PMHNP exam Flashcards

1
Q

Definition:

  1. The client’s right to assume that information given to the healthcare provider will not be disclosed
  2. Protected under federal statute through the Medical Record Confidentiality Act of 1995
  3. Pertains to verbal and written client information
  4. Requires that the provider discuss confidentiality issues with clients, establish consent, and clarify and any questions about disclosure of information.
  5. Requires that provider obtain a signed medical authorization and consent form to release medical records and information when requested by the client or another healthcare provider.
A

Confidentiality

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2
Q

Definition:

  1. The first national comprehensive privacy protection act
  2. Guarantees clients four fundamental rights: 1. To be educated about HIPAA privacy protection, 2. To have access to their own medical records, 3. To request amendment of their health information to which they object, and 4. To require their permission for disclosure of their personal information.
A

HIPAA

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3
Q

Definition:

  1. When appropriate persons or organizations determine that the need for information outweighs the principle of confidentiality
  2. If a client reveals an intent to harm self or others
  3. Information given to attorneys involved in litigation
  4. Releasing records to insurance companies.
  5. Answering court orders, subpoenas, or summonses
  6. Meeting state requirements for mandatory reporting of disease or conditions
  7. Tarasoff principle: duty to warn potential victim of imminent danger of homicidal clients
  8. In cases of child or elder abuse.
A

Exceptions to guaranteed confidentiality

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4
Q

Definition:
1. Persons younger than 18 years old who are married, parents, or self-sufficiently living away from the family domicile

A

Emancipated minors

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5
Q

Definition:

  1. Duty: the NP had a duty to exercise reasonable care when undertaking and providing treatment to the client
  2. Breah of duty: the NP violated the applicable standard of care in treating the client’s condition.
  3. Proximate cause: There is a causal relationship between the breach in the standard of care and the client’s injuries.
  4. Damages: The client experiences permanent and substantial damages as a result of the breach in the standard of care.
A

Four Elements of negligence that must be established to prove malpractice.

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6
Q

Definition:

  1. Person has a diagnosed psychiatric disorder
  2. Person is harmful to self or others as a consequence of the disorder
  3. Person is unaware or unwilling to accept the nature and severity of the disorder
  4. Treatment is likely to improve function
A

Commitment basic criteria

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7
Q

Developmental Stage for:
Trust vs. mistrust
Ability to form meaningful relationships, hope about the future, trust in others
Developmental failure: poor relationships, lack of future hope, suspicious of others

A

Infancy Birth-1 year

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8
Q

Developmental Stage for:
Autonomy vs shame and doubt
Self-control, self esteem, willpower
Developmental failure: poor self control, low self esteem, self doubt, lack of independence

A

Early childhood 1-3 years

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9
Q

Developmental Stage for:
Initiative vs guilt
Self-directed behavior, goal formation, sense of purpose
Developmental failure: Lack of self initiated behavior, lack of goal orientation

A

Late childhood 3-6 years

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10
Q

Developmental Stage for:
Industry vs inferiority
Ability to work; sense of competency and achievement
Developmental failure: Sense of inferiority; difficulty with working, learning

A

School-age 6-12 years

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11
Q

Developmental Stage for
Identity vs. role confusion
Personal sense of identity
Developmental failure: Identity confusion, poor self-identification in group settings

A

Adolescence 12-20 years

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12
Q

Developmental Stage for
Intimacy vs isolation
Committed relationships, capacity to love
Developmental failure: Emotional isolation, egocentrism

A

Early adulthood 20-35 years

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13
Q

Developmental Stage for
Generativity vs self-absorption or stagnation
ability to give time and talents to others, ability to care for others
Developmental failure: self-absorption, inability to grow and change as a person, inability to care for others

A

Middle adulthood 35-65 years

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14
Q

Developmental Stage for
Integrity vs despair
Fulfillment and comfort with life, willingness to face death, insight and balanced perspective on life’s event
Developmental failure: Bitterness, sense of dissatisfaction with life, despair over impending death

