Policies And Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Who is unit officer?

A

Highest ranking ices certified person assigned to fire rescue unit

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2
Q

NFIRS

A

National fires incident reporting system

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3
Q

Short forms are to be kept in secure place until entered into epcr, and then sent to ___ in sealed envelope

A

Records custodian

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4
Q

Hard copies of incident reports or NFIRS forms should be ____ after completing incident and unit reports

A

Shredded and destroyed

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5
Q

Requests for ems reports must be transmitted in writing to _____

A

MCFRS records custodian

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6
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring a unit completes their unit report?

A

Station Officer

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7
Q

Who is the official custodian of records?

A

Fire chief

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8
Q

At what time must station officer query RMS to ensure reports are complete?

A

1900

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9
Q

Reports must be completed by —-

A

End of shift

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10
Q

Ems reports must be posted before

A

Unit leaves hospital

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11
Q

In mass casualty situations, an epcr report must be completed for each ptient no greater than ____ after the incident. Unless authorized in writing by incident commander

A

24 hours

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12
Q

Under extenuating circumstances the battalion or lfrd chief may grant an extension to complete unit and incident reports no greater than ___

A

7 days

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13
Q

Q when transferring ot to hospital and using short forms you must

A

-leave short form at hospital
- complete epcr within 7 days
- send short form with signatures to records custodian at PSHQ

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14
Q

Is employee eligible for disability leave for injury obtained while volunteering in county?

A

No

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15
Q

Employees can not volunteer where they work

A

True

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16
Q

Can employees participate in LOSAP?

A

Yes

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17
Q

Can an employee volunteer on a specialty team in county?

A

No

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18
Q

If employee is receiving workers comp for injury obtained while volunteering, they must be placed in ___ status

A

LWOP

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19
Q

Employees must complete ____ annually before volunteering

A

Application for volunteer service

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20
Q

Executive regulation

A

Approved by county council

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21
Q

Draft documents must be circulated to division chiefs for comments and returned to document control officer within ____ days

A

30 days

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22
Q

Signed fcgo’s are sent to___ commission for approval or fisdap rogal

A

fire and emergency services FESC

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23
Q

Critical injury/illness

A

Illness or injury that requires admission to hospital or extensive recoup time.

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24
Q

When not possible to notify family by one’s self ____ is to make the notification

A

Supervisory or Chief officer

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25
Q

Class A uniform

A

Cap, cap badge, dress blouse, long sleeve dress shirt, tie, dress pants, belt, black shoes, badge, collar insignia, pins, name plate, raincoat

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26
Q

Class b

A

Same as a WITHOUT DRESS BLOUSE AND DRESS HAT

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27
Q

Class c

A

Outermost garmet must have collar
1030-2100

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28
Q

Class d

A

Business attire

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29
Q

Class E

A

PT
can be worn to FROMS ipe, work details, hose testing as approved by battalion chief

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30
Q

Mock turtleneck

A

Short neck, can’t be worn as outer garmet unless class E uniform

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31
Q

Cap

A

Not be worn when conducting inspections, meeting public during non emergency situations or while in any building other than fire rescue station

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32
Q

Lost stolen or damaged property up to ____ must have a police report filed?

A

100$

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33
Q

Property request forms must be approved by supervisor (not used during standard allotment)

A

True

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34
Q

No two patches on one sleeve except the ___ on the ___ sleeve

A

Honor guard, left sleeve

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35
Q

Award pin placement

A

Above nameplate

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36
Q

Mark uniform with ____ not visible on outside of uniform

A

Fire department id number

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37
Q

You may return newly issued items within ____ days

A

30 days

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38
Q

Those who seperate from the department have ____ days to turn in all issued uniform after seperation date.

A

7

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39
Q

Picking up allotment for another employee.

A

Same station, sign receipt form, give to other employee and have them sign receipt form and inter office mail it back.

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40
Q

Station Officer

A

Senior officer

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41
Q

Station officers must schedule ___ activity periods per shift. What are they. How long?

A
  1. App checks, morning, afternoon, evening. 1-2 hours.

May include: PT, Drills, Fire prevention, Pub Ed, training, maintenance etc

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42
Q

When must lineup be conducted?

