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ABH Study Guide Manual > PMK Bib > Flashcards

PMK Bib Flashcards

1
Q

What Navy Instruction covers the Fraternization Policy?

A

OPNAVINST 5370.2.
Other acceptable answers:
U.S. Navy Regulation 1165
UCMJ Article 134

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2
Q

What types of Officer and Enlisted Relationships are prohibited under OPNAVINST 5370.2?

A
  1. ) Personal relationships between officer and enlisted members that are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank.
  2. ) Presumed prejudicial to good order and discipline, or service discrediting.
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3
Q

Name three types of actions that are considered unduly familiar.

A
  1. ) Dating
  2. ) Shared Living Accommodations
  3. ) Intimate or Sexual Relations
  4. ) Commercial Solicitations
  5. ) Private Business Partnerships
  6. ) Gambling
  7. ) Borrowing Money
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4
Q

Can Officer-Officer and Enlisted-Enlisted relationships be considered fraternization under OPNAVINST 5370.2?

A

YES! Personal relationships between officer members or between enlisted members that are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank are prohibited if deemed prejudicial to good order and discipline or service discrediting.

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5
Q

How would you explain “prejudicial to good order and discipline”?

A
  1. ) Calls into question a senior’s objectivity.
  2. ) Results in actual or apparent preferential treatment.
  3. ) Undermines the authority of senior.
  4. ) Compromises the chain of command.
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6
Q

Can a PO1 date a CPO?

A

NO! Unduly familiar relationships between chief petty officers (E-7 to E-9) and junior personnel (E-1 to E-6) who are assigned to the same command, and/or are presumed prejudicial to good order & discipline, are prohibited.

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7
Q

Can an instructor date a student?

A

NO! Unduly familiar relationships between staff or instructors and student personnel within Navy training commands that do not respect differences in grade are prohibited. If the relationship is presumed prejudicial to good order & discipline, it is also prohibited.

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8
Q

(T/F) A recruiter can date a recruit or a prospective recruit.

A

FALSE! Under the instruction: 1.) Unduly familiar relationships between recruiters and recruits or applicants that do not respect differences in grade, rank or the staff-student relationship or presumed prejudicial to good order & discipline is considered fraternization.

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9
Q

(T/F) Fraternization is only between males and females.

A

FALSE! it is gender neutral.

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10
Q

(T/F) Direct senior-subordinate supervisory relationship is not required.

A

TRUE!

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11
Q

(T/F) If you and the other person end up getting married, then you are excused from misconduct.

A

FALSE!

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12
Q

Who is held accountable when a frat case is doscovered?

A

Senior has primary responsibility to avoid inappropriate relationships, but both parties are accountable for their misconduct.

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13
Q

What options are available to the command in reference to punishments?

A

Counseling Letter of Instruction, Non-punitive letter of caution, Comment on FITREP/EVAL Reassignment, Administrative Separation, NJP, Court-martial

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14
Q

What Navy Instruction covers sexual harassment policy?

A

SECNAVINST 5300.26

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15
Q

What is the purpose of having a formal sexual harassment policy?

A

To assist all military and civilian personnel on the identification, prevention, and elimination of sexual harassment and to establish regulations to enforce that policy.

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16
Q

When must personnel be trained regarding sexual harassment?

A

Upon accession (within 90 days) and annually thereafter.

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17
Q

What level should sexual harassment cases be handled?

A

At the lowest possible level.

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18
Q

What are the potential consequences if a member is found to have violated this instruction?

A

Informal counseling, Comments in FITREP/EVALs, Administrative separation, Punitive measures under the UCMJ.

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19
Q

Under what circumstances will an enlisted member be discharged after a first confirmed offense?

A

1.) Action, threats, or attempts to influence another’s career in exchange for sexual favors 2.) Rewards in exchange for sexual favors 3.) Physical contact of a sexual nature which, if charged as a violation of UCMJ (could result in punitive discharge)

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20
Q

Who should the victim consult first regarding sexual harassment?

A

The individual who is harassing them, if it is reasonable to do so.

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21
Q

When should a member consult their CoC regarding sexual harassment?

A

1.) The objectionable behavior does not stop. 2.) The situation is not resolved. 3.) Addressing the objectionable behavior directly with the person concerned is not reasonable under the circumstances. 4.) The behavior is clearly criminal in nature.

