamilton

173
Q

What do the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporations do?

A

Ensures bank deposits.

174
Q

What was the Tennessee Valley Authority?

A

It was authorized to revive a depressed part of the Nation and oversees electric power and maintains flood control programs.

175
Q

What was the Tennessee Valley Authority a part of?

A

Theodore Roosevelt’s New Deal.

176
Q

What is the largest and most well known government corporation?

A

The US Postal Service.

177
Q

What is handing out jobs for political favors called?

A

The spoils system.

178
Q

What was the Civil Service Act?

A

An attempt to reform the spoils system.

179
Q

Another name for the Civil Service Act is the…

A

Pendleton Act

180
Q

This helps groups discriminated against in the job market find employment

A

Affirmative Action

181
Q

This is comprised of people who hold similar ideas about the government and see to influence government by electing members to public office.

A

Political Party

182
Q

What are the three elements of a political party?

A

Party-in-the-Electorate
Party Organization
Party-In-Government

183
Q

Who formed the first two political parties?

A

Alexander Hamilton and Thomas Jefferson

184
Q

This party favored a loose approach to the interpretation of the Constitution and advocated a strong federal government with the power to assume duties not prohibited by the Constitution.

A

The Federalist Party

185
Q

Describe the Federalist Party

A
  • Evolved around the policy of Hamilton
  • Loose approach to interpretation of Constitution
  • Strong Fed. Gov. with power to assume powers not prohibited by the Constitution
  • Supported programs to benefit banking & commercial interests.
  • Pro British Foreign Policy
186
Q

This party had strict constructionist views, believed in a narrow limited interpretation of the Constitution and were sympathetic to the needs of the “common man”

A

Democratic-Republicans

187
Q

Which election was the first in which political parties played a central role?

A

The election of 1796

188
Q

Who lead the two factions that the Democratic-Republicans split into in the 1820s?

A

Andrew Jackson and John Quincy Adams

189
Q

This faction of the Democratic-Republicans continued on with their tradition of supporting policy designed to enhance the power of the common man.

A

Democrats

190
Q

This faction of the Democratic-Republicans represented the interests of bankers, merchants and some large planters.

A

National Republicans

191
Q

This political party was organized from the old Federalists and National Republicans

A

Whigs

192
Q

When were the Whigs prominent?

A

1840s

193
Q

Why and when did the Whigs fragment?

A

1850s, Slavery Issue

194
Q

When were the Modern Republicans born?

A

1854

195
Q

What caused the Modern Republicans to form?

A

The Whigs and Anti-Slavery Democrats came together to halt the spread of slavery.

196
Q

What was the constituency of the Modern Republicans formed around?

A

The interests of businesses, farmers, workers, and newly emancipated slaves.

197
Q

This party was established at national nominating conventions in the 1830s

A

Anti-Masonic Party

198
Q

This political party opposed the use of alcohol and worked for the adoption of the 18th amendment.

A

Prohibition Party

199
Q

This political party championed farmers and impacted mainstream parties with their reform agenda.

A

Populist Party

200
Q

This is a mechanism allowing voters to put proposed legislation on the ballot

A

Initiative Petition

201
Q

This is a term that means allowing voters to approve or reject laws passed by legislature.

A

Refferendum

202
Q

This party was formed in 1992 around the personality of H. Ross Perot.

A

Reform Party

203
Q

This is a splinter party from the Republicans and was built around the personality of Theodore Roosevelt.

A

Progressive/Bull Moose Party

204
Q

This allows voters to express preference for candidates.

A

Primary Elections

205
Q

The local level that is the fundamental organization of political parties that registers voters and organizes grass roots meeting is called the

A

Precint

206
Q

These committees are critical to a political party’s fundraising.

A

State Central Committees

207
Q

These are committees that are most visible in election years who plan the national nominating conventions, write platforms and carry out election campaigns.

A

National Party Committees

208
Q

This is the process by which individuals form their political allegiances

A

Political Socialization

209
Q

What is another name for a factor relevant to the formation of political allegiances?