A

0700 or when significant personnel changes occur during the shift

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43
Q

Log book day

A

0001-2400

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44
Q

Accidental death

A

Due to trauma or injury that does not appear suspicious

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45
Q

Natural death

A

Appears to be from a Previously known Medical condition

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46
Q

SIDS age

A

Less than 1 year

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47
Q

Suspicious death

A

May have been from violence abuse neglect or foul play

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48
Q

Serious violation

A

Threat to public or personnel safety. Undermines public trust and confidence in fire rescue service

Example: negligent act, omission, theft, assault, battery

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49
Q

Unbecoming conduct

A

Improper behavior

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50
Q

Obey supervisor order UNLESS

A

Require you to commit illegal, reckless, unethical act

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51
Q

If supervisory issues order that conflicts with previously issued order….

A

Call attention to conflicting order. If conflicting order is not riscinded, it will stand.

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52
Q

Fire administrator must begin investigating serious violation within ____ of notification of violation

A

24 hours

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53
Q

If fire administrator is not please with result of serious violation by Dfrs or lfrd, they must notify in writing within ____ of notice of action take

A

30 days

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54
Q

And disposition determined unsatisfactory by fire administrator must be referred to ____. Who will ____

A

Internal affairs officer
Present finding of facts to fire administrator who will then take appropriate action

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55
Q

The subject of a serious Serious violation complaint must be promptly notified of the allegation UNLESS

A

Allegations of criminal conduct, sexual harassment, title 7 violations, or other conduct which investigation procedures are covered by another law, regulation or policy

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56
Q

During investigation where subject is notified, they may have a representative present during investigative review so long as representation would not ____

A

Unreasonably delay the proceeding.

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57
Q

Two types of MCFRS incidents

A

Basic
Complex

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58
Q

Basic incidents

A

-unit officer can manage all aspects of call from start to finish
-does not require more than 1 outside agency
-no threat of harm to large numbers of people
-No special operations components
-can be resolved in less than 1 hour
-span of control 5 units or less

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59
Q

Complex incident

A

Where any 1 of basic incident principles is not true

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60
Q

Incident priorities

A

Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation

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61
Q

All operations must be directed toward ____

A

Clearly defined and attainable objective

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62
Q

Risk

A

Relationship between hazards and harm

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63
Q

Unit officers are responsible for

A
  • knowing location and action of all crew members
  • developing and communicating action plan to unit
    -acting in support of incident objectives and team effort
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64
Q

No personnel may enter hazard area before

A

-intervention teams in place
-size up conducted
-risk assessments conducted
-objectives developed and communicated

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65
Q

Demands of operational environment

A

Moral, mental, physical

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66
Q

Three core operational values

A

Commitment to duty
Respect for others and organization
Integrity

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67
Q

Effective leadership

A

-Decisive
-Recognize duty to act
-Accountable
-Refuse unnecessary risk but not risk averse
-Engaged in continuous learning

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68
Q

Defense in depth (scaled response)

A

As risk or complexity increases, so to resources

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69
Q

First arriving unit officer sets tone for incident operations. Subsequent operations must focus on _____

A

Supporting initial decision makers

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70
Q

Initiative

A

Action in the absence of orders

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71
Q

Situational awareness

A

Ability to identify, process and comprehend critical elements of information about what is happening at the incident

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72
Q

Two incident strategies

A

Offensive
Defensive

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73
Q

Offensive

A

Actively attempting to correct problem
Example: directing hose stream into burning structure, plugging leak

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74
Q

Defensive

A

Contain problem
Example: putting hose stream on threatened exposure, build containment around leak

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75
Q

Must not rule out suvivability of Al compartments based on conditions in ___

A

Single compartment

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76
Q

Operational success is

A

Application of operational doctorine, policies, procedures, training and education to create solutions

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77
Q

Incident Management System is intended to promote _____

A

Communication, coordination, accountability, effective action

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78
Q

MCFRS uses a ____ and ____ Incident management system

A

Modular and Scalable

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79
Q

Incident command process begins with ____

A

Scene size up

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80
Q

Operations must be directed toward ____

A

Clearly defined and attainable objectives

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81
Q

Second CCO primary role is to

A

Enhance situational awareness and cognitive bandwidth of IC

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82
Q

6 basic incident management functions

A

Situational awareness
Accountability
Effective communication
Risk assessment
Established objectives
Intiating and monitoring action

