PoD Mock Exam Answers Flashcards

1
Q

What type of gene is a Retinoblastoma gene?

A

Tumour Suppressor.

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2
Q

What type of tumour is leukaemia?

A

Malignant tumour of white blood cells.

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3
Q

What type of tumour is a liposarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour of fatty tissue.

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4
Q

What type of tumour is an adenocarcinoma?

A

Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium.

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5
Q

BRCA1 belongs to which class of gene?

A

Tumour suppressor gene.

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6
Q

Braf is a predictive biomarker of what type of tumour?

A

Melanoma.

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7
Q

What type of cancer commonly metastasises to the peritoneum?

A

Ovarian.

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8
Q

What is the commonest type of carcinoma in men in the UK?

A

Prostate.

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9
Q

Why is glyceryl trinitrate administered via the sublingual route?

A

To avoid first pass metabolism.

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10
Q

What is the type of drug trial in which neither doctor nor patient is aware of what treatment the patient is receiving?

A

Double blind trial.

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11
Q

What is the type of drug trial in which data is collected from case records after the treatment is given?

A

Retrospective trial.

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12
Q

What is the type of drug trial in which patients take both treatments being tested one after the other?

A

Cross-over trial.

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13
Q

What is the type of drug trial in which patients are allotted to treatment groups using a random number generator?

A

Randomised trial.

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14
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits purine synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim.

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15
Q

Which antiviral agent is used to treat infection with HIV?

A

Saquinavir.

Antivirals’ names generally end in “vir”.

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16
Q

What type of microorganism is Treponema pallidum?

A

A spiroachaete.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of bacterial typing?

A

To identify bacterial strains.

18
Q

In a Gram stain, what colour are Gram positive bacteria?

A

Violet/Purple.

19
Q

What characterises fimbriae?

A

Involved in adhesion at epithelial surfaces.

20
Q

Should a student wash hands with alcohol gel when moving between patients even if they have not touched the first patient?

21
Q

What is the consequence of mitosis?

A

Produces diploid cells from diploid cells.

22
Q

What is the frequency of heterozygotes for an autosomal gene with 2 alleles of equal frequency?

23
Q

What is the consequence of fertilisation?

A

Produces diploid cells from haploid cells.

24
Q

How is the X chromosome transmitted?

A

By fathers to daughters but not sons.

25
During which cellular process is mRNA used to form an amino acid sequence?
Translation.
26
What is the key pathogenic feature of of systemic Type III Hypersensitivity?
Immune complex formation.
27
What cell type is the major component of the acute inflammatory response?
Neutrophil.
28
What is the major role of fibroblasts?
Produce collagens.
29
What is the main function of histamine?
Relaxes vascular smooth muscle in acute inflammation.
30
What effect does hypoxia have on tissue healing?
Impairs tissue healing.
31
Which drug is only used in treatment of UTI?
Nitrofurantoin.
32
Serious infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) indicates treatment with intravenous...
Vancomycin.
33
Name a mutation which does not result from an additional chromosome.
Turner's Syndrome.
34
"Failure of treatment" is a type of...
Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR).
35
What causes rubor and calor in acute inflammation?
Increased local blood flow.
36
What drug should be used to treat an unknown gram negative bacteria?
Gentamicin.
37
Which drug is the best choice for IV treatment of serious pneumococcal, meningococcal and Strep pyogenes infection, as well as most other Gram positive infections?
Benzylpenicillin.
38
The pathogenesis of systemic Type I hypersensitivity requires...
IgE production.
39
The pathogenesis of systemic Type IV hypersensitivity requires...
Gamma-interferon production.
40
What is the function of serotonin?
Produces vasoconstriction in acute inflammation.
41
What can be combatted with co-amoxiclav?
Beta-lactamase resistance.
42
What is Ciprofloxacin?
A fluoroquinolone that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.