A

Late adulthood greater then 65 years of age

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15
Q

Typical age of onset for intellectual disability

A

infancy-usually evident at birth

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16
Q

Typical age of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

A

Early childhood per DSM 5 by age 12

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17
Q

Typical age of schziophrenia

A

18 to 25 years for men

25 to 35 years for women

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18
Q

Typical age of major depression

A

Late adolescence to young adulthood

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19
Q

Typical age of dementia

A

most common after age 85

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20
Q

Three primary psychic structures make up the mind and personality and are responsible for mental functioning:
Contains primary drives or instincts, urges, or fantasies
Drives are largely unconscious, sexual, or aggressive in content, and infantile in nature
Operates on the pleasure principle; seeks immediate satisfaction
Is present at birth and motivates early infantile actions

A

The Id

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21
Q

Three primary psychic structures make up the mind and personality and are responsible for mental functioning:
Contains the concept of external reality
Rational mind; responsible for logical and abstract thinking
Functions in adaptation
Mediates between the demands of drives and environmental realities
Operates on the reality principle
Begins to develop at birth as infant struggles to deal with environment
Responsible for use of defense mechanisms
The go says, “I think, I evaluate”

A

The Ego

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22
Q

Three primary psychic structures make up the mind and personality and are responsible for mental functioning:
Is the ego-ideal
Contains sense of conscience or right versus wrong
Also contains aspirations, ideals, and moral values
Regulated by guilt and shame
Begins to fully develop around age six as a child comes into contact with external authority figures such as other parents, schoolteachers, coaches, or religious figures
The superego says “I should or outght”

A

The Superego

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23
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages of development:
Primary means of discharging drives and achieving gratification:
Stage and Age:
Sucking, chewing, feeding, crying
Psychiatric disorders linked to failure of stage: schizophrenia, substance abuse, paranoia

A

Oral stage 0-18 months

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24
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages of development:
Primary means of discharging drives and achieving gratification:
Stage and Age:
Sphincter control, activities of expulsion and retention
Psychiatric disorders linked to failure of stage:
Depressive disorders

A

Anal Stage 18 months-3 years

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25
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages of development:
Primary means of discharging drives and achieving gratification:
Stage and Age:
Exhibitionism, masturbation with focus on Oedipal conflict, castration anxiety, and female fear of lost maternal love
Psychiatric disorders linked to failure of stage: Sexual identity disorders

A

Phallic stage 3-6 years

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26
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages of development:
Primary means of discharging drives and achieving gratification:
Stage and Age:
Peer relationships, learning, motor skills development, socialization
Psychiatric disorders linked to failure of stage: Inability to form social relationships

A

Latency stage 6 years to puberty

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27
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages of development:
Primary means of discharging drives and achieving gratification:
Stage and Age:
Integration and synthesis of behaviors from early stages, primary genital-based sexuality
Psychiatric disorders linked to failure of stage: Sexual perversion disorder

A

Genital stage Puberty forward

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28
Q

Which Theory?
Human development evolves through cognition, learning, and comprehending
Factors such as native endowment and biological and environmental factors set the course for a child’s development.

A

Cognitive theory: Jean Piaget ( 1896-1980)

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29
Q

What are these?
Denial, Projection, Regression, Repression, Reaction formation, Rationalization, Undoing, Intellectualization, Suppression, Sublimation, Altruism

A

Defense Mechanisms

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30
Q

Avoidance of unpleasant realities by unconsciously ignoring their existence

A

Denial

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31
Q

Unconscious rejection of emotionally unacceptable personal attributes, beliefs, or actions by attributing them to other people, situations, or events

A

Projection

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32
Q

Return to more comfortable thoughts, behaviors, or feelings used in earlier stages of development in response to current conflict, stress, or threat

