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JG Q n A > Policy Qna > Flashcards

Policy Qna Flashcards

1
Q

How far from trackside must u be at railway incidents?

A

3 metres

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2
Q

At what pressure does a WRM provide water at and for how long?

A

1500 Lpm for 45 minutes as a minimum

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3
Q

At what height building will a WRM be fitted?

A

60 metres + (as of 2006 50m)

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4
Q

What is the outlet pressure of a WRM?

A

Pre 2006 = 4-5 bars now 8 bars

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5
Q

Definition of a high rise?

A

Any building beyond the reach of emergency vehicle capability (TL ALP HP)

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6
Q

Who determines a FSG Call?

A

Control

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7
Q

Informative messages should be sent at what time intervals?

A

Initial 20 mins then 30 mins

8pf+=every 60 mins

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8
Q

In what order should informative messages be sent?

A

After assistance and as soon as possible

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9
Q

What is the PDA for FSG?

A

Initial as per persons reported CU SM FIU

Then

Additional Command unit Station Manager and PL with WM in charge

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10
Q

Who can declare a FSG?

A

Control only

OIC only persons reported

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11
Q

At Terrorist incidents who will the duty ILO send to the incident?

A

Another ILO to offer info and advice to the IC

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12
Q

How can the duty ILO be contacted?

A

Via OOW at control

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13
Q

When approaching a terrorist incident, what steps should be considered?

A

Steps 123+ IOR aide memoire

Be on the lookout for secondary devices

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14
Q

Who at Terrorist incidents has overall control and co-ordination?

A

Police incident commander

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15
Q

What cordons apply to Terrorist incident devices not actuated?

A

Up to suitcase size more than 100m
Car/light vehicle more than 200m
HGV/lorry more than 400m

Any doubt 400m

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16
Q

At a device actuated Terrorist incident, what vehicles are allowed in the inner cordon?

A

Only essential vehicles

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17
Q

At Terrorist incidents, when is it considered the brigade has accomplished its primary duties?

A

Any fire extinguished and all trapped and injured persons have been removed

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18
Q

What are the 2 main causes of collapsed structures?

A

Natural

Earthquake, hurricane, lightning, flooding, subsidence

Human

Premises under renovation, accidental impact, arson, Terrorist induced (deliberate) gas explosion etc

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19
Q

When considering structural damage, what 2 types of building are there?

A

Framed buildings

Unframed buildings

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20
Q

What different types of collapses are there on structures?

A 
Pancake
Lean to
V
Tent
90 degree angle ( most dangerous)
Curtain fall
Inward/ outward
Total (most severe)
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21
Q

What action should be taken if a building is considered dangerous?

A

Request dangerous structures engineer via control

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22
Q

Who has full power to deal with dangerous structures?

A

Local authorities x3

City corporation
Inner London borough councils
Outer London borough councils

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23
Q

At rescues from collapsed structures, there is a risk of injury resulting from what?

A 
Restricted access
Restricted vision
Underfoot conditions
Falling objects
Overhanging hazards
Airborne particulates
Oxygen deficiency
Secondary collapse
Weight and position of casualties
Bulk and weight debris
Explosive / flammable atmospheres 
Poor lighting
Bio hazards
Exposed / damaged utilities (gas electric and water)
Asbestos
Sharp and protruding objects
Further acts of terrorism
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24
Q

Who can the IC seek advice from for collapsed structures?

A

UA

USAR advisor

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25
Q

What are the 5 types of USAR modules?

A 
Module 1 structural collapse
Module 2 major transport
Module 3 breaching and breaking
Module 4 MPV
Module 5 timber
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26
Q

What should be the first actions from the IC at a collapsed structure incident?

A

Initial survey and dynamic risk assessment
Then
Request Dangerous structures engineer and UA

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27
Q

What are the 6 stages of rescue?

A 
REPEAT
Reconnaissance and survey
Elimination of utilities
Primary surface S and R
Exploration of voids and spaces
Access by selected debris removal
Terminate by general debris removal
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28
Q

What are NGOs?

A

Non government organisations

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29
Q

Where should offers of assistance from NGOs at collapsed structures be directed to?

A

OOD via control who will refer the offer to the duty DAC

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30
Q

What should the IC consider on arrival at a collapsed structure incident?

A

Use DMM

Initial survey
DRA

Request DSE and UA
Create initial cordon
Consider specialist search equipment establish RVPs
Request police for cordon management

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31
Q

What are the 5 steps of the DRA?

A
  1. Evaluate the situation,tasks and persons at risk
  2. Select safe systems of work
  3. Assess the chosen systems of work
  4. Introduce additional control measures
  5. Reassess systems of work and additional control measures
    ESAIR
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32
Q

When can you override brigade policy?

A

To achieve a specific objective if justifiable using risk v benefit

Minimum move away to achieve objective

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33
Q

What is a hazard?

A

Something with the potential to cause harm

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34
Q

What is risk?

A

Likelihood that harm from a hazard will occur

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35
Q

What is a risk assessment?

A

The process of identifying hazards, who and / or what is at risk from those hazards, the likely severity of that risk and the control measures required to minimise or eliminate risk.

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36
Q

If operational discretion is used, who should be notified?

A

Control via “priority”

From…at….operational discretion in use, (task being carried out) Tac mod Oscar

Then informative as normal after stating actions and equipment used

Followed by from…at… operational discretion now no longer in use

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37
Q

How do lookouts at railway incidents warn train drivers of personnel on the line?

A

Daylight: by holding both arms straight above head.

At night: waving a bright light violently from side to side

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38
Q

LUL on network rail, who’s in charge?

A

LUL =all issues and equipment both sub surface and surface

Network rail =operations and maintenance of main line track and power supplies (infrastructure)

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39
Q

When is it ok to isolate power and stop trains?

A

When essential to protect life and property

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40
Q

What actions should be taken at a small trackside fire?

A

Let it burn out if no threat to public or property

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41
Q

Who can use SCDs and when?

A

Trained FRU personnel and only in the absence of railway personnel

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42
Q

When can we brigade personnel remove SCDs?

A

Never

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43
Q

What radio channel is installed on all sub surface stations?

A

Channel 5 UHF

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44
Q

In LUL tunnels, how far apart are instantaneous outlets installed?

A

Every 60 metres approx with isolating safety valves every 180m to avoid flooding

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45
Q

What is the safe working distance on DLR?

A

2 metres from running rails

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46
Q

What is the role of a RIO?

A

To liaise and advise OIC on safety issues relating to brigade personnel working on / adjacent to the permanent way

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47
Q

What does “trains running under caution mean”?

A

Train driver informed of personnel working on the track and must proceed at a speed which will enable them to stop safely if necessary
Max 50mph could be as low as 5mph for bad visibility

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48
Q

What is the 4th information gathering block on the DMM

A

Information on progress

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49
Q

Failure of a steel cylinder may throw fragments how far?

A

200 metres

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50
Q

Flammable gases exploding from a failed cylinder may cause a fire ball up to how far?

A

25 metres

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51
Q

What types of hazard may be present from leaking cylinder contents?

A

Flammable
Asphyxiant
Corrosive
Toxic

FACT

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52
Q

Within what distance must crews approaching cylinders (suspected or confirmed involved) wear full PPE and B.A?

A

Within 25 metres of the cylinder

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53
Q

What additional measures should crews take when approaching a cylinder suspected or involved incident?

A

Substantial cover

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54
Q

What is the initial hazard zone at suspected cylinder incidents?

A

200 metres

Can be reduced if substantial cover is available

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55
Q

What is the definition of a cylinder?

A

Any vessel containing a gas or liquid under pressure

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56
Q

If a cylinder is unidentified then what should it be treated as?