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83
Q

When ems unit officer establishes command, first arriving primary unit officer must ____

A

Assume command

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84
Q

One primary unit officer can not assume command from ____

A

Another primary unit officer

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85
Q

If command is passed from one primary unit officer to another, The new primary unit must have _____ command

A

stationary

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86
Q

Command can be passed ____ from primary unit to primary unit

A

Once

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87
Q

Maintaining stationary command from ______ is an option of last resort

A

Officer seat of the fire aparatus

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88
Q

Branch directors are responsible for ____, ____, and ____ of all assigned resources

A

Command, control, accountability

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89
Q

Groups

A

Function

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90
Q

Divisions

A

Geographical area

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91
Q

First use must be provided ___ mins after dispatch, and intervals not greater than ____ mins

A

10 mins, 10 mins

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92
Q

Tactical staging

A

Take assigned position, lay lines, provide required size up reports, remain in aparatus

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93
Q

Remote staging

A

Without passing last water source stage 600 ft or 2 blocks away. (Whichever is greater). Without passing last available water source

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94
Q

Base staging

A

Report to specific location determined by the incident commander

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95
Q

Who will be staging area manager?

A

First primary unit to arrive in staging

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96
Q

Staging manager responsibilities

A

Account for resources assigned to staging, assign units as appropriate to command when requested

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97
Q

In absence of direction from command on where to stage, units will ____ until called upon command

A

Remote stage

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98
Q

In a multip story structure, which floors are considered the exposures?

A

Two above and 1 below

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99
Q

Par checks are to be conducted at intervals not greater than ____ mins

A

20 mins

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100
Q

Five objectives common to initial actions on structure fires

A

Provide continued survival of occupants who may be trapped

Ensure immediate care of those on fireground in need of medical care

Prevent fire from spreading from its current location

Control movement of smoke

Reduce property loss

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101
Q

The structure fire appendix is optimized for

A

Residential compartment fires

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102
Q

How many command officers are in the standard response plan for a structure fire?

A

4 (2 must respond)

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103
Q

Rural response

A

6 engines, 3 tankers

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104
Q

Unit assignments for structure fire SOP are based on ____ not ____

A

Order of dispatch not order of arrival

105
Q

3 types of occupant status

A

Accounted for
Not accounted for
Known to be trappped

106
Q

The backup line must be charged regardless of ___

A

The status of water supply

107
Q

When descending stairs during a basement fire, command must be notified and you must prepare to relocate if you experience

A

Flame, fire, or high heat along entry pathway not immediately suppressed by water flow

108
Q

Whenever an interior attack is utilized a ___ of the structure must occur

A

Search

109
Q

4 types of search

A

Primary- fire control ongoing

Secondary- after fire knocked preferably when you can see

Directed- credible information that somebody is trapped

High risk- directly above uncontrolled fire or below attic fire without protection of charged hose line

110
Q

You must notify command and be acknowledged before initiating ____ and ____ searches

A

Directed and high risk

111
Q

When must sprinklers be charged? (Should be charged immediately if they are part of the standpipe)

A

Visible smoke or fire

Water flow alarm

OIC directs them charged

112
Q

What 2 things must the first due engine driver notify command via radio?

A

When supply line is charged.

When fire protection systems are charged.

113
Q

On rural assignments what does the second due engine do?

A

Pump tank water to attack tanker

114
Q

If the 1st or 3rd due engine takes their own hydrant, what should the 2nd and 4th due engines be or spared to do?

A

Augment their water supply

115
Q

3rd due truck highrise box and designate ventilation stairwell

A

Pressurize all remaining stairwells
Develop ventilation plan

116
Q

First due tanker job after collocating

A

Connect supply line to intake, connect discharge to 1st engine, connect supply line from 2nd engine to intake

117
Q

2nd and 3rd tankers

A

Supply clappered Siamese with tank water

118
Q

All crew members operating inside a structure fire must carry a ___and a ___

A

Hand light and a radio

119
Q

First due truck must pressurize the ___

A

Attack stairwell

120
Q

When fire is above 9th floor, consider placing fans ___ floors below the fire and at the base of the stairs

A

2 floors below

121
Q

Who designates ventilation stairwell?