A

Regression

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33
Q

Often called overcompensation; unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or behaviors are pushed from conscious awareness by displaying and acting on the opposite feeling, thought, or behavior

A

Reaction formation

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34
Q

Justification of illogical, unreasonable ideas, feelings, or actions by developing an acceptable explanation that satisfies the person

A

Rationalization

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35
Q

Behaviors that attempt to make up for or undo an unacceptable action, feelings, or impulse

A

Undoing

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36
Q

Attempts to master current stressors or conflict by expansion of knowledge, explanation, or understanding

A

Intellectualization

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37
Q

Conscious analog of repression; conscious denial of a disturbing situation, feeling, or event

A

Suppression

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38
Q

Unconscious process of substitution of socially acceptable, constructive activity for strong unacceptable impulse

A

Sublimation

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39
Q

Meeting the needs of others in order to discharge drives, conflicts, or stressors

A

Altruism

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40
Q
  1. Sensorimotor (birth to 2 years): the critical achievement of this stage is object permanence
  2. Preoperational (2-7 years): more extensive use of language and symbolism; magical thinking
  3. Concrete Operations (7-12 years): Child begins to use logic; develops concepts of reversibility and conservation
  4. Formal Operations (12 years to adult): Ability to think abstractly; thinking operates in a formal, logical manner
A

Four stages of cognitive development in Jean Piaget Cognitive Theory

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41
Q

What theory?
Behavior occurs because of interpersonal dynamics
Interpersonal relationships and experiences influence one’s personality development, which is called the self-system (the total components of personality traits).
Understanding behavior: the drive for satisfaction (basic human drives such as sleep, sex, hunger) and the drive for security (conforming to social norms of a person’s reference group).
When the person’s need for satisfaction and security is interfered with by the self-system, mental illness occurs.
Humans experience anxiety and behavior is directed toward relieving the anxiety, which then results in interpersonal security.

A

Interpersonal theory (Harry Stack Sullivan, 1892-1949)

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42
Q

What theory?
Health model rather than illness model
A hierarchical organization of needs
Hypothesizes that certain needs are more important to than others
States that a person will attempt to meet more important needs first before satisfying other needs

A

Hierarchy of Needs Theory (Abraham Maslow, 1908-1970)

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43
Q
What theory?
Survival 
Safety and security needs
Love and belonging
Self-esteem
Self-actualizations
A

Hierarchy of Needs Theory (Abraham Maslow)

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44
Q

Developmental Task: Oral gratification; anxiety occurs for the first time

A

Infancy Birth to 18 months

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45
Q

Developmental Task: Delayed gratification

A

Childhood 18 months to 6 years

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46
Q

Developmental Task: Forming of peer relationships

A

Juvenile 6 to 9 years

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47
Q

Developmental Task: Same sex relationships

A

Preadolescence 9-12 years

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48
Q

Developmental Task: Opposite-sex relationships

A

Early adolescence 12-14 years

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49
Q

Developmental Task: Self-identity developed

A

Late adolescence 14-21 years

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50
Q
What model?
Explains that healthy people do not always take advantage of screening or preventative programs because of the following certain variables:
1.  Perception of susceptibility
2.  Seriousness of illness
3.  Perceived benefits of treatment
4.  Perceived barriers to change
5.  Expectations of efficacy
A

Health Belief Model (Marshall Becker, 1940-1993)

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51
Q

What model?
States that change such as in health behaviors occurs in sex predictable stages:
1. Precontemplation: the person has no intention to change
2. Contemplation: The person is thinking about changing; is aware that there is a problem but not committed to changing.
3. Preparation The person has made the decision to change; is ready for action
4. Action: The person is engaging in specific, overt actions to change.
5. Maintenance: The person is engaging in behaviors to prevent relapse

A

Transtheoretical Model of Change

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52
Q

Components of what?