A

As if it is acetylene until proven otherwise

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57
Q

If a cylinder is involved in direct flame impingement then what should the OICs objectives be?

A

Make every effort to extinguish the fire and apply a cooling spray directly on the cylinder

Must be done using substantial cover

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58
Q

If a composite cylinder has been involved and has failed what actions should be taken?

A

Allow the contents to burn off if safe to do so

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59
Q

What facts will allow an OIC to remove a 200m hazard zone at a cylinder incident?

A

Fire extinguished

Cylinders definitely not acetylene

All cylinders accounted for

Cylinders involved are receiving direct cooling

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60
Q

At what temperature will any part of a steel cylinder need to be heated before it is in danger of failing? What

A

300 degrees C

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61
Q

If a cylinder is identified as acetylene and has been involved, what procedure should be carried out?

A

200m hazard zone
Carry out cap test

(cylinder assessment process)

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62
Q

In what order should the cap test procedures be carried out?

A

Cool for 1 hour then stop

Monitor/ record temp with TIC
Check for violent steaming

Leave cooling water OFF 15mins

Apply quick spray of water
(All above x 4)

Any failing of cap then apply Water for additional hour

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63
Q

If a cylinder is involved in a fire and is confirmed as NOT acetylene then what actions should be taken?

A

200m hazard zone
Cool cylinder with water spray
Check with TIC
When happy cylinder is cool close incident

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64
Q

Who completes the acetylene cylinder incident log and what should the final ICs actions be with regards to the form?

A

HMEPO only fills out the log

IC responsible for retaining the log and sending it back to the initial HMEPO

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65
Q

Who should be consulted before a cylinder alight at the valve group is turned off?

A

HMEPO

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66
Q

The routine BA duties of a watch manager are?

A

Nominate:
BA wearers and ECO

Allocate: comms sets

Ensure: all BA tested and defects rectified, reported, recorded

Unallocated sets tested and recorded as “spare”

Station log book recorded the above except spare set

Arrange: replacement of defective equipment

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67
Q

If there is less than 2 BA sets available, what should the OIC do?

A

Take the appliance off the run

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68
Q

If EDBA is required at an incident, what actions should the OIC take?

A

Message to control from…at….edba required tac mode…..

Control mobilise 3 FRU and 3 EDBA support pumps

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69
Q

When can BA be used?

A

On the specific instruction of the OIC

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70
Q

Who is responsible for briefing and debriefing at an incident?

A

OIC or another officer

NOT ECO!!!!

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71
Q

Can BA be donned en-route to an incident?

A

NO

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72
Q

What is the minimum set pressure when reporting to an ECO?

A

240 bar

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73
Q

How many fireground A tests can be carried out on 1 BA set?

A

Only 1 if the set has already been worn by the same wearer.

After 2 wears the set must have a B test
Worn sets re-allocated must have a B test

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74
Q

What does a confirmed telemetry signal look like on the bodyguard?

A

Blue LEDs

radio icon with tick

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75
Q

What does a green led flash on the front of the bodyguard mean?

A

Operational mode

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76
Q

Are breathing apparatus radio interface equipment (BARIE) sets intrinsically safe?

A

Yes

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77
Q

Are fireground hand held radios intrinsically safe? And can they be used instead of BARIE sets?

A

Not intrinsically safe

Can be used with BA only if a naked flame is already present or if LEL equipment has been used

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78
Q

Who should wear BA radio comms?

A

BA team leader

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79
Q

If a BA team loses radio contact (BARIE or hand held) should they withdraw?

A

BA team leader will decide following a RA

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80
Q

If telemetry and radio comms is lost, what should a BA team do?

A

Withdraw

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81
Q

If BA channel 6 fails what should a BA team do?

A

Use channel 1

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82
Q

What channel should BA teams use if leaky feeder is in use?

A

Channel 5

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83
Q

The working duration of a BA set is decided how?

A

From first breath to the whistle operating

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84
Q

In a BA team, who’s job is it to ensure teams enter/ exit together and don’t split up?

A

BA team leader

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85
Q

What events must a BA team leader withdraw their team?

A 
Uncontrolled loss of air
LP whistle sounds
Confused or unwell member/s
Bodyguard faulty or unreadable
ADSU/ DSU sounds
Any exposure to irrespirable atmosphere due to dislodged or faulty face mask
Loss of radio comms and telemetry
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86
Q

If a BA team is unable to withdraw what should they do?

A

Go into entrapped procedure

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87
Q

If a BA member becomes entangled in cables, what actions should be taken?

A

Inform other members of cable location
Members must remain still and state “I am entangled in cables”
If in distress DSU must be operated immediately

They must cross their arms at chest height

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88
Q

What action should an ECO take if a BA team cable entanglement occurs?

A

Commit emergency crew

Then

Inform IC

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89
Q

What action should the IC take following a BA cable entanglement?

A

Consider FF emergency
Isolation of electrics
Commence accident investigation

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90
Q

How many minutes of air are left when a LP whistle operates?

A

SDBA 12 mins

EDBA 18 mins

Approx (84 bar)
Consumption rate 50 LPM SDBA
56 LPM EDBA

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91
Q

What is the minimum pressure for the 2nd set? And what goes on the tally?

A

240 Bar

Tally marked ‘second set’

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92
Q

How should additional air from a BA Set be connected to a GTS?

A

Unclip the 1m hose from a second set and plug into GTS hip connector

(Ensure set is on)

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93
Q

What is the minimum pressure for a re-entry?

A

190 bar

TOW entered in location column for 15 mins

Re-entry and task performed entered in remarks column

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94
Q

What is the minimum rank to lead a BA emergency team?

A

Crew Manager

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95
Q

When should stage 2 Entry control be implemented?

A 
More than 1 ECP
Protracted incident
Emergency team 
Guidelines
Hi ex foam
EDBA
Relief BA
2 boards plus (11 wearers+)
Leaky feeder
Basement fire 
(Emergency and relief BA for any stage 2 event)
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96
Q

Can SDBA and EDBA be used on the same EC board?

A

Yes but BA teams must be either All SDBA or All EDBA, (no mixed teams)

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97
Q

What is the role of a Crew Manager at Stage 2 entry control?

A

Supervise BA procedures

Use assistants to record details on the board

Nominate a comms operator.
Organise an emergency team.
Have a second set ready for every 2 wearers
Ensure relief BA teams available.

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98
Q

A BA emergency team must have a second set ready to go for how many committed wearers?

A

1 second set for every 2 committed wearers

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99
Q

If a second set is to be used, what happens to the tally and key?

A

Tally marked with “second set” in the name section

Remove ADSU key and leave in bodyguard

Record pressure on tally

Insert tally in board (bracketed together with emergency team)

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100
Q

How long is a fully opened personal line?

A

6 metres

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101
Q

What action should be taken by BA crews when leaving a guideline in place?

A

Overhand knot on “D” ring

Karabiner (personal) to guideline past toe off point

Bag remove from set and attach to tie off point using snap hook

OKB BKO

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102
Q

Stage 2 ECO duties are?

A

Supervise BA procedures
Complete stage 1 duties
Sync Board clocks
comms op nominate
Emergency team organise
Relief teams organise
Inform main control of numbers of wearers and frequency of reliefs required
Pass names to other ECP of wearers leaving different exit
Attach main and branch tallies
Prompt IC if main control needs to be set up

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103
Q

What are the BA aide memoirs 1-12?

A
  1. Stage 1
  2. Stage 2
    3.main control
    4.comms op
    5.Distress to wearer
    6.cylinder procedure
    7.working with BTP 02BA
    8.
    9.
  3. Entry control manual log on/off
  4. Unused
  5. Telemetry signal options
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104
Q

What is a tactical withdrawal?