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22
Q

What 3 criteria must be met in order for it to be considered sexual harassment?

A
  1. ) It must be unwelcome
  2. ) It is sexual in nature
  3. ) It occurs in, or impacts the work environment
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23
Q

What does the instruction mean when it states “quid pro quo” sexual harassment?

A

When the recipient is offered or denied something that is work related in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior

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24
Q

Explain “Green Zone” behaviors.

A

Not sexual harassment: touching which could not be reasonably perceived in a sexual way, counseling on military appearance, social interaction, showing concern or encouragement, a polite compliment, or friendly conversation.

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25
Q

Explain “yellow zone” behaviors.

A

Many would find such behavior unacceptable and could possibly be sexual harassment: violating personal space, whistling, questions about personal life, lewd or sexually suggestive comments, suggestive posters or comments, suggestive posters or calenders, off-color jokes, leering, staring, repeated requests for dates, foul language, unwanted letters or poems, or sexually suggestive touching or gesturing.

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26
Q

Explain “red zone” behaviors.

A

Such behavior is always considered sexual harassment: sexual favors in return for employment rewards, threats if sexual favors are not provided, sexual explicit pictures or remarks, using status to request dates, or obscene letters or comments.

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27
Q

What are the negative effects of sexual harassment on the Navy?

A

1.) Economic costs 2.) Loss of productivity and readiness 3.) Increased absenteeism 4.) Greater personnel turnover 5.) Lower morale 6.) Decreased effectiveness 7.) Loss of personal, organizational, and public trust.

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28
Q

What is a blue dart message?

A

A Blue Dart Message is a time-sensitive terrorist incident notification message. Initiated by the Multiple Alert Threat Center to provide commands immediate indications and warning of the high potential for, and imminent threat of, a terrorist incident.

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29
Q

What is the goal of ATFP instruction NWP 3-07.2?

A
  1. Establish and maintain unit ATFP programs that deter, detect, defend, mitigate and recover from the consequences of terrorist attacks via the implementation of security measures. 2. Defeat an attack by the activation of preplanned responses. 3. Take required actions to manage a crisis and maintain / regain mission readiness.
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30
Q

Under NWP 3-07.2 what are the CO’s responsibilities for ATFP?

A
  1. Establish and maintain a baseline security posture that affords their personnel and assets a level of security that is commensurate with their criticality and threat. 2. Develop preplanned responses for likely terrorist acts.3. Be prepared to respond to terrorist acts and take appropriate action to maintain and / or regain mission readiness.
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31
Q

Each act of terrorism is designed to accomplish something specific as part of an overall strategy. Immediate/short-term goals of terrorist groups are usually: (name two)

A
  1. Recognition 2. Elimination of Western influence 3. Harassment, weakening or embarrassment of governments 4. Attainment of money or equipment 5. Destruction of facilities and disruption of communications 6. Discouraging foreign investors 7. Influence in government decisions 8. Freedom of prisoners 9. Revenge
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32
Q

The basic operational unit of a terrorist group is called the ______.

A

Cell. The size of a cell is determined by its mission or function. EX: IED cell, Planning cell, Intelligence and Surveillance Cell, etc.

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33
Q

Name three common Terrorist acts. (Hint: think of past terrorist attacks on the US)

A
  1. Assassination 2. Arson 3. Bombing 4. Hostage taking 5. Kidnapping 6. Hijacking or skyjacking 7. Seizure of important buildings or assets 8. Raids or attacks on facilities 9. Sabotage 10. Employment of weapons of mass destruction 11. Information warfare
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34
Q

Name the 4 threat assessment factors when the DoD assigns a terrorist threat level. (Not to be confused with FPCONs)

A
  1. Operational Capability. The acquired, assessed or demonstrated level of capability to conduct terrorist attacks. 2. Intentions. Actions indicative of preparations for specific terrorist operations. 3. Activity. Recently demonstrated anti-U.S. activity or stated or assessed intent to conduct such activity. 4. Operating Environment. The circumstances of the country under consideration.
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35
Q

What are the 4 Terrorist Threat Levels?

A

Low, Moderate, Significant, and High.

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36
Q

Name the 5 FPCONs.