  1. Focused, goal directive therapy
  2. Builds on the Transtheoretical Model of Change
  3. Motivation is elicited from the client
  4. Nonconfrontational, nonadversarial
A

Motivational Interviewing (Miller & Rollnick, 1991)

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53
Q

What Theory?

  1. Behavior is the result of cognitive and environmental factors
  2. People learn by observing others, relying on role-modeling
  3. Self efficacy is the perception of one’s ability to perform a certain task at a certain level of accomplishment.
  4. Behavioral change and maintenance are functions of outcome expectations and efficacy expectations.
A

Self-efficacy and social learning theory (Albert Andura, born 1925)

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54
Q

Nursing Theory:
Regardless of the culture, care is the unifying focus and the essence of nursing
Health and well-being can be predicted through cultural care

A

Theory of cultural care (Madeline Leininger, born 1925)

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55
Q

Nursing Theory:

Self-care: Activities that maintain life, health, and well-being

A

Theory of Self-Care (Dorothy Orem, 1914-2007)

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56
Q

Nursing Theory:
First significant psychiatric nursing theory
Based in part on interpersonal theory
Sees nursing as an interpersonal process in which all interventions occur within the context of the nurse-client relationship
The therapeutic nurse-client relationship is central to nursing
Includes phases of the nurse-client relationship: orientation phase, working phase, and termination phase.
Promoting adaptive responses is the goal of nursing
Behavior represents the person trying to adapt to internal or environmental forces.

A

Therapeutic Nurse-Client relationship theory or interpersonal theory (hildegard peplau, 1909-1999)

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57
Q

Nursing theory:
Caring is an essential component of nursing
“Carative factors” guide the core of nursing and should be implemented in health care.
Carative factors are those aspects of care that potentiate therapeutic healing and relationships.

A

Caring Theory (Jean Watson, born 1940)

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58
Q

Term:

Process in which a third party reviews evidence from both sides and makes a decision to settle the case

A

Arbitration

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59
Q

What is?
The basic cellular unit of the nervous system
The microprocessor of the brain responsible for conducting impulses from one part of the body to another
Cell body: also known as soma; made up of the nucleus and cytoplasm within cell membrane
Stem or axon: transmits signals away from the neuron’s cell body to connect with other neurons and cells
Dendrites: collect incoming signals from other neurons and send the signal toward the neuron’s cell body

A

Neuron

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60
Q

What is?
Composed of two separate, interconnected divisions:
Central nervous system: spinal cord and brain
Peripheral nervous system: connect the CNS to receptors, muscles, and glands. Includes the cranial nerves just outside the brain stem. Comprises the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

A

Nervous System

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61
Q

What is?

Conveys information from the CNS to skeletal muscles; responsible for voluntary movements

A

Somatic nervous system

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62
Q

What is?
Regulates internal body functions to maintain homeostasis; conveys information from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands; responsible for involuntary movement; divided into the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Autonomic nervous system

63
Q

What is?

The excitatory division; prepares the body for stress (flight or fight); stimulates or increases activity of organs

A

Sympathetic nervous system

64
Q

What is?

Maintains or restores energy; inhibits or decreases activity of organs

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

65
Q

Brain tissues is categorized as either blank or blank?

A

White matter or gray matter

66
Q

Is the myelinated axons of neurons

A

white matter

67
Q

Is composed of nerve cell bodies and dendrites; it is the working area of the brain and contains the synapses, the area of neuronal connection

A

gray matter

68
Q

Structured to contain grooves and dips of corrugated wrinkles within the brain tissue that provide anatomical landmarks or reference points

A

Outermost surface of the brain

69
Q

Small shallow grooves in the brain

A

sulci

70
Q

deeper groves extending into the brain

A

fissures

71
Q

Are the raised tissue areas

A

gyri

72
Q

The brain is subdivided into the blank and the blank

A

cerebrum and the brainstem

73
Q

Is the largest part of the brain, which is divided into two halves, the right and left blank hemispheres

A

Cerebrum

74
Q

This hemisphere is Dominant in most people

A

left

75
Q

Both hemisphere connected by a large bundle of white matter, the blank, an area of sensorimotor information exchange between the two hemispheres.