A

Cleavages

210
Q

Examples of a cleavage that affects the formation of political allegiances are:

A

Family, Race, Gender, Class, Religion, Education, Region and Media

211
Q

These arise from bonds among individuals who share common concerns.

A

Interest Groups

212
Q

What are the two ways that interest groups can be formed?

A

Formal and Informal

213
Q

Which type of interest group would a single-interest organization, like the NRA, fall into?

A

Formal

214
Q

To influence passage or defeat of legislation is called…

A

lobbying

215
Q

What is the Political Action Committee?

A

It was formed in 1970 to attempt to circumvent legislations limiting contributions to political campaigns.

216
Q

This refers to the attitudes and preferences expressed by a significant number of individuals that involves the government and society at large.

A

Public Opinion

217
Q

This bill made it possible for citizens to register to vote at the DMV in the 1990s

A

Motor-Voter Bill

218
Q

What are the two tiers of local government?

A

Counties/Boroughs/Parishes

Munincipalities

219
Q

This framework of international relations uses a descriptive process and focuses on issues and topics like global issues, international institutions, and foreign policies of individual nation states.

A

Traditional Analysis

220
Q

This framework of international relations zeroes in on war and deterrence. Uses game theory to analyze negotiations, effectiveness of weapons systems and likelihood of limited vs. all out war in crisis situations.

A

Strategists’ Approach

221
Q

This framework of international relations analyzes specific components of international relations such a politics of arms races, escalation of international crisis, role of prejudice and attitudes toward other cultures in precipitating war and peace.

A

Middle Range Theorists

222
Q

This framework of international relations considers factors like economics, ethics, law, and trade agreements and stresses the importance of international organizations and the complexities of interactions among nations.

A

World Politics Approach

223
Q

This person argued for realism in the study of interactions on the international stage.

A

Hans J. Morgenthau

224
Q

This was one of the earliest guiding principles and concepts of US Foreign Policy

A

Isolationism

225
Q

This is a non-interventionist policy in terms of military intervention combined with a policy of protectionism.

A

Isolationism

226
Q

This is a policy that states that there should be a legal barrier to control trade with other nation-states.

A

Protectionism

227
Q

This is a diplomatic policy in which a nation seeks to avoid alliances with other nations to avoid being drawn into a war that is not related to their own territorial defense.

A

Interventionism

228
Q

This stated that the US would not interfere in European affairs and would oppose any attempt by Europe to colonize the Americas.

A

The Monroe Doctrine

229
Q

This was written in response to the new independence of the Spanish colonies in Latin America.

A

The Monroe Doctrine

230
Q

What year was the Monroe Doctrine written in?

A

1823

231
Q

This states that the US would reciprocate with tariffs and treat all foreign countries the same way. It would become standard trade policy until the 20th century.

A

Trade Reciprocity

232
Q

This declared that the US sought to settle the continent coast to coast and had a divine obligation to civilize the continent and control its riches.

A

Manifest Destiny

233
Q

This was the first significant military intervention, during which America occupied and controlled the Philippines. It resulted in the Philippines, Guam, American Samoa and Puerto Rico becoming territories.

A

The Spanish-American War

234
Q

What caused the Philippines, Guam, American Samoa and Puerto Rico to become territories?

A

The Spanish-American War

235
Q

During what time did the US gain hegemony over Cuba?

A

The Spanish-American War

236
Q

This calls for the allowance of all nations having equal trading in China.

A

Open Door Policy

237
Q

This stated that the US would intervene in the domestic affairs of any weak or negligent state in the Caribbean or Central America to keep them free from outside forces that might seek to take them over.

A

Roosevelt Corollary (1904)

238
Q

When did World War I begin?

A

1914

239
Q

When did the US enter World War I?

A

1917

240
Q

What forced the US to enter World War I?

A

The German policy of unrestricted submarine warfare.

241
Q

How was the US tied to the Allied Powers?

A

By military cooperation NOT treaty.

242
Q

Who wrote the Fourteen Points?

A

Woodrow Wilson

243
Q

What became the basis for post-World War I settlement?

A

The Fourteen Points

244
Q

This was advocated for by Wilson to resolve conflicts before the beginning of another World War.