A

Normal (general threat), Alpha (increased general threat), Bravo (predictable threat), Charlie (incident has occurred or intelligence indicates that an attack is likely), and Delta (an attack has occurred in the immediate area or a terrorist attack is imminent).

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37
Q

What considerations are taken into account when assigning a FPCON?

A
  1. The terrorist threat level. 2. The capability to penetrate existing physical security systems. 3. The risk of terrorist attack to which personnel and assets are exposed. 4. The asset’s ability to execute its mission even if attacked. 5. The protected asset’s criticality to their missions.
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38
Q

What are CO’s responsibilities for ATFP Intelligence?

A
  1. Review intelligence reports and disseminate warnings to subordinate commands. 2. Identify PIRs and RFIs, as required, to support mission accomplishment. 3. Establish procedures to develop local information and report all suspicious activity. 4. Establish procedures to fuse intelligence and local information to determine if the baseline security posture and Force Protection Condition need to be changed or elevated. 5. Ensure local security forces are continuously updated on likely threat activities.
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39
Q

What is a Status of Forces Agreement?

A

An agreement that defines the legal position of a visiting military force.

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40
Q

What is Naval Vessel Protective Zone?

A

All vessel within 500yds of a U.S. Naval vessel shall operate at the minimum speed.

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41
Q

(T/F) No vessel shall be allowed within 100yds of a Naval vessel.

A

True! Remember the USS COLE…

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42
Q

State the difference between Level 1 ATFP Training and Level 2 ATFP Training.

A

Level 1 is for all members 14 and older. (I’m told this includes dependents, but haven’t found that in black and white yet, will update once I find it.) and Level 2 is for all Officers who serve as AT advisors.

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43
Q

Define crisis management.

A

measures taken to anticipate, prevent, resolve, and/or contain a terrorist incident.

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44
Q

What legal document implements the inherent right of self-defense as well as provides guidance for applying force for the purpose of mission accomplishment?

A

Standing Rules of Engagement (ROE)

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45
Q

Is the term “National Waters” A.) Water territory able to be used by everyone. B.) Water territory tied to a coastal nation.

A

B! A described International Waters :)

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46
Q

How many nautical miles (max) does the US Navy recognize as territorial seas?

A

12 NM.

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47
Q

What INTERNAL assessment tools can Commanders use for risk assessment when planning?

A
  1. ORM 2. Criticality / Vulnerability (C / V) Assessments. (Commanders must decide which of their assets to protect and to what level.) 3.) Planning and Response Element Assessments. (Helps planners analyze the strengths and weaknesses of the major antiterrorism planning and response elements that contribute to a command’s ability to deter and employ countermeasures, both pre-incident and post-incident.)
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48
Q

What EXTERNAL assessment tools can commanders use for risk assessment?

A
  1. Port Integrated Vulnerability Assessment (PIVA). Addressing the force protection posture of ports, provide useful data to for security plans and force protection plans. 2. Chief of Naval Operations Integrated Vulnerability Assessment (CNOIVA). 3. Joint Staff Integrated Vulnerability Assessment (JSIVA). JSIVA teams determine vulnerabilities and propose solutions. 4. Vulnerability Assessment Management Program (VAMP). VAMP is a Web-based tool, accessed through the SIPRNET, designed to track, prioritize and report vulnerabilities. 5. ATFP Threat assessments. Combined threat assessment from numbered fleets, NCIS and regional commanders.
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49
Q

What are the four general concepts of the ATFP program? (DDDM)

A

DETERRENCE, DETECTION, DEFENSE, MITIGATION.

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50
Q

What are the 3 Zones in the Layered Perimeter of a ship in territorial waters?

A

Assessment Zone, Warning Zone, and Threat Zone.

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51
Q

Define RAM (hint: not the computer kind!)

A

Random Anti-terrorist Measures. Random, multiple security measures that when activated, serve to disguise the actual security procedures in effect.

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52
Q

What are the 3 phases of responses to a terrorist incident?

A
  1. Commitment of local resources (on hand personnel, ex: watch standers, on-duty security personnel) 2. Arrival of additional resources (Additional personnel- trained/specialized) 3. Return to baseline / restoration of services. Further definition on pg 62 of the instruction.
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53
Q

What are the three fundamental pillars on which United States military strategy rests?