A

corpus callosum

76
Q

Each hemisphere is divided into blank major lobes

A

four

77
Q

Largest and most developed lobe
Motor function
premotor area: coordinates movements of multiple muscles
Association cortex: allows for multimodal sensory input to trigger memory and lead to decision making
Seat of executive function: working memory, reasoning, planning, prioritizing, sequencing behavior, insight, flexibility, judgment, impulse control, behavioral cueing, intelligence, abstraction
Language (Broca’s area)
Personality variables
Problems in this lobe can lead to personality changes, emotional, and intellectual changes.

A

Frontal lobe

78
Q

Which lobe?
Language (Wernicke’s area): receptive speech or language comprehension
Primary auditory area
memory
Emotion
Integration of vision with sensory information
Problems in this lobe can lead to visual or auditory hallucinations, aphasia, and amnesia

A

Temporal lobe

79
Q

Which lobe?
primary visual cortex
integration area: integrates vision with other sensory information
Problems in this lobe can lead to visual field defects, blindness, and visual hallucinations

A

occipital lobe

80
Q

which lobe?
primary sensory area, taste, reading and writing, problems in this lobe can lead to sensor-perceptual disturbances and agnosia (inability to recognize things visual, auditory, and tactile).

A

parietal lobe

81
Q

This brain region includes the cortex, limbic system, thalamus, hypothalamus, and basal ganglia

A

Cerebrum

82
Q

What area of the Cerebrum?
controls wide array of behaviors
controls the contra lateral side of the body
sensory information is relayed from the thalamus and then processed and integrated in the cortex
responsible for much of the behavior that makes us human: speech, cognition, judgment, perception, and motor function

A

Cerebral cortex

83
Q

What area of the Cerebrum?
Essential system for the regulation and modulation of emotions and memory
Composed of the hypothalamus, thalamus, hippocampus, and the amygdala

A

Limbic system

84
Q

Plays key roles in various regulatory functions such as appetite, sensations of hunger and thirst, water balance, circadian rhythms, body temperature, libido, and hormonal regulation

A

Hypothalamus

85
Q

Sensory relay station except for smell; modulates flow of sensory information to prevent overwhelming the cortex; regulates emotions, memory, and related affective behaviors

A

Thalamus

86
Q

Regulates memory and converts short-term memory into long term memory

A

Hippocampus

87
Q

Responsible for mediating mood, fear, emotion, and aggression; also responsible for connecting sensory smell information with emotions

A

Amygdala

88
Q

What area of cerebrum?
Also known as the corpus striatum
serves as complex feedback system to modulate and stabilize somatic motor activity
plays a role in movement initiation; complex motor functions with association connections
function in learning and automatic actions such as walking or driving care
contains extrapyramdial motor system or nerve tract
functions in involuntary motor activities
Many psychotropic medications can affect the extrapyramidal motor nerve track, causing involuntary movements side effects
contains both the caudate and the putamen
problems in this area can lead to bradkinesia, hyperkinesia, and dystonia.

A

Basal ganglia

89
Q

Made up of cells that produce neurotransmitters

Includes the midbrain, pons, medulla, cerebellum, and reticular formation

A

Brainstem

90
Q

Houses the ventral tegmental area and the substantia nigra (areas of dopamine synthesis in Brainstem

A

Midbrain

91
Q

Houses the locus ceruleus (area of norepinehprine synthesis)

A

Pons

92
Q

Together with the pons, contains autonomic control centers that regulate internal body functions

A

Medulla

93
Q

Responsible for maintaining equilibrium; acts as a gross movement control center (e.g., control movements, balance, posture)
Problems with this can lead to ataxia (uncoordinated and inaccurate movements)
Romberg test is important for detecting deficiencies in this functioning.