A

League of Nations

245
Q

What provided for the League of Nations?

A

The Treaty of Versailles

246
Q

This was a term used for spreading democracy and peace under American auspices.

A

Wilsonism

247
Q

This Pact was designed to outlaw war

A

Kellogg-Briand Pact

248
Q

This allowed the US to assist countries whose defense was seen as vital by the US by lending or leasing them war supplies, materials, and equipment.

A

Lend-Lease Act

249
Q

What happened on December 7, 1941

A

Pearl Harbor - forced US to join WWII

250
Q

Why was the United Nations created?

A

To guarantee the security of member nations and promote economic prosperity around the globe.

251
Q

Who created the United Nations?

A

Franklin D. Roosevelt and Allies

252
Q

What did the agreement for the United Nations say?

A

The five great powers (US, Britain, China, France & Soviet Union) would have permanent seats on the security council and could veto any action by the UN.

253
Q

What three parts can US foreign policy during the Cold War be broken into?

A

Containment
Detente
Unrestricted Competition

254
Q

This was created by George Kennan and was based on the premise that the US must apply counter force to any aggressive moves by the Soviet Union.

A

Containment Policy

255
Q

Where was the Containment Policy implemented?

A

Truman Doctrine

256
Q

This was a plan to put billions into Western Europe to help rebuild it and its economies to make it strong enough to prevent Communism.

A

Marshall Plan

257
Q

What was the first military and political alliance the US joined during a peace time?

A

North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

258
Q

This plan emerged during the Cold War and the plan stated that if one region came under communist influence the other nations in the area would follow.

A

Domino Plan

259
Q

When the USSR attempted to put missiles in Cuba in 1962 it was called what?

A

The Cuban Missile Crisis

260
Q

This was a prime example of the Domino Theory where the US was attempting to stop the spread of communism and instead supported a corrupt capitalist regime.

A

Vietnam War

261
Q

This was passed by Congress in 1964 and provided Johnson with broad, legal authority to combat Northern Vietnamese aggression.

A

Gulf of Tonkin Resolution

262
Q

This was the easing of tension between the US and Soviet Union that lead to increased trade, cultural exchanges and an agreement to limit nuclear weapons.

A

Detente

263
Q

The agreement with the USSR to limit nuclear weapons was known as the

A

Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (SALT)

264
Q

This happened at the culmination of the detente, the Soviets wanted the group to recognize the control of Eastern Europe and conquered territories while Western powers wanted the USSR to agree to human rights and protections for all citizens.

A

Helsinki Accords

265
Q

Put into place under Jimmy Carter, this established that the Persian Gulf was an area of vital US interest and the US would fight to maintain its interests there.

A

Carter Doctrine.

266
Q

What saw the relations between the USSR/US deteriorate?

A

Regan’s election

267
Q

What were the two policies Mikhail Gorbachev instituted in 1985?

A

Glasnost & Perestroika

268
Q

What eased the new tensions between the US/USSR after Regan’s election?

A

Gorbachev’s policies of Glasnost and Perestroika.

269
Q

When did the Iron Curtain fall?

A

1989

270
Q

This was a US settlement arranged in 1995 to resolve ethnic conflict in the former Yugoslavia.

A

Dayton Accords

271
Q

This was the response of the US to 9/11

A

The War on Terrorisim

272
Q

This was created by Bush after 9/11 and has cabinet status

A

The Office of Homeland Security

273
Q

This changed the US from reactive strategies of containment and deterrence to a more proactive policy of military action after 9/11

A

Bush Doctrine

274
Q

This placed negotiation and collaboration over confrontation and unilateralism.

A

Obama Doctrine

275
Q

This involves the objectives that nations seek to gain with reference to other nations and procedures employed in order to achieve those objectives.

A

Foreign Policy

276
Q

Who are “actors” in foreign policy?

A

The primary players (nations, world organizations, multinational corporations, non-state ethnic entities)

277
Q

This model of foreign policy assumes that all nations or primary players share similar goals and approach foreign policy issues in a like fashion.