A

Removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in safe and planned manner

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105
Q

What is an emergency evacuation?

A

Immediate and controlled evacuation of all personnel from the scene of operations

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106
Q

How are tactical and emergency withdrawals initiated?

A

BA board select or total evacuation

short blasts on the acme whistle

Radio (hand held ) priority message

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107
Q

What actions should the IC take when an emergency evacuation has been implemented?

A

Informative to control with details and tac mode
oscar until all personnel removed

Carry out a roll call then 2nd informative to control

DRA before any recommitting

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108
Q

What is the additional PDA for a FFE?

A 
6 pumps
3 SM's
2 FRU
FIU
CU
Ambulance
PLO
FSO
GM
DAC
SAI
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109
Q

Who can initiate a BA Withdrawal?

A

Usually IC but anybody can if justifiable

OIC must be informed ASAP

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110
Q

What is a Firefighter emergency?

A

Fire service personnel
Or
Persons working under the control of LFB

Unaccounted for or in need of rescue

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111
Q

What is the sequence for messages sent from the incident ground?

A

Assistance
Informative

Further assistance or informative
Fire surrounded 6pf 3jets+

Stop
Extra informative messages
Request reliefs

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112
Q

What does a stop message indicate?

A

Indicates incident is under control and that no further emergency mobilisation will be necessary

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113
Q

When should a full stop message be sent?

A

More than 1 hose reel is used
Make ups
Unusual incidents
Any persons involved except lifts, lock outs

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114
Q

Is it ok to send “declared safe” in STOP messages from incidents where DIM has been used?

A

No

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115
Q

Is there a need to send “this is now a 4 pump fire” when 4 pumps are already on the PDA?

A

Yes! Regardless of PDA the pump size of the incident must be sent along with Tac mode

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116
Q

What is a Major incident defined as?

A

Any emergency that requires special arrangements by 1 or all of the emergency services

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117
Q

On receipt of a Major incident procedure message, what will Control mobilise?

A 
6 pumps
FRU
CU
Senior officers
Ambulance request
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118
Q

When should a fire surround message be sent?

A

6 pump+
3 jets+

Once all jets in place and no further spread possible

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119
Q

When attending a special service incident with persons involved, when should informative be sent?

A

If resources are required for 20 minutes or more

Also if protracted or complex nature

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120
Q

What are the 8 coded stop messages?

A 
Code 1. 1xhr insurable property fire no assistance, rescues or injuries
Code 2. 1xhr non insurable property
Code3. chimney
Code 4.fault
Code 5.good
Code 6 mal 
Code 7 special service
Code 8. 1 Batch mob incident dealt with
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121
Q

What are the 3 levels of water operations?

A

Working within 3 metres of water
Level 1 not over the boots and slow moving
Level 2 commit to water for a rescue above level 1
Level 3 flood response operations

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122
Q

When are TARs ( tactical advisors-rescue) mobilised and what do they do?

A

Informed level 1 mobilised Level 2 Water

To provide advise and support and act as a functional commander for incidents involving water operations

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123
Q

Who deals with incidents involving mud, ice or partially frozen water?

A

FRU SRT only

FF can only do it if immediate life risk

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124
Q

What is the minimum PPE for a FF entering water?

A

Full PPE

PFD

Helmet only if risk of head injury

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125
Q

Can LFB BA be used under water?

A

No (not designed for that)

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126
Q

First responders at flood incidents should wear what and be in minimum teams of how many personnel?

A

Yellow helmet as part of FRK.

work in teams of 4 minimum

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127
Q

How are FRU SRTs identified?

A

Red water safety helmet

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128
Q

How are TRAs identifiable?

A

Surcoat with “TRA” insert

“White” water safety helmet

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129
Q

What is the maximum wading depth for FFs wearing L3 PPE?

A

60cm

2ft

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130
Q

At water incidents where FFs are committed, why is it important to cover all cuts and broken skin?

A

Weils Disease risk

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131
Q

When working near an unprotected waters edge, what must the IC implement?

A

A 3 metre restricted zone

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132
Q

Building regs require all buildings over what height to make provision for firefighting and firefighter access?

A

Over 18 metres

Firefighting shafts
Dry/wet rising mains
Firefighting lifts

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133
Q

Where should the OiC be situated at high rise incidents?

A

Ground floor unless planning has identified elsewhere like fire control centre

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134
Q

How should a DRM be charged?

A

Twin 70mm hose from hydrant to pump and pump to DRM

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135
Q

On arrival tactics from OIC at high rise indents should include what?

A

Carry out a 360 degree recce to establish a safe bridgehead

fixed installations fire control systems

Cordons for debris falling

HVAC systems

Make ups?

Wind direction

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136
Q

How many LPM can a dry riser deliver?

A

1500 LPM

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137
Q

Who should stay with a Firefighting lift once established?

A

A FF is to remain in the lift as a lift controller

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138
Q

Where should a Firefighting lift stop on approach to a fire?

A

2 floors below the same as the bridgehead

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139
Q

Where should the Firefighting lift remain during Firefighting operations?

A

At the bridgehead to assist rescue and escape

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140
Q

At high rise incidents, who should the fire sector commander take to the bridgehead whilst water is being secured?

A

3 man team
1 X ECO
2 X BA wearers

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141
Q

What items should be taken to the bridgehead at high rise incidents?

A 
2 branches
Sufficient hose for 2 lines to reach fire area
1 X EC board, bracket tripod
2 sets
IEC pack
Long line
Breaking in gear
TIC
Access keys/ codes
Floor plans
FIB
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142
Q

Where should a BA teams Firefighting hose originate from in a high rise incident?

A

1 floor below the fire ideally if not lower

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143
Q

When a BA team commits to fight a fire from the bridgehead, what should be provided ASAP?

A

2nd BA team with a charged hose (1 length more) (can originate from the fire floor)to protect initial BA team

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144
Q

Can crews be committed above the bridgehead floors not affected by fire and smoke without BA?

A

Yes if IC has confirmed the buildings construction and fire engineered solutions have not been compromised

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145
Q

When will a FSO attended an incident?

A

Informed at 4pf
Attend 5pf+

Available on request also

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146
Q

Is it ok to use a normal passenger lift as a dedicated fire lift?

A

No only use a dedicated fire lift at fire incidents

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147
Q

Over what height building must water suppression systems be fitted?

A

2006+ Over 30 metres

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148
Q

What is the minimum rank to go to the bridgehead?

A

1 X CM

3 X FFs

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149
Q

At bomb or Terrorist incidents what 3 categories do they fall within?

A

No warning device actuated

Warning -actuated
Warning- not actuated, made safe

Think secondary devices
Think cordon distances

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150
Q

At Terrorist/ bomb incidents what is the minimum distance for radio transmission on main scheme and hand held?

A

Main scheme 50m

Hand held 10m

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151
Q

What is the maximum recommended working duration of GTS?

A

20 mins

(including decontamination regardless of SDBA or EDBA

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152
Q

Buildings with different roof heights because of extra floors are described how on messages?

A

Buildings with 1 and 2 floors

Example

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153
Q

Buildings that have basements not involved in a fire or likely to be are described how on message?

A

Basement not to be included in description unless it becomes involved or likely to be involved

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154
Q

How are basements involved in fires described in building description messages?

A

Basement
Sub basement

Any further = number of levels below ground

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155
Q

How are irregular floor areas described in building description messages?

A

Squared off regardless and set as if square

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156
Q

What is the 2004 fire act with regards to RTCs?

A

New powers in an emergency for rescuing and protecting people to:

move or break into a vehicle without consent

Close a highway

Stop traffic

Restrict access

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157
Q

When is it ok to cross the central reservation at RTCs?