A

Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity Super Important!

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54
Q

What responses could the US take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?

A
  1. Meet force with force at the point of attack 2. Increase the intensity of the conflict 3. Alter the geographic width of the conflict 4. Control the duration of fighting.
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55
Q

The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with ______.

A

Secure sea-lanes

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56
Q

What are the components of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?

A

BALLISTIC MISSILES, INTERCONTINENTAL BALLISTIC MISSILES (ICBMs) and LONG-RANGE BOMBERS.

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57
Q

What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD?

A

Intercontinental ballistic missiles

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58
Q

What is the sole mission and fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine?

A

To deter war.

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59
Q

The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?

A

to deter nuclear war.

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60
Q

What is the 2nd Fleet AOR?

A

Western Atlantic

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61
Q

Which Fleet covers the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean?

A

7th Fleet

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62
Q

What year did the CNO order the development of a weapon system capable of launching a missile form submerged submarine?

A

1955

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63
Q

What year did the US launch its first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine?

A

1959 (JUNE) George Washington, SSBN-598

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64
Q

What characteristic of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?

A

Its mobility! Important!

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65
Q

What are the 3 types of task forces organized primarily for strike force operations? (Hint: think of the 3 platforms!)

A

carrier, surface, and submarine strike forces

66
Q

When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include what elements?

A

submarines, missiles, and the base.

67
Q

Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?

A

4,000

68
Q

What type of ship is used for the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

A

Anti-surface Ship. (ASUW)

69
Q

This type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy’s forces and capabilities.

A

Intelligence

70
Q

This type of warfare enables the destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons, whether launched form air, surface, subsurface, land or achieving air superiority.

A

Anti-Air Warfare (AAW)

71
Q

This type of warfare deals with the destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines.

A

Anti-Sub Warfare

72
Q

What is the most capable surface-launched missile system the Navy has ever put to sea?

A

AEGIS

73
Q

Is one of the most important inspections a ship can receive.

A

Operational Readiness Inspection (ORI)

74
Q

What inspection examines each naval ship at least once every 3 years (If practical)?

A

Board of Inspection and Survey (INSURV)

75
Q

Which of the following are weapons of mass destruction? 1. Chemical weapons 2. Biological agents 3. Nuclear weapons 4. All of the above

A

ALL of the above

76
Q

Which of the warfare agents are used to kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, lungs, or stomach?

A

Chemical Weapons

77
Q

Generally, antipersonnel agents are divided into how many types?

A

Two

78
Q

Cramps, breathing difficulty, nausea, headache, convulsions, and contractions of the pupils are all symptoms of which type of contaminating agent?

A

Nerve Agent

79
Q

Burns from exposure to mustard vapor will be more serious in which of the following body areas? 1. Neck 2. Groin 3. Armpits 4. All of the above

A

All of the Above

80
Q

A person exposed to a blood agent may experience respiratory paralysis within seconds, minutes, or hours?

A

Seconds

81
Q

Atropine and 2-PAM C1 oxime are used to counteract the effects and relieve the symptoms of what type of agents?

A

Nerve

82
Q

What type of agents are used to produce temporary misery and harassment?

A

Riot Control

83
Q

In its early stage, which of the following is/are symptoms of BW attack? 1. Fever 2. Inflammation 3. Malaise 4. Each of the above

A

Each of the above.

84
Q

Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four

A

Four: 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst

85
Q

What type of radiation hazard must enter the body through ingestion or cuts to cause bodily harm? 1. Alpha particles 2. Beta particles 3. Gamma rays 4. Neutrons

A

Alpha particles.

86
Q

What is TREE? 1. The absorption of EMP by electrical Conductors 2. Interference of passive sonar systems 3. The affect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronic system 4. Interference of radio transmission through ion fields

A
  1. The affect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronic system.
87
Q

What person is in charge of a survey team?

A

Monitor

88
Q

Area contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear agents are identified by makers having what shape?

A

Triangular.

89
Q

(T/F) Dose rate is expressed in roentgens, which are gamma ray measurements only.

A

True

90
Q

Which of the following actions should personnel topside take if an air burst occurs? 1. Close their eyes 2. Drop to the deck 3. Cover as much exposed skin as Possible 4. All of the above

A

Cover exposed skin as much as possible.