A

3rd due truck

122
Q

When can personnel not use an elevator?

A

Location of fire is unknown

123
Q

After completing lowest levels check, third due engine should move to ___

A

Floor above fire

124
Q

When it is determined a fire is wind driven, it is forbidden from doing what two things?

A

Opening door from apartment to corridor

Opening door from corridor to stairwell

125
Q

When corridor is clear, the door to the fire apartment should remain closed until…

A

Apartments immediately adjacent to the fire apartments are searched

Corridor is confirmed free of occupants

All doors to the hallway are confirmed closed

126
Q

If necessary, Who designates the fire attack stairwell?

A

1st due engine

127
Q

Ventilation stairwell is used to exhaust smoke from fire apartment out stairwell. It must be …..

A

Checked for occupants on all floors above the fire floor before ventilation begins

128
Q

Who designates the attack stairwell?

A

First due engine

129
Q

Elevators are not to be used if

A

Fire smoke or heat detected in the hoist way, shaft or elevator machine room

Hoist way smoke or heat detector indicator is activating

Fireman’s service is unavailable

Any incident ON OR BELOW the 5th floor

If in independant service mode

Non emergency service providers are on board

130
Q

Before entering elevator, personnel must

A

Check hoistway

Note location of nearest stairwell

Note location and operation of emergency stop switch

Wear full PPE wit facepiece on ready to clip in

Ensure sufficient room for all to clip in

131
Q

While using elevator, personnel must

A

Stop halfway to test fireman’s service, check orientation and recheck shaft

Connect facepiece if elevator fails to stop

132
Q

If hydraulic ventilation is not successful, the next option is to …

A

Use apartment on opposite side to exhaust smoke through

133
Q

Two categories of water supply

A

Urban rural

134
Q

What is the critical flow rate?

A

The amount of water in GPM to suppress a fire in 30 seconds

135
Q

Percentage of class a foam in initial suppression according to RIP F

A

0.25%

136
Q

Which engine operates as a “defense in depth” for water supply operations?

A

5th due engine

137
Q

The attack tanker operation (1st 2nd engine and 1st tanker) Carry’s between ____ and ____ gallons of water

A

4000 and 5000

138
Q

Attack tanker operations are limited to ____GPM fire flow

A

500 GPM

139
Q

In order to call “own hydrant” you must

A

Use preconnected soft sleeve

140
Q

When must first arriving engine officer consider laying dual lines?

A

If they believe the fire may require master streams

141
Q

Must the 3rd due engine lag dual lines if the first due does?

A

No

142
Q

Which system should be charged first? Standpipe or sprinkler?

A

Standpipe

143
Q

Who announces full site location?

A

First due engine

144
Q

Whenever practical, who should develop the dump site?

A

3rd engine and second tanker

145
Q

A relay may be attempted when there is a reliable water source at least ____ feet from the ____

A

3000 ft from the clappered Siamese

146
Q

When should laying dual lines be considered in a relay?

A

Lengthy of relay exceeds 2000 ft

Required fire flow exceeds 1000 gpm

147
Q

Cisterns less than ____ gallons can not be used as only fill site location

A

30,000 gallons

148
Q

Each full site should be able to fill tankers at a rate of at least ____ GPM

A

1000

149
Q

By ___ minute mark of aircraft emergency, crews should have located the scene of the emergency

A

20 min mark

150
Q

ACRE

A

Assess
Control
Rescue
Evacuate

151
Q

Initial emphasis in aircraft emergencies is on creating an _____

A

Evacuation corridor

152
Q

Potomac TRACON

A

Potomac terminal Radar Approach Control Facility

153
Q

Who is responsible for search operations within the county?

A

MCPD

154
Q

Afrcc

A

Air Force Rescue Coordination Center

155
Q

Initial entry crew aircraft emergency

A

First due engine first due special service
Isolate incident and establish rescue corridors

156
Q

Appriach fixed wing aircraft from ____ degree angle from the nose or wing tip and rotary aircraft from ____ degree angle from the nose

A

Fixed 45
Rotary 90

157
Q

ELT

A

emergency locator transmitter

158
Q

What must be announced on aircraft incident when immediate life hazard is present?