A

Only under direction from police or highways agency transport officer (HATO)

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158
Q

What is the only exception for stopping in the outside lane for an RTC on the other carriageway?

A

Only if incident has spread across the central reservation

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159
Q

What are the safety considerations at RTCs?

A

Hi viz clothing and safety glasses in visors

Fend off parking

Blue lights,fend offs mast lighting for all vehicles

Police accident sign

Traffic tape and cones if road not shut

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160
Q

If an RTC has occurred on an intersection or slip road on or off, what should the OIC do?

A

Close the access point

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161
Q

If hazardous materials are involved in an RTC what should the OIC do?

A

Request HMEPO

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162
Q

How can hazardous materials be identified on transport systems

A

Vehicle/ package markings

Hazard identification plates

Load manifest

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163
Q

What are the further considerations for OICs at RTCs?

A

Is it a crime scene?

Maintain close liaison with other agencies

Make any adjustments necessary to maintain a safe working area

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164
Q

What is the minimum in cordon for RTCs?

A

2 metres around the perimeter of the vehicle

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165
Q

What is the minimum size of an RTC outer circle?

A

5 metres around the inner circle

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166
Q

How far is a keyless car fob have to be away from the vehicle before it is not considered live?

A

20 metres away

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167
Q

How long may residual power remain in vehicles which have had their power supply disconnected?

A

30 minutes

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168
Q

What colour are all SRS power connections?

A

Yellow

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169
Q

If a vehicle fitted with LPG is involved in a fire, what should it be treated as?

A

Cylinder incident

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170
Q

If a vehicle is fitted with LPG and is leaking but not involved in a fire what should the incident be treated as?

A

Hazmat incident

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171
Q

What colour are high voltage cables on vehicles?

A

Orange

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172
Q

When leaving an RTC incident, what actions should be taken?

A

Advise all personnel

Safe working area left behind

Maintain blues and fend offs until in lane far away from the incident

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173
Q

What lanes should be closed for different RTCs?

A 
2 way Road= both lanes
HS = HS and lane 1
3 lane motorway is:
Lane 1 = HS, 1 and 2
Lane 2 = 1,2,3
Lane 3 = 2 and 3
Across central res = 2 and 3 of both
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174
Q

Can LFB cones be used for fend off positions and road closures?

A

No

Our cones only used between our appliances to maintain safe working area 1 metre apart

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175
Q

How long is the fire resistance of walls and floors surrounding a sub station within a building?

A

4 hours fire resistance

176
Q

En route to an incident involving electrical apparatus, what must the OIC do?

A

Ensure personnel are rigged in full fire kit.

All relevant info passed to personnel and other appliances

Access MDT

177
Q

At incidents involving electrical apparatus, what are the on arrival considerations?

A

Arrive at main entrance or RVP
Find “responsible person”
Gather info and set up safety cordon

Carry out risk assessment for electricity involvement

178
Q

Who should be contacted for Incidents involving overhead power cables?

A

Nation grid

Request urgent attendance of “authorised person”

179
Q

Who should be requested
for all incidents involving
apparatus where no responsible persons are present?

A

“Authorised person”

180
Q

What can we do at incidents involving electrical apparatus?

A

Not much due to High voltages
Request authorised person provide identification information
Mitigate risk to passers by

Provide fire cover for nearby risks

181
Q

Once the authorised person has isolated the electrical supply, what can the OIC do?

A

Send stop message if no hazardous materials involved

182
Q

Within what distance should ground and aerial monitors not be used near live conductors?

A

30 metres for ground monitors

20 metres for hand held hose
(20 aerials/ ladders training)

10 metres for aerials / ladders

5 for rescue

183
Q

What is the minimum distance aerial appliances and ladders must be kept from overhead power lines in smoke or flames?

A

10 metres

184
Q

To what level of voltage will LFB electrical gloves provide safe protection?

A

3300v

185
Q

When can a rescue be carried out for persons laying on top of a transformer / switch or above ground electrical apparatus?

A

Must NOT be touched until an “authorised person” from electricity authority confirms SAFE for rescue to commence

186
Q

What is classed as “high voltage”?

A

1000v AC
1500v DC

Low voltage = less than above

187
Q

Are PCBs?

A

Polychlorinated Biphenyls

188
Q

Is it ok to pass warning signs or gain access into areas which have warning signs at incidents involving electrical apparatus?

A

No!

Wait for “authorised person” to attend

189
Q

If fighting a fire on live electrical apparatus, what media should be used?

A

Carbon dioxide or dry agent

If low voltage only.!! water or foam if above not present

190
Q

Under the fire and arson memorandum of understanding, what is the police’s role?

A

Responsible for the prevention and detection of crime.

report to the Coroner any fire death

Direction and control of crime scene investigation

191
Q

What is the fire brigade’s role in the memorandum of understanding for fire and arson?

A

Firefighting and rescue operations at the fire scene

192
Q

In basement fires what causes the heat barrier?

A

Rising hot smoke and Unburnt fire gases leaving via staircases

193
Q

What are the on arrival tactics for OICs at basement fires?

A

Go to main entrance or Pre agreed RVP

Find responsible person if poss

Initial assessment of building + situation

Find AFA panels/ info boxes/ fixed installations
Consider: make ups, safety officers, fire location? Persons? Ventilation? SFSO request? Leeky feeder

194
Q

What is the basement procedure?

A

2 X 45mm jets sets at 230 lpm fed from twin 70mm from hydrant to pump

1 for BA fire crew
1 for access egress protection

Message control “basement procedure implemented” Tac mode

195
Q

Should FFs be recommitted at basement fires?

A

Only in exceptional circumstances

Consider reliefs

196
Q

When is the only time a basement fire can be vented?

A

Before BA team committal

And only if persons not reported

Could cause uncontrolled venting leading to backdraft and flashover

197
Q

If a basement involved in a fire is known to be or later discovered as a complex layout, what should the OIC consider?

A

Stage 2
EDBA
guidelines

198
Q

What hazards are associated with compartment Firefighting?

A 
Backdraft 
Explosive atmosphere
Fire gas explosion
Flashover 
Steam
Uncontrolled ventilation 
High temperatures
Structural deterioration 
Exposed utilities 
Loss of comms
199
Q

What is the minimum weight of attack for compartment fire fighting?

A

1 X 45mm jet on 230 LPM

1 X 45mm jet on 230 LPM minimum back up to protect and support 1st BA team ( must be 1 length more than 1st BA team)

200
Q

If a 2nd BA team is required to enter a compartment, what should the OIC put in place?

A

A third line of hose 45mm 230 LPM to always protect access and egress

201
Q

What is a covering jet used for?

A

Minimise hazards caused by flame and unburnt products of combustion as they exit the building

(Never spray into a compartment with crews working inside unless OICi instructs

202
Q

At fires involving compartments, what should the OICs on arrival tactics be?

A

360 survey to gather info on life risk, fire extent, smoke behaviour, entry and exit points and ventilation outlets

(Follow DMM)
MDT?
AFA panels?
Premises info box?
Occupiers?
Building signage
203
Q

Main hose lines greater than 3 lengths of 45mm hose should consist of what?

A

70mm from the pump to reduce frictional loss

204
Q

What needs to be in place before external ventilation can commence?

A

Covering jet

205
Q

What is the most important aspect of initial compartment fire fighting?

A

Identify and extinguish the seat of the fire

Use TIC to locate

206
Q

What is the correct entry procedure for entering a fire compartment?

A

Pulse spray ceiling outside compartment prior to entry and check door.
Crack door and pulse spray into ceiling area whilst making an initial assessment of the situation then shut again
Continues until safe to enter

207
Q

What effect will applying water to the fire and hot gases have in a compartment fire?