A

Unitary/Rational Actor Model

278
Q

This model of foreign policy assumes that due to the many large organizations involved in formulating foreign policy, final decisions are a result of struggle amongst bureaucratic actors.

A

Bureaucratic Model

279
Q

This model of foreign policy involves communicating with other primary players through official representatives.

A

Diplomacy

280
Q

This concluded 30 years war in Europe in 1648

A

Peace of Westphalia

281
Q

This extended the authority of the Roman Catholic popes to exert political dominance over secular leaders.

A

Peace of Westphalia

282
Q

This gave birth to the notion of the modern nation-state.

A

Peace of Westphalia

283
Q

When was the “golden age of diplomacy”?

A

18th Century

284
Q

This was an era of relative stability in which modern & shared cultural values on the part of the decision-makers was the rule.

A

The Golden Age of Diplomacy

285
Q

This is a legal entity that occupies a well-defined geographic area and is organized under a common set of governmental institutions. They are recognized as sovereign and independent.

A

Nation State

286
Q

This is a movement or party that functions as independent states, but lack sovereignty and possibly have more power than some less developed nation-states

A

Non-State Actors & Principle Players

287
Q

What is an example of a non-state actor or principle player?

A

Palestine Liberation Organization, Irish Republican Army

288
Q

These conduct activities throughout the world but their aims are largely non-political. Ex: Catholic Church

A

Non-Territorial Transnational Organizations

289
Q

These groups have a basis in a number of countries and exist primarily for economic profit.

A

Multinational Organizations

290
Q

This is made up of nation-states and can wield significant power on the international scene.

A

Intergovernmental Organizations

291
Q

How are nation-states classified in the international community?

A

By Power, wealth, and prestige.

292
Q

This involves alliances that transcend the old bi-polar scheme with its emphasis on ideology, military superiority, and calls for multinational cooperation.

A

New World Order

293
Q

Who codified the laws of war and peace and has been called the father of international law?

A

Hugo Grotius

294
Q

This represents concerted efforts to replace armed conflict as the rule of law

A

Court of International Justice

295
Q

This influences nations to observe the tenants of law.

A

Fear of Reprisal

296
Q

This type of government has a more uniform policy, equity, and less conflict. Supreme authority lies within the leaders.

A

Centralized Government

297
Q

This type of government is closer to the people, more responsive, flexible to more citizens needs and allows for innovations.

A

De-Centralized Government

298
Q

If all authority lies in a sole, central organization it is called what?

A

A unitary de-centralized government

299
Q

In this type of government most power is allocated to regional government who can defy the national government to whom they allow only a limited amount of power.

A

Confederation

300
Q

In this type of government, member states give up power to a central government but retain some power as well.

A

Federal

301
Q

In this type of government, a fusion of the executive and legislative branches exists.

A

Parliamentary

302
Q

Who is the executive in a Parliamentary system of government?

A

Prime Minister

303
Q

Who chooses the Prime Minister?

A

Parliament

304
Q

What is a weakness of the Parliamentary system?

A

Caters to minority party in order to gain power and coalitions break down when only a handful of members disagree with an agenda.

305
Q

This type of government is based on a strict application of separation of powers.

A

Presidential

306
Q

If no one is making decisions in government and everyone is free to do as they please it is called what?

A

Anarchy

307
Q

This type of government believes in the elimination of the state

A

Anarchy

308
Q

If one person has dominant power and makes all the government decisions it’s called what?

A

Autocracy

309
Q

This usually refers to a government where power is controlled by a monarch, political dictator, or religious leader.

A

Autocracy

310
Q

In this type of government, power rests with a small elite group that makes all government decisions

A

Oligarchy

311
Q

This type of government tends to arise as transitional governments that have arisen out of dictatorships.

A

Oligarchy

312
Q

This is an oligarchy that has, by rule, only a few, super-wealthy individuals

A

Plutocracy

313
Q

This type of government consists of a rule by a group with mass participation that must rely on a leadership that is managed my competing elites.

A

Polyarchy

314
Q

This is a type of government where everyone is given the opportunity to participate in government and power is distributed evenly and widely diffused.