A

Declare radio silence

Announce prescence of hazard

Announce number of personnel entering Hazard zone and their objective

Announce when personnel are clear

159
Q

Who makes I total entry team and who is initial entry team leader for aircraft emergencies?

A

First engine first truck. First engine officer

160
Q

Radio procedure for closing an airfield

A

Request airport manager, Potomac tracon, and ECC to announce “the runway at _____ is unsafe”

The IC should transmit the message on aircraft aviation radio via UNICOM channel

Message should be transmitted at 5 min intervals

161
Q

What is the framework for thinking through initial moments of a mayday?

A

Pause, listen, look, light

162
Q

4 tiers of rapid intervention

A

2 out

Ric

Rig

Special teams

163
Q

2 out

A

Must be on scene and prepared to act before entry is made

One member of 2 out must maintain contact with initial entry team visually, verbally, or by radio as an ONLY FOCUS

2nd member must have gear on and scba immediately available

Second member may move hose outside of structure or place ladders

164
Q

Ric

A

At least 2 firefighters

Must be on scene and prepared to act before 2 out is relieved

Primary purpose is to BEGIN RAPID INTERVENTION SIZEUP

May NOT engage in activities such as laddering or removing egress hazards unless necessary to immediately save a life or prevent an emergency from occurring

165
Q

RIG

A

Rescue squad, aerial, als provider, second ems unit (if als provider is in chase car)

Once rig is compiled, may engage in proactive tasks as long as members are immediately available if needed

166
Q

Tier 2 and higher teams must be led by a minimum of a ____ but preferably a ____

A

FireIII, Officer

167
Q

Ems units from RID MUST remain available to render ems care to sick or injured persons

A

True

168
Q

Who must bring rit bags to command post?

A

Units dispatched after initial alarm that hve rit bags

169
Q

When may 2 out be forgone?

A

Known life hazard exists

170
Q

If initial officer decides to forego 2 out they must make radio announcement saying what

A

Identifying units involved, their mission, and location

171
Q

Once known life hazard has been resolved when 2 out is forgone, what must occur?

A

Units withdraw until 2 out is assembled

172
Q

When must 2 out duties not be assigned to ems units?

A

If people require medical care

173
Q

4 primary planning considerations for the RIG

A

Search
Protection
Building preparation
Extraction

174
Q

When a mayday is called, when will the RIG engage?

A

When ordered to by IC. Must not engage until ordered

175
Q

Initial search team of rig is composed of ___ personnel and their objectives are …..

A

3-4 personnel

Locate
Mark
Provide air
Prepare
Plan

176
Q

When mayday is declared ECC will notify command ____ mins into mayday. At this time mark, command should do what?

A

15 mins into mayday. Should rotate rapid intervention crews

177
Q

4 basic types of technical rescue

A

Rope, trench, confined space, structural collapse

178
Q

4 objectives common to all technical rescue incidents?

A

Assess
Control
Rescue
Evacuate

179
Q

General methods to reduce and mitigate risk for initial responding units during technical rescue

A

Establish IC

Identify and mark isolation zones

Develop and communicate incident objectives

Hazard ID and control

180
Q

Control zones for
Trench
Rope
Confined space
Structural collapse

A

Trench
Hot 100’ from trench
Warm 100-250’ from trench
Cold beyond 250’ from trench

Rope
Varies based on fall hazards, debris etc

Confined space
Varies based on fall hazards, debris etc

Structural collapse
Minimum of 250’
Structures 4 stories or greater 500’ in all directions

181
Q

When may first responder personnel enter a trench?

A

Protective systems are in place and there is no failure of these systems,

Atmosphere has been checked at multiple elevations and is clear,

Victems condition requires immediate extrication

182
Q

First responder personnel may execute ___ rescues which are less than ___ degrees

A

Low angle, 45 degrees

183
Q

Rappelling from any component of an aerial is prohibited

A

True

184
Q

Fall arresting systems must be in place for anyone operating within ____ ft if an exposed area with a fall risk of greater than ___ ft

A

Within 10 ft, greater than 6 ft

185
Q

Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining isolation zones?