A

Produce steam which will:

Lower neutral plane
Increase temperature

208
Q

What actions should be taken if when attempting entry to a compartment fire a door is seen or heard to be breathing air in and out of small openings?

A

Inform OIC and BA teams

Consider external fire fighting and tactical external ventilation if possible

209
Q

What pressure is gas distributed across the U.K.?

A

National transmission system (NTS) 85 bar

Local distribution zone (LDZ) 25 bar

Distribution sites = 1 bar

210
Q

What is the stenching agent in household gas? And where is it added?

A

Ethyl Mercaptan

Added at distribution sites 1 bar area

211
Q

Who is legally responsible for dealing with natural gas leaks and carbon monoxide leaks?

A

Gas authority (GA)

Gas safety (management regulations) 1996 HSE paragragh 40

212
Q

How long can it take to turn off the Gas high pressure system?

A

Up to 1 hour

Staged down to prevent system shock and rupture

213
Q

What is the explosive range of ethyl mercaptan vapour?

A

2.8% to 18.2%

Colourless to yellow liquid naturally.

Environmentally harmful

214
Q

How dense is CO?

A

Very slightly lighter than air or same

215
Q

How is “wind” direction quoted?

A

Always as where the wind is coming from.

Use “from” as wind is coming from the ……….

216
Q

What is the PDA for natural Gas leak?

A

1 pump

217
Q

On arrival at a domestic gas leak, how far should the appliance be from the suspected leak?

A

25 metres

Position crews greater than 45 degrees to the front and rear of the property

218
Q

If a domestic Fas leak is confirmed by the IC who should be requested?

A

GA via control

219
Q

What size hazard zone should be implemented for a high pressure natural gas line rupture?

A

200 metres

220
Q

What size cordon should be implemented for a “congested” conditions gas leak from NTS or LDZ?

A

600 metres

221
Q

What size cordon and what actions should be taken at a “uncontrolled” gas leak from a massed storage site?

A

1000 metres

Request HMEPO and await their advice

Consider “major incident procedure”

222
Q

Does the fire service have “powers of entry” at gas leak incidents to secure a gas supply?

A

No

Crews should not make entry on behalf of the GA unless exceptional public safety issue apparent

223
Q

A CO detector actuating is what type of incident?

A

Level 1 hazmat

GA should be requested

224
Q

When sending messages about gas or electrical apparatus what terms should “NOT” be used?

A

“Fittings”- Gas

“Service”-electricity

225
Q

When gas apparatus is involved in a fire, what information do control need?

A

Whether inside or outside the property

Size of the fire

Any injuries

226
Q

What are the 2 types of explosive materials?

A

Detonating (exceeds speed of sound)

Deflagrating (below speed of sound)

227
Q

explosive devices can propel fragments at what velocity?

A

3 X speed of sound

228
Q

What is overpressure?

A

Explosive wave strong enough to kill

229
Q

What is the Yankee hazard symbol?

A

Red triangle with a black exclamation mark

230
Q

Where explosives are confirmed involved, how should control be notified?

A

“Priority request to talk”

“Explosives confirmed involved”

231
Q

What is the maximum weight of fireworks a domestic shop can legally hold?

A

250kg

Stored in an ISO container

232
Q

Gun enthusiasts who hold an “acquire and keep certificate@ can hold how much black powder?

A

20kg in metal boxes

233
Q

What are the new hazard zones for explosives?

A

<250kg= 200m

251-2000kg= 600m

> 2000kg=1000m

R.E.M. 261
Either side of 251-2000

234
Q

Within what distance must radios not be used near explosives?

A

Within 60 metres

Military or malicious = 600 metres until specialist advice confirms otherwise

235
Q

What hazard class do fireworks fall into?

A

Hazard division 1.4

no significant hazard

236
Q

What hazards exist at unfinished timber frame buildings on fire?

A 
Rapid and unexpected fire growth 
Rapid collapse 
High radiated heat
Large quantities of smoke and embers
Lack of fire fighting facilities 
Poor access and egress
Heat exhaustion
237
Q

If water supplies are deemed inadequate at incidents, what should the OIC request?

A

HLU or HVP

238
Q

At fires involving large timber framed buildings what should the OIC consider on arrival?

A 
Make ups?
Persons?
Wind direction
Responsible person 
Park away from radiating heat
Cordons
Covering jets for surrounding risks / vehicles
Water supplies
RVP and access / egress routes
Onsite trenches???
Ground monitors
239
Q

Can Firefighters access scaffolding?

A

Only to carry out rescues where there is an immediate life risk

240
Q

What is the forward information board used for?

A

Gathering and recording key information remote from the CU

Sector command point
Bridgehead
Forward command point

(IC discretion)At any incident that requires information retrieval e.g. Supplement the ICW

241
Q

Who can fill out the FIB?

A

Any member of operational staff

242
Q

Who remains responsible for the FIB?

A

The same individual who completed it and remains so until the incident resolution or relieved

(FIB is evidence)

243
Q

What does the FIB consist of and where is it stowed?

A

1 X board
2x laminated templates

Stowed behind ECB in crew cab on ALL pump ladders

(CU’s carry spare laminated templates)

244
Q

The 4 templates on the FIB are?

A

Casualty info

High rise incident record

Incident info
Plan of incident

(CHIP)

245
Q

Where templates of the FIB are used for PRO or PRC, what should happen to the board?

A

Photographed and NOT impounded

246
Q

The MANDATORY entering of the Time the FIB was first used is taken from where?

A

Entry control board

247
Q

How many prompts are on the casualty information template?

A

15 (used for FSG)

Found on CU

16 if filling out completed by?

248
Q

The high rise incident record on the FIB can record information for how many floors and flats?

A

Portrait mode 20 floors
9 flats per floor

Landscape = 6 floors 20 flats/ units per floor

(Right hand area for recording which floors are in which sector. lobby/ fire, search)

249
Q

On the FIB what does S F and C stand for?

A

Searching
Fatality
Confirmed clear

250
Q

What does CIR stand for?

A

Clutter image rating scale

251
Q

What is the aim of the hoarding strategy?

A

Reduce fire risks

252
Q

What does CIR stand for?

A

Clutter image rating scale

253
Q

What is the aim of the hoarding strategy?

A

Reduce fire risks

254
Q

What is the definition of hoarding?

A

Persistent difficulty discarding or parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value

255
Q

3 traits of hoarding are?

A

failure to discard, large number of possessions that appear to be of no or limited value

Living spaces sufficiently cluttered so rooms can’t be used as intended

Causes significant distress or impairment in an individual’s ability to function

256
Q

Where should instances of hoarding be recorded?

A

ORD

At a fire, carry out HFSV at the time,arrange for a family member to be present, record on the IMS

257
Q

Hoarding at or above level 5 should be risk assessed how?

A

Risk grading matrix in the ORD

258
Q

Where on the IMS is hoarding recorded?

A

In the “damage” section

Select “excessive and dangerous storage”

259
Q

What is the definition of hoarding?

A

Persistent difficulty discarding or parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value

260
Q

3 traits of hoarding are?

A

failure to discard, large number of possessions that appear to be of no or limited value

Living spaces sufficiently cluttered so rooms can’t be used as intended

Causes significant distress or impairment in an individual’s ability to function

261
Q

Where should instances of hoarding be recorded?

A

ORD

At a fire, carry out HFSV at the time,arrange for a family member to be present, record on the IMS

262
Q

Hoarding at or above level 5 should be risk assessed how?

A

Risk grading matrix in the ORD

263
Q

Where on the IMS is hoarding recorded?

A

In the “damage” section

Select “excessive and dangerous storage”

264
Q

With regards to hoarding, when does the SM get informed?