A

Democracy

315
Q

What are the two forms of democracy?

A

Direct and Indirect

316
Q

What is a direct democracy?

A

Everyone participates and votes on all issues - none exist!

317
Q

What is an indirect democracy?

A

People choose individuals to run the government and make decisions for them.

318
Q

What is another name for an indirect democracy?

A

A Representative Democracy

319
Q

In this type of government, all goods and services are owned equally and commonly - there is no individual owenership.

A

Communisim

320
Q

This type of government operates under the belief that inequalities that exist in a society are unjust and the government provides extensive social services to citizens.

A

Socialism

321
Q

This type of government has a hereditary leader.

A

Monarchy

322
Q

This type of government has a monarch but also has a government that is elected and a constitution that sets out how a government should function.

A

Constitutional Monarchy

323
Q

In this type of government, leaders are elected.

A

Republic

324
Q

If there are effective constraints on a government it is called this type of government.

A

Constitutional

325
Q

If there are no effective constraints on a government it is called this type of government.

A

Dictatorship

326
Q

This is the oldest form of government as it does not require permission from people to take over the government.

A

Dictatorship

327
Q

This is a government leader who has absolute control over the government and is authoritarian in nature.

A

Dictator

328
Q

This is a dictator system based on military power

A

Miltary Dictatorship

329
Q

In this type of government, rulers can make decisions without consent of those they are governing.

A

Authoritarian

330
Q

This is an extreme version of Authoritarianism and endeavors to achieve complete conformity by all to the ideals of the state with no dissension allowed.

A

Totalitarian

331
Q

In this type of government the citizen sacrifices the expense of the individual and his or her family for the good of the state.

A

Marxism

332
Q

These are legal claims that individuals have to protect themselves from discrimination at the hands of the government and other citizens.

A

Civil Rights

333
Q

During this case, the Supreme Court began to exercise their function of interpreting the law as it applies to civil rights.

A

Gitlow Case (1925)

334
Q

This Constitutional amendment sets for them principle of the separation of church and state.

A

First Amendment

335
Q

What Supreme Court case allowed segregation to be maintained?

A

Plessy vs. Ferguson (1896)

336
Q

This Supreme Court case ruled that separate but equal was unconstitutional and ended most de jure segregation, but defacto still remained.

A

Brown vs. Board of Education (1954)

337
Q

This Supreme Court case ruled that as a slave Scott had no right to use for his freedom and further Congressional prohibitions on slavery were unlawful.

A

Dred Scott vs. Sanford (1857)

338
Q

This Supreme Court case barred states from using prior restraint to discourage publication of objectionable material except in war time or in cases of obscenity or incitement to violence.

A

Near vs. Minnesota (1931)

339
Q

This Supreme Court case ruled that compulsory saluting of the flag was unconstitutional.

A

West Virginia Board of Education vs. Barnette (1943)

340
Q

This Supreme Court case upheld the legality of forced internment of Japanese during WWII

A

Korematsu vs. US (1944)

341
Q

This Supreme Court case extended the rule that evidence not legally obtained cannot be evidence to state and federal courts. It has since been modified.

A

Mapp vs. Ohio (1961)

342
Q

This Supreme Court case ruled that courts must provide legal counsel to poor defendants in federal cases. It was later extended to include all defendants facing prison time.

A

Gideon vs. Wainwright (1963)

343
Q

This Supreme Court case established the right to council included consultation prior to interrogation.

A

Escebo vs. Illinois (1964)

344
Q

This Supreme Court case made it so all suspects must be informed of due process rights before questioning.

A

Miranda vs. Arizona (1966)

345
Q

This Supreme Court case allowed for the publication of the controversial Pentagon Papers during Vietnam.

A

New York Times vs. US (1971)

346
Q

This Supreme Court case legalized abortion as long as the fetus is not viable.

A

Roe vs. Wade (1973)

347
Q

This Supreme Court case established that the freedom of press does not extend to student publications.

A

Hazelwood School District vs. Kuhlmeier (1988)

Social Sciences 6-12 (4 decks)

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