91
Q

You should be able to don and adjust your protective mask in what maximum amount of time?

A

10 second

92
Q

How many levels of decontamination are there?

A

4

93
Q

What is the most effective way to decontaminate biological agents? 1. Burning 2. Using dry heat 3. Using steam under pressure 4. Using a chemical disinfectant

A

Using a chemical disinfectant.

94
Q

(T/F) Showering will destroy nuclear and biological agents.

A

False!

95
Q

You may not be ordered to active duty without the permission of which of the following persons?

A

Chief of Naval Personnel

96
Q

Under what article of Navy Regulations may a person be charged with sexual harassment?

A

1166

97
Q

Which Navy Regulation article outlines the authority of a sentry?

A

1038

98
Q

Navy Regulations Article 1033 (Authority in a Boat) provides which officer the authority and responsibility over all persons embarked?

A

The senior line officer eligible for command at sea.

99
Q

Why are watches are split into port and starboard?

A

For security

100
Q

Who is responsible for making sure that the Navy Regs conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy?

A

CNO

101
Q

What type of watch do most Sailors stand?

A

Security watches.

102
Q

A ship maintains a watch for what 3 reasons?

A

Communication, Security, Safety (yes, these are the ones listed even though I agree that Safety and Security are pretty much the same thing…)

103
Q

In areas where different armed services are located, the military police from each service may be combined to form one unit. What term identifies this unit?

A

Armed Forces Police Detachment

104
Q

What chapter of the United States Navy Regulations describes the rights and responsibilities of all Navy members?

A

Chapter 10

105
Q

A ship’s plan for action is contained in what type of bill?

A

Battle Bill

106
Q

What article of the Navy Regs gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties?

A

1021

107
Q

Failure to obey any regulation subjects the offender to charges under what UCMJ article?

A

Article 92

108
Q

How many bells are sounded at 0700?

A

Six

109
Q

List the types of 4 hour watches for the times starting at 0000. (Ex: 0000-0400 is the Midwatch)

A

0000 to 0400 Midwatch 0400 to 0800 Morning watch 0800 to 1200 Forenoon watch 1200 to 1600 Afternoon watch 1600 to 1800 First dog watch 1800 to 2000 Second dog watch 2000 to 2400 Evening watch

110
Q

The watch system is divided into what two types of watches?

A

(a) underway (b) in-port watches

111
Q

What are the 4 purposes for a security watch?

A
  1. prevent sabotage 2. protect property from theft 3. prevent access to restricted areas 4. protect personnel
112
Q

What person is responsible for maintaining the ship’s deck log while under way? (Hint, not OOD)

A

QMOW, Quarter Master of the Watch

113
Q

Where does the fog lookout stand his/her post?

A

The fog lookout normally stands in the bow where approaching ships can better be seen and heard.

114
Q

Under what conditions can deadly force be authorized?

A

a. to protect your life or the life of another person where no other means of defense will be effective. b when no other means is available to prevent the commission of or to prevent the escape of a person known to have committed robbery, murder, rape, arson, or kidnapping. c. to prevent acts of sabotage, espionage, or other crimes against the government after failure of all other available means of preventing such crime.

115
Q

How is bearing measured?

A

In degrees. 000-360.

116
Q

The improvement of vision in dim light is known as what?

A

Dark adaptation. Reason for the red lights on a ship.

117
Q

How many minutes will it take for you to reach your best night vision?

A

30 minutes.

118
Q

Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline?

A

25 NM (pulped trash is 12 nm). Also no trash is discarded within 25 nm of foreign coastlines either.

119
Q

Which operation causes the most pollution: municipal, transportation, industrial, or agricultural?

A

Transporation.

120
Q

Which mode of transport causes the most pollution?

A

Motor vehicles (you could also argue for oil spills)

121
Q

What is the primary pollution concern for the US Navy?

A

Shipboard waste of course! Under the Clean Water act.

122
Q

What does the Navy do for compliance with the Clean Water Act?

A

We cannot discharge hazardous material in harmful quantities or plastics. We ensure that all trash will sink to the bottom. Anything we cannot dispose of at sea is stored on the ship until it can be properly discarded.