A

Following a HFSV assessed at level 5-9

(SOR) serious outstanding risk

265
Q

What hazards exist with incidents involving solar panels?

A 
Electricity 
Working at height
Structural roof collapse 
Failure of fittings causing panels to fall from roof
Hazardous materials 
Sharps
Steam/ hot pressurised water
Confined spaces
266
Q

En route to incidents involving solar panels, what should be considered?

A

Full firefighting PPE

MDT / ORD info

Brief crews

Electrical gloves

267
Q

On attendance at a multiple solar panel incident, what should be on on arrival tactics?

A

Main entrance/ RVP
Responsible person
Site plans

Must locate inverter

Find out voltage and amps produced

Request “authorised person”

Ensure crews find current inverter isolator or power will still be live even if main fuse pulled
Defensive Firefighting until power isolated by AP
Request HMEPO if hazmats involved

268
Q

What is the main danger of solar panels?

A

They always produce current and remain live until completely covered and blacked out

269
Q

Rows of PV solar panels are know as what?

A

Strings

Rows of strings = array

270
Q

What current can PV cells produce?

A

In excess of 1000v DC

To an inverter where converted to 240v AC

271
Q

What happens to excess voltage from solar panels?

A

Stored in batteries or fed back into the national grid

272
Q

What current will be produced by a single 250 watt solar panel?

A

30 volts (8 amps)

273
Q

With regards to solar hot water heaters, at what temperature will the boiler activate?

A

If temp falls below 55 degrees C

274
Q

What hazardous chemicals can be found in a PV solar panel fire?

A

Cadmium telluride

Gallium arsenide

Phosphorus

Battery acid

All toxic/ carcinogenic

(Request HMEPO)

275
Q

Is it ok to wear electrical gloves and BA together?

A

No

Not in fire situations

276
Q

At MTFA incidents, what is JAR?

A

Joint assessment of risk

NILO’s job

277
Q

Until an MTFA incident is declared completely clear of active Terrorists, how far should crews be away from the hot zone?

A

1 km away (1000 metres)

278
Q

Upon withdrawing 1000 metres away to a cold zone location at a Terrorist event, what should the OIC carry out?

A

Safety check from inside the vehicle

Systematic check of area around vehicle

Continual check around vehicle

(Devices/ suspicious objects/ anything odd)

279
Q

What is an FCP?

A

Forward command post

280
Q

Whot is an OFC and TFC?

A

Operational firearms commander

Tactical firearms commander

Both police

281
Q

What is an AIO?

A

Ambulance incident officer

282
Q

What is a SHA?

A

Strategic holding area

283
Q

What is self ventilation?

A

Failure of compartment doors/ windows from fire

284
Q

What is consequential ventilation?

A

Deliberately or accidentally venting a compartment due to fire fighting and or rescue operations

285
Q

What is tactical ventilation?

A

IC’s planned ventilation to reduce spread of fire/ products of combustion

Improve conditions

Dilute/ remove products of combustion

Assist evacuation conditions

286
Q

What is natural ventilation?

A

Venting by air vents

Non mechanical means

287
Q

What is negative pressure ventilation?

A

Cone spray directed out of a compartment opening

(Entrains air / products of combustion to leave) drawn in to the flow of water

288
Q

With regards to ventilation, what does L.F.B stand for?

A

Life risk= all in and outside

Fire = location and vent status

Building = access points / construction/ contents and fixed installations

289
Q

With regards to the attendance policy, what is the OICs responsibilities?

A

Record sickness

Manage / monitor attendance

Employees awareness of what is expected of them

OHS referrals

Confidentiality

290
Q

What is the difference between short term and long term sickness?

A

Short= less than 28 days

Long = 28 days +

291
Q

What support mechanisms are available for staff during absence?

A

Line manager

HR
TU
OHS inc physio
GP
Counselling and wellbeing 
FF charity
292
Q

What measures can prove helpful to manage absence?

A 
Flexible working
Modified duties/ temp alternative
Phased return to work
Redeployment temp/ perm
Change in work location
293
Q

For what period of sickness must a self cert be carried out?

A

4-7 days

294
Q

What should be submitted for periods of sickness beyond 8 consecutive calendar days ?

A

“Statement of fitness for work” note from a GP or

hospital certificate

Both submitted ASAP

295
Q

What is the only reason the brigade will accept a back dated fit note?

A

Where an GP appointment attempt has been made 7 days before the fit note expiry but an appointment is not available

296
Q

What is the maximum length of time on a sickness certificate the brigade will accept?

A

3 months

297
Q

If sickness whilst abroad extends into 8 days, what should be provided to their line Manager?

A

Medical statement confirming they are unfit to travel to the UK

Continue for every 7 days for sick pay purposes

298
Q

How long must an employee be on duty before an incomplete duty can be entered on STARS ?

A

1 hour

299
Q

When must statutory leave claimed. Ack due to sickness be taken?

A

MUST be taken 15 months from the end of the leave year it was accrued

(28 days statutory leave)

300
Q

What are the absence triggers for when attendance support meetings are organised?

A

3 separate instances or 6 working days in any 6 month period

5 separate instances or 8 working days in a 12 month period

301
Q

When an employee returns to work, what should a CM or OIC do?

A

Carry out a return to work meeting and record it on STARS

Do at start of shift

302
Q

What is the purpose of a “attendance support meeting”?

A

Manage long term sickness and frequent short term sickness issues

(Written notification of the meeting MUST be provided to the employee and their right to be accompanied )

303
Q

How far apart should attendance support meetings take place for long term sickness?

A

After 28 days then 1 per month or max within 3 months

304
Q

At suspected CBRN incidents where should the appliance be?

A

Upwind

Up hill (into the wind)

305
Q

What is the initial cordon for a suspected CBRN incident?

A

Minimum 25 metres from affected people

Variable depending on circumstances and wether casualties move towards you

306
Q

What are the signs to look out for at a suspected CBRN incident?

A 
Dead or distressed people
Birds or animals
Multiple skin eye airway problems
Withered plants / vegetation 
Mist clouds
Hazmats
Strange Odours / tastes
307
Q

Upon arrival at a CBRN incident, what information will you need to gather for control?

A

Number of people needing decontamination

Suitable RVP for decontamination

Wind speed / direction

Radiation check

Cordon

308
Q

On initial attendance to a CBRN incident, what should the OIC consider?

A

Secondary devices

Perpetrators

Cordon

Containment of people

RVP and RVP exit

309
Q

What does methane stand for?

A 
Major incident?
Exact location 
Type of incident 
Hazards 
Access and egress 
Number of casualties 
Emergency services required
310
Q

What does JESIP stand for?

A

Joint emergency service interoperability principles

Programme???

311
Q

What are the safety triggers at CBRN incidents?

A

Step 1. 1 person approach using standard protocols

Step 2. 2 people approach with caution

Step 3. 3 or more people in close proximity use caution and follow step plus

312
Q

What is the primary responsibility for LFB at CBRN incidents?

A

Save life and carry out rescues

313
Q

When should wet decontamination be the preferred method over dry decontamination?

A

When suspected caustic substances used like Acids and Alkalis

Devon for 45-90 seconds using a sponge

314
Q

What is interim wet decontamination?

Emergency decontamination

A

2 appliances with 2 ladders and hose reels x 4

Contain run off where possible

315
Q

When should wet decontamination be the preferred method over dry decontamination?

A

When suspected caustic substances used like Acids and Alkalis

Devon for 45-90 seconds using a sponge

316
Q

What is interim wet decontamination?

Emergency decontamination

A

2 appliances with 2 ladders and hose reels x 4

Contain run off where possible

317
Q

At a FSG call, who will control contact on the fireground?

A

The ICP appliance radio

Initial command pump

318
Q

At high rise incidents, why should the OIC consider leaving a crew member on the ICP?