A

Aerial

186
Q

Role of squad in TRT calls

A

Make access to victems and calm and reassure them

187
Q

Csx Mileposts preceded with letters _ _ for metropolitan subdivision

A

BA

188
Q

Diseal electric locomotives diseal tank ____ gallons. Weight of cars ____

A

5,000 gallons, weighs over 100 tons

189
Q

Left and right sides of car are determined by standing at ___ end and looking at ___ end. The ___ end has the handbrakes

A

B looking at A. B end has brakes

190
Q

Document that says what train is carrying. Carried by ____

A

Consist, or shipping papers. Carried by conductor

191
Q

Which commuter rail service accounts for number of passengers and crews aboard?

A

Amtrak

192
Q

All requests for train stoppage must be made through ___ which is based out of ___

A

CSX, Jacksonville FL

193
Q

After request to stop trains has been made, personnel should anticipate train movement for at least ___ mins

A

10 mins

194
Q

According to heavy rail policy, what area is considered the roadway

A

Any area between fences or within 20 ft from track bed

195
Q

No apparatus should be closer than ___ ft from the roadway at any time

A

30 ft

196
Q

Unless there is a known life hazard, personnel must remain ___ ft away from roadway until train traffic has been controlled and there are lookouts in both directions ___ miles from the incident

A

30 ft
2 miles

197
Q

When operating around a train, personnel should remain at least ____ ft from ends of train

A

20 ft

198
Q

When fire involves locomotives personnel should ___

A

Activate fuel cutoff switch
Not enter locomotive engine room without permission of IC with consult of railroad personnel
Not direct hose down exhaust stack

199
Q

Railroad lookouts must be equipped with ___ ___ min flares. Personnel should not be closer than ___ ft from trackbed

A

3, 30 min, 30 ft

200
Q

If train is spotted, spotters must wave flares ____ until ____

A

Horizontally accross body
Until engineer acknowledges with 2 short horn blasts

201
Q

If train fails to stop for lookout, activate EB and declare priority message of train not stopping

A
202
Q

Who is responsible for locating the train conductor and escorting him to IC?

A

2nd due engine

203
Q

Who is initial on scene lookout for heavy rail?

A

1st due aerial

204
Q

Who is responsible for securing upright cars with handbrake in case of derailment and for choking switches?

A

1st due aerial

205
Q

Rescue squad assignments on heavy rail

A

Begin process of rescue, assist with pt movements

206
Q

Units aside from ____ should stage and wait orders of IC during heavy rail incidents

A

First 2 Engines, first aerial, rescue squad

207
Q

3 types of swift water rescue

A

Swift water, flat water, ice

208
Q

Swift vs flat water

A

Swift water moves faster than average person comfortably walks. Flat moves slower than average person comfortably walks

209
Q

Three common occurances that form basis for water rescue IRP

A

Urban street flooding
Creek flooding
Flat water emergencies

210
Q

Non swrt personnel are not permitted to connect pfd to rope unless ___

A

They are operating on ice

211
Q

Incident has discretion to allow coats worn in warm zone (within 10 ft from waters edge) during

A

Ice rescue

212
Q

Shallow water crossings are less than ___ inches deep, and must be minimum of ___

A

18 inches, boat crew

213
Q

Only ___ may participate in ice rescue of animals

A

Swrt

214
Q

Rescue sequence

A

Yell
Reach
Throw
Row
Go

215
Q

Minimum PPE for water entry

A

Helmet, pfd, whistle, dry suit (if air water temp combo less than 120 degrees or water is contaminated)

216
Q

Keyless ignition key fobs should be placed at least ___ ft from the vehicle

A

15 ft

217
Q

A charged hosine of at least ____ diameter must be deployed during any extrication or when flammable liquids are present

A

1.5 inches

218
Q

a group of ___ or more firefighters is considered a crew

A

2 or more

219
Q

Downstream safety consists of teams of ____

A

Teams of 2 with water rescue ppe, radios, 2 throw bags each

220
Q

Core operational approach for MCFRS operating on structure fires is

A

Fast water coordinated ventilation

221
Q

According to definitions irp, what is the speed of flat water?

A

Less than 1 knot

222
Q

Floor of care. What interventions are secondary to floor of care?

A

Assessment of rhythm, shocking, cpr, ventilations.