123
Q

What is the Overseas Duty Support Program?

A

Provides information and support for sailors serving in foreign lands.

124
Q

The Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP) provides monetary recognition of up to what maximum amount?

A

$25,000! (Wowza!)

125
Q

If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount?

A

$5,000.00

126
Q

On what basis should supervisors assign duties such as food service and compartment cleaning?

A

On a fair, rotational basis. Only preference will be given to rank.

127
Q

How many articles are in the Code of Conduct?

A

6 (VI).

128
Q

What is the minimum interval you must check on a prisoner?

A

Every 4 hours to monitor their condition.

129
Q

What is a UCMJ Article 92 violation?

A

Failure to obey an order or regulation.

130
Q

What is a UCMJ Article 86 violation?

A

Absence without Leave.

131
Q

If you decide to slap your LPO, which article will you be charged with?

A

Article 91

132
Q

Technically, under this article you can be charged for failing to salute an officer.

A

Article 89, Disrespect toward a superior commissioned officer.

133
Q

If you make a false official statement (oral or in writing) what article will you be charged under?

A

Article 107

134
Q

What is the UCMJ equivalent to a DUI?

A

UCMJ Article 111. If you are also drunk on duty (duty driver), you can also be charged with article 112.

135
Q

You discover one of your Sailors who was SIQ is now posting on Facebook saying he is downtown getting hammered. What Article will you site when you inform your superiors?

A

Article 115 for Malingering.

136
Q

CDO discovers PO1 Humptysquat fell asleep on the QD. What article will he be sent to NJP for?

A

Article 113, Misbehavior of a Sentinel.

137
Q

If you raise an object as if you were going to strike someone, is that considered assault under Article 128?

A

YES! It is referred to as a simple assault. Once you strike or complete a threat, it is called assault or battery. Continuing to strike or inflict serious harm is aggravated assault. Each of these levels of assault carries different degrees of punishment.

138
Q

What kind of infractions are covered under Article 134, the General Article?

A

All disorders and neglects that are prejudicial to good order and discipline.

139
Q

On large ships, what person is responsible for making sure that special flags or pennants are displayed to indicate changing events aboard ship?

A

Duty signalman.

140
Q

What flag signals man overboard?

A

Oscar. It looks like a half red half yellow flag divided on its diagonal.

141
Q

What is the Navy’s Birthday???

A

October 13th, 1775

142
Q

The Second Continental Congress Authorized the purchase of how many vessels?

A

TWO

143
Q

What type of vessels existed in the 19th century?

A

Ship-of-the-Line, Frigate, Sloops-of-War.

144
Q

What was the name of the first warfare submarine?

A

The Turtle

145
Q

Which country was the first to recognize the Stars and Stripes as a symbol for America?

A

France

146
Q

Remember the Maine was the Battle cry for what war?

A

Spanish-American War.

147
Q

Who was the Navy’s first Aviator?

A

LT Ellyson.

148
Q

In what war did women first serve in the Navy?

A

WW1. As yeoman.

149
Q

What is the name of the first carrier designed from the keel up?

A

USS RANGER

150
Q

What WWII battle was the turning point for the Pacific?

A

Battle of Midway

151
Q

WAVES were eligible for how many different ratings?

A

34

152
Q

From what war did the expression “millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute” originate?

A

The Quasi War

153
Q

What was the first Trident submarine?

A

USS OHIO

154
Q

What was the name of the first nuclear powered Navy Submarine?

A

USS NAUTILUS

155
Q

Aboard ship, what publication contains information about the ship’s organization?

A

Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual.

156
Q

What is the backbone of a ship called?

A

keel

157
Q

Each ship is organized into at least how many departments?

A

5

158
Q

Which of the following structural components form the ship’s hull?

A

Strakes

159
Q

Passing honors for ships are exchanged when ships pass within what distance?

A

600 Yards

160
Q

A crew is paraded at quarters on what occasions?

A

Entering or leaving US ports When the ship is visiting a foreign port departing or returning from an extended deployment or other special occasion.

161
Q

On Navy ships not under way, where is the union jack displayed?

A

The jackstaff

162
Q

A commissioning (or command pennant) is half-masted only under what condition?

A

Death of the CO

ABH Study Guide Manual (17 decks)

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