A

To monitor for FSG calls

319
Q

For FSG calls to the ICP, where should important details be written down?

A

Control information form carried on all front line

320
Q

What does the CU carry to record information at FSG’s

A

Casualty information poster

Casinpo

321
Q

What is the minimum rank of A FSG co-ordinator?

A

SM

Records collates retains information regarding FSGs

322
Q

If there are a large number of FSG calls, what channel can control open up to dedicate to FSG’s

A

FLON OPS 01

323
Q

At FSGs who has the power to alter controls advice?

A

The IC can override if they believe the advice is not best

This is contrary to national control policy So IC must liaise with OOW first

324
Q

Definition of a Hazmat?

A

Any item or agents with the potential to cause harm to:

Humans

Animals

Environment

325
Q

LFB responsibility at Hazmats?

A

Control any spillage or release to mitigate harm

326
Q

Hazards from chemicals are?

A 
Flammable
Asphyxiation 
Corrosive 
Toxic
Explosive
Oxidising 
Radioactive 
Biological

FACTEORB+
Cryogenic exothermic

327
Q

What does COMAH stand for?

A

Control of major accident hazards

328
Q

Minimum cordon for Hazmat?

A

25 metres

Type dependant bigger or smaller

329
Q

On arrival at a potential hazmat incident, OIC should gather information from what sources?

A 
Step 123+
ORD
CHemdata
Signage 
Onsite specialist advice 
EA
R.E.M. Wind direction and upwind uphill

Use DMM and DRA

330
Q

What is a level 1 hazmat PDA?

A

1 X pump CM
(Under 100 litres)
Small spills, fuel, engine oil, no bigger than LGV fuel tank

1 X pump WM
C0 and natural gas detector actuating mercury spill

331
Q

What is a level 2 Hazmat PDA?

A

Full hazmat attendance
2 X pumps

1 X FRU
(for decontamination)

1 X HMEPO
1 x MO (SM)
1 X CU

332
Q

What is a level 3 hazmat incident?

A

Full wet firefighter (code 1) decontamination

dry safe undress procedure (code 3)

Request level 3 by priority request to talk “confirmed level 3 incident “

333
Q

What is a level 4 hazmat incident?

A

Incidents requiring special mobilising criteria

334
Q

Who confirms a hazmat incident?

A

IC

not DIM team turning up

335
Q

Can RRT use the SSU at incidents?

A

Yes if approved by HMEPO

336
Q

If crews have been committed at a hazmat incident and specialist advice is still being sought for decontamination, what should they do?

A

Remain “under air” if possible until specialist advice can be sought for decontamination

(code 3 decontamination if can’t wait)

337
Q

Is IRU attendance despatched to level 3 hazmats for mass decontamination?

A

No

Only on request from OIC

338
Q

What is a hazmat level 3 PDA?

A

Level 2+

1  X PL (WM)
1 X Pump
1 X FRU (DIM suppprt)
SSU
SM
GM (mo)
339
Q

What are the 3 decontamination codes?

A

1= shower contain run off

  1. Bucket brush boots gloves (default)
  2. Dry safe
340
Q

What are the 4 EAC extinguishing media?

A

1 course spray
2 fine spray
3 foam
4 dry agent (NO Water)

341
Q

What does E stand for in the EAC?

A

Public safety hazard

(Stay indoors all windows shut) may evacuate

342
Q

What does the “V” stand for in the EAC?

A

Violently or explosively reactive

343
Q

On the EAC, between what letters does contain and dilute divide?

A

Between T and W

W contain including W

344
Q

What 4 letters on the EAC indicate LTS?

A

PRWX

345
Q

How should mercury be dealt with?

A

Brushed up

Double bagged

Left with occupier for disposal

(NEVER Hoover up)

346
Q

What is the cordon for a radiation incident?

A

Initial 25 metres but will be altered to where background readings are

347
Q

On the MDT, how is a priority request to talk sent?

A

Press and hold 9

348
Q

What is considered the fire sector?

A

Fire floor/s + 1 above and 1 below

349
Q

Over what height building must a DRM be fitted?

A

Over 18 metres (10 bar loaded by twin 70 hose)

(FF provisions 18
Water suppression 30
Wet riser 50

350
Q

What actions should ECO and IC take if telemetry signal is lost?

A

ECO tells IC

IC considers telemetry repeaters

CU + FRU carry them

351
Q

What does the telemetry repeater kit consist of?

A

2 repeaters

Number 1 gets laid first

Use line of sight principle, keep at shoulder height

352
Q

Where can hazards from vehicles be identified?

A

MDT

CRASH information system

353
Q

If hazardous materials are suspected at a vehicle incident, what should the OIC do?

A

Request HMEPO

354
Q

What status is an appliance on standby at a station?

A

Status 25

355
Q

Appliances on route to a standby are what status?

A

Status 15

356
Q

Do senior officers need to contact control to update their location/ availability whilst on duty?

A

Yes

But that will change when geographic mobilising goes live

357
Q

What is status 35?

A

Standby at other location

358
Q

On the DMM, what panel follows the “Plan”?

A

Communicating

Controlling

359
Q

What are the 2 panels at the top of the DMM which split it in to two halves?

A

Acting (left)

Deciding (right)

360
Q

How much notice do control need to organise reliefs of crews and officers?

A

90 mins

361
Q

When should an OIC aim to have reliefs in place?

A

1 hour before the end of a shift

362
Q

What is an emergency relief?

A

Blue light relief for operational urgent risk

363
Q

What is the joint decision model from JESIP used for?

A

Formulating a plan at major multi agency incidents (senior officers)

364
Q

What are the 5 joint principles for joint working?

A

Co locate

Communicate

Co-ordinate

Jointly understand risk

Shared situational awareness

365
Q

At line operations for other agencies, whose equipment should be used?

A

LFB as we are responsible for safety of all agencies in the inner cordon

(Unless formal agreement otherwise)
HART have this

366
Q

At multi agency “working at height” incidents, who should be requested by LFB to advise other agencies?

A

TAR

ILO

367
Q

Should LFB crews ever attempt a snatch rescue of a suspected criminal or restrain someone stuck at height?

A

No (MPS responsibility but if casualty requests help or is unconscious we can)

368
Q

When private ambulances are at LFB incidents, the IC should obtain what from them?

A

4 4 figure Ambulance CAD number

Confirms they are working on behalf of LAS

369
Q

What colour is the surcoat for:
All sector commanders
FSG coordinators
Fire Bronze

A

Yellow bottom

Red shoulders

370
Q

What colour is the surcoat for:
All sector commanders
FSG coordinators
Fire Bronze

A

Yellow bottom

Red shoulders

371
Q

What colour are the new surcoats for:

ECO
ECO supervisor
Comms operative
BA sector?

A

Yellow bottom

Black and yellow chequered shoulders

372
Q

What colour is the Surcoats of:
Incident commander
Monitoring officer
Fire Silver?

A

Yellow bottom

Silver shoulders

373
Q

What colour surcoat should the operations commander wear?

A

Red bottom

Red shoulders

374
Q

What colour are the surcoats of:

Safety officer

Senior Safety officer?

A

Yellow bottom

Blue shoulders

375
Q

What colour is the observer surcoat?

A

Yellow bottom

Dark grey shoulders

376
Q

Where should fireground personnel record FSG information from control?

A

Control information form in cab

377
Q

In what order is vertical sectorisation applied to a high rise building if the fire is above ground level?

A

From ground=

Lobby sector

Fire sector

Search sector

378
Q

In what order is vertical sectorisation applied to a basement or “floors below ground” ?

A

From ground going down=

Lobby sector

Search sector

Fire sector

379
Q

What is the minimum fire rating time a fire lift must be?