Other interventions secondary to floor of care: iv lines, meds

223
Q

High rise definition

A

Structure 6 or more stories in height or 75 ft above to lowest fire sept vehicle access

224
Q

Define inner circle

A

Work area around vehicles 10-15 ft in all directions

225
Q

Definitions Keyless ignition- may be activists if key fob is within ___ ft of the vehicle

A

5 ft

226
Q

Definitions known life hazard

A

Can see or hear person in distress or recieved information from ECC or bystander than person is in idlh atmosphere

227
Q

Definitions Low angle rescue- rescuer and victem primarily supported by ___ not ___

A

Surface not tensioned rope system

228
Q

Definitions roadway (metro)

A

Whithin tunnel walls, tlbetween fences, between safety railings, on aerial structures, in track areas of metro yards

229
Q

Definitions roadway heavy rail

A

Area between fences or WITHIN 20 FT of track bed

230
Q

Definitions Shallow water crossing pole

A

Round hard wood pole 1-2 inches diameter. 6-8 ft long. highly visible painting for first 18 inches on both sides

231
Q

Spasm

A

S Stop
P Press
A Apply pads
S elect paddles
M metronome on

232
Q

Define Still water

A

Not moving at all

233
Q

Define Swift water

A

Moving greater than 1 knot. Takes less that 30 seconds to travel 50 ft

234
Q

Trenches in excess of ___ ft must have protective systems in place prior to entry

A

5ft

235
Q

Upstream spotters consist of teams of ____

A

2

236
Q

Pats should be conducted every ___ mins for units operating in idlh environments

A

20 min intervals

237
Q

If all are accounted for after a par the unit officer is to respond with ____

A

Even

238
Q

What is the next step after the hot wash?

A

The initial written AAR (after action review)

239
Q

What are the 4 levels of AARs

A

Hotwash
Written AAR
Enhanced AAR
Significant Incident Investigative Report

240
Q

How does enhanced AAR vary from initial written AAR?

A

Enhanced Includes all elements of Initial with additional media, site plans, additional details

241
Q

Who can order an enhanced AAR

A

Duty operations chief, operations division chief, fire chief

242
Q

Significant Incident Investigative Report

A

Comprehensive report produced by a panel appointed by the Fire Chief

243
Q

Cpr boss is to announce when there are ___ and ___ seconds prior to a rhythm check

A

30 and 15 seconds

244
Q

What is the standard staffing for all primary units

A

4 personnel

245
Q

To meet minimum staffing standards for engines trucks and rescue squads, personnel must be ___ years old and a minimum of a fire ___

A

17 years, fire 2.

246
Q

To count as minimum staffing on als or bls units, personnel must be ___ years and a maryland ___

A

18 years, maryland EMT

247
Q

Firefighter I’s may be used as ____ staffing but do not count as ____ staffing

A

Supplemental staffing, minimum staffing

248
Q

Standard staffing
Primary units
Als bls units
Chase cars
Tankers
Brush trucks
Special units

A

Standard staffing
Primary units 4
Als bls units 3
Chase cars 2
Tankers 2
Brush trucks 2
Special units 2

249
Q

On units responding with Fire II as the officer, personnel must not engage in IDLH firefighting until an entry team of ___ personnel with at least a ____ as the supervisor is assembled

A

Team of 2, FFIII

250
Q

According to substance abuse testing and rehab, a substance abuse test will occur after a crash if there is an estimate of at least ____ dollars in damage caused by the accident

A

$2500

251
Q

Personnel charged or convicted of a drug/alcohol related offense must report any charge or conviction to their supervisor within __ calendar days

A

5

252
Q

Is drug test is possitive then what

A

Gc/ms test will be performed on the same sample.

If that is positive, employee can be placed on sick, annual, comp, or LWOP pending conclusion of matter.

253
Q

Within 30 calendar days of positive drug test employee is provided with

A

Copy of test

Copy of this policy

Written notice of departments intent

Notice of right to request independant testing

254
Q

Employee may request specimen is independently tested by another laboratory upon receipt of positive test results.

A

True

255
Q

Voluntary exit from employee assistance program will require random drug testing for up to ___ months

A

60 months

256
Q

The fire chief will assess job performance in individuals placed on a random testing schedule not to exceed ____

A

24 months

257
Q

Employees that complete rehab are subject to random testing for ____ years

A

5 years

258
Q

Any employee found to be abusing drugs or alcohol after two rehabs or withdraws from the second rehab is ____

A

Subject to termination