A

2 hours

380
Q

What is the minimum amount of people a fire lift must hold?

A

8 persons

381
Q

Where does the lobby sector start and finish on a high rise incident?

A

Lobby sector is ground floor to the bridgehead for a high rise

382
Q

What examples are there of functional sectors?

A 
Command support 
Marshalling
Logistics
Safety
Communication 
Water
Foam
Decontamination 
BA Main control 
Welfare
383
Q

What is a dynamic risk assessment?

A

The continuous process of identifying hazards, assessing risk, taking action to eliminate or reduce risk, monitoring and reviewing in rapidly changing circumstances of an incident

384
Q

When different tactical modes are in use at the same incident, is there an overall tactical mode?

A

No

Messages should detail each sector

385
Q

What is the general rule for sectorising an incident?

A

Main entrance sector 1
Rear sector 3

Lay a clock over it, if there is only a front and rear then sectors 1 and 3 apply ( no 2 and 4)

386
Q

What is the CM’s responsibility to FF’s with regards to H & S?

A

Responsible for ensuring FFs are aware of health and safety

Assessing risks to H & S of FFs

Provide safe conditions, procedures and SSW and equipment
Completely trained, competent and records kept

Ensure competent Supervision

387
Q

If 2 AFA detector heads are actuating, what should the OIC do?

A

Request full attendance

388
Q

If an AFA slave panel is the first you come across, what should you do?

A

Take note of information and find the Main panel

389
Q

What roles wear surcoat with orange bottom and chequered red/ whit shoulders?

A 
RRT 
HMEPO 
TRA
UA
ILO / ILO support 
FI
SA
FSO
SAI
BMA
ORT
Petroleum officer
CBRN tac ad
RPELO
PLO
390
Q

Who carries the MD4?

A

OSU

RRT

391
Q

For what period of time / days must a self cert for sickness be carried out?

A

4-7 days

392
Q

When is an ‘A’ test carried out?

A

When taking over a set

Following a cylinder change

When testing ‘spare’ set

393
Q

When is an ‘A’ test carried out?

A

When taking over a set

Following a cylinder change

When testing ‘spare’ set

394
Q

What do trackside telephones look like?

A

Red telephone on a white background marked with the word “Electrification”

Ring for 4 seconds min

395
Q

What is the minimum rank to lead a BA emergency team?

A

Crew manager

must have comms

396
Q

What is a RPELO?

A

Respiratory protective equipment logistics officer

from PEG

397
Q

What type of FRU technical does line?

A

Technical skills

Technical rescue

398
Q

What type of FRU technical does USAR, Line, water?

A

Technical rescue

399
Q

What type of FRU technical does water rescue?

A

Technical Hazmat

Technical rescue

400
Q

What is the minimum crew for the emergency rescue boat?

A

2 X SRT including 1 trained in powerboat handling (2 min)

Max 7

401
Q

What 3 actions short of entering the water should we use at a level 1 water incident?

A

Call

Reach

Throw

402
Q

What is the PDA for a level 1 water incident?

A

3 X pumps

1 X SM

403
Q

How can some degree of steering be achieved when entering water with a PFD on and in the defensive swimming position?

A

Lay on back, with body 45 degrees across the current with your head pointing towards the direction you wish to travel

Use arms as paddles and face the direction you are traveling

404
Q

For ICs, what is the limited number of spans of control that can be placed upon them?

A

5 lines of communication

Big incidents ideally 2-3

Stable incidents 6-7

405
Q

When should an operations commander (in charge of sectors) be introduced?

A

Beyond 4 sectors IC must consider introducing an Operations Commander

406
Q

Who gives the instruction to sectorise an incident?

A

IC only

407
Q

For small incidents where access is restricted to the rear like a mid terrace, is there a need for sectorisation?

A

No
Another OIC can be delegated to run the scene of operations at the rear in liaison with the IC at the front of the building, ( any larger then full sectorisation must happen with sector commanders)

408
Q

A lobby sector would start and finish where?

A

Start at ground floor lobby and finish at the bridgehead

409
Q

Where is a bridgehead located at a high rise fire?

A

2 “FLOORS “ below the fire floor

Floors not windows

410
Q

When should a lobby sector be introduced at a high rise fire?

A

If the bridgehead is more than 2-3 floors from ground floor lobby and spans of control require it. (5+ on IC)

411
Q

When should the IC consider stepping back and appointing sectors / sector commanders?

A

When supervising beyond 4-5 crews with 5 busy lines of communication

412
Q

When should the IC consider appointing an operations commander?

A

When sectors increase beyond 4-5

413
Q

How long is a floating safety line? used to hook onto a FFs PFD “O”-ring whilst entering water for a rescue?

A

50m

must not be extended

414
Q

If FFs enter water and need to keep their helmets on for overhead hazards, what adaptions should be made?

A

Chin strap left undone

415
Q

How long is a floating throw line?

A

25m

(F.T.L) backwards = length twenty five

416
Q

Firefighting shafts are required in buildings over what height and under what basement depth?

A

Over 18m above fire rescue vehicles

Basements more than 10m deep

417
Q

In buildings intended for shops, factories and storage, over what height and floor area will a Firefighting shaft be provided?

A

A storey above 7.5m with a floor area greater than 900m2 (30m X 30m)

418
Q

In buildings with 2 or more basement storeys greater than 900m2 will have what provided?

A

At least one Firefighting shaft

419
Q

What combined features will be known as a Firefighting Shaft?

A

Firefighting lifts
Firefighting mains
Firefighting stairs
Firefighting lobbies

420
Q

Operation of a fire lift control switch will cause what to happen?

A

Lift car returns to access level
Landing call points inoperable
Lift car buttons will work inside once it has reached access level

421
Q

The primary purpose of the ORD is?

A

Record significant hazards and risks

422
Q

The primary purpose of the ORD is?

A

Record significant hazards and risks

423
Q

What does the sign for a signal post telephone look like?

A

Black and white diagonal stripes

424
Q

Where can the keys for tunnel intervention points be found in railway tunnels?

A

LFB plans boxes

425
Q

What does “IP” on a door mean? In. Lack on a white background?

A

Intervention point

Escape route and access route

426
Q

What is used to open LFB plans boxes?

A

FB 14

427
Q

What voltages exist at network railways?

A

Third rail= up to 1200v DC

OLE up to 25000v AC

Fourth rail up to 750v DC

428
Q

What actions can network rail take upon trains when LFB personnel are working on or near the track?

A

Order to run under caution

Stop by signal activation

Stop by switching off power
(no effect on diesel trains)

429
Q

If at a rail incident before arrival of resources and action needs to take place, who should be informed?

A

Rail track control via LFB control of intended action and location

430
Q

What methods can be used to inform rail track control of your location at a rail incident?

A

Signal, bridge or OLE number plate

1/4 mile post at trackside

Electrical substation name plate

Nearby station

Level crossing

431
Q

If at a rail incident before arrival of resources and action needs to take place, who should be informed?

A

Rail track control via LFB control of intended action and location

432
Q

What methods can be used to inform rail track control of your location at a rail incident?

A

Signal, bridge or OLE number plate

1/4 mile post at trackside

Electrical substation name plate

Nearby station

Level crossing

433
Q

How is the emergency evacuation signal implemented?

A

Repeated short blasts on the acme thunderer whistle

434
Q

What are the 3 types of cordon?

A

Inner (yellow tape)

Outer (white tape)

Traffic cordon ( set up by police at or beyond outer cordon to prevent unauthorised vehicle access)

435
Q

When sending messages across borders, what call signs should be used?

A

The brigade and appliance type

London fire brigade, Northolt pump ladder

JG Q n A (6 decks)

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