A

Cerebellum

94
Q

The primitive brain
Receives input from cortex; an integration area for input from post sensory pathways
Innervates thalamus, hypothalamus, and cortex
Regulation functions include: involuntary movement, reflex, muscle tone, vital sign control, blood pressure, respiratory rate, critical to consciousness and ability to mentally focus, to be alert and pay attention to environmental stimuli.

A

Reticular formation system

95
Q

Two classes of cells are in the nervous system:

A

glia and neurons

96
Q

structures that form the myelin sheath around axons and provide protection and support

A

glia

97
Q

nerve cells responsible for conducting impulses from one part of the body to another

A

neurons

98
Q

Cell body, dendrites, and axons are components of what?

A

Neurons

99
Q

Also known as soma; made up of the nucleus and cytoplasm within the cell membrane

A

Cell body

100
Q

Receive information to conduct impulse toward the cell body

A

Dendrites

101
Q

Sends or conducts information away from cell body

A

Axon

102
Q

The connection site and area of communication between neurons where neurotransmitters are released

A

synapse or synaptic cleft
converts an electrical signal (action potential ) from the presynaptic neuron into a chemical signal (neuron transmitter) that is transferred to the postsynaptic neuron

103
Q

blank are released at the synaptic cleft as the result of an electrical activity (action potential).

A

neurotransmitters

104
Q

The initial phase of the action potential, when sodium and calcium ions flow into the cells

A

depolarization

105
Q

The restoration phase (an inhibitory response), when potassium leaves the cell or chloride enters the cell

A

Repolarization

106
Q

Chemicals synthesized from dietary substrates that communicate information from one cell to another

A

neurotransmitters

107
Q

Monoamines, amino acids, cholinergics, neuropeptides

A

Are categories of neurotransmitters

108
Q
  1. Neurotransmitter must be present in the nerve terminal
  2. Stimulation of neuron must cause release of neurotransmitter in sufficient quantities to cause an action to occur at postsynaptic membrane.
  3. Effects of exogenous transmitter on postsynaptic membrane must be similar to those caused by stimulation of presynaptic neuron
  4. A mechanism for inactivation or metabolism of the neurotransmitter must exist in the area of the synapse
  5. Exogenous drugs should alter the dose-response curve of the neurotransmitter in a manner similar to the naturally occurring synaptic potential.
A

Classification requirements for neurotransmitters

109
Q

Biogenic amines: dopaimine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, and serotonin are examples of what neurotransmitters

A

Monoamines

110
Q

What neurotransmitter? Known as a catecholamine; produced in the substantia nigra and the ventral tegmental area; precursor is tyrosine; removed from the syanptic cleft by monoamine oxidse (MAO) enzyme action

A

Dopamine

111
Q

What kind of pathways are these?

mesocortical, mesolimbic, nigrostriatal, and tuberoinfundibular

A

The four dopaminergic pathways

112
Q

What neurotransmitter?
Also non as a catecholamine; produced in the locus ceruleus of the pons; precursor is tyrosine; removed from the synaptic cleft and returned to storage via an active reuptake process; major neurotransmitter implicated in mood, anxiety, and concentration disorders.

A

Norepinephrine

113
Q

What neurotransmitter?
Also known as a catecholamine; produced by the adrenal glands; epinephrine system also referred to as the adrenergic system

A

Epinephrine

114
Q

What neurotransmitter?
Known as an indole; produced in the raphe nucei of the brainstem; precursor is tryptophan; removed from the synaptic cleft and returned to storage via an active reuptake process; major neurotransmitter implicated in mood and anxiety disorders

A

Serotonin

115
Q

What neurotransmitter?
Universal excitatory neurotransmitter; major neurotransmitter involved in process of kindling, which is implicated in seizure disorders and possibly bipolar disorder; imbalance implicated in mood disorders and schizophrenia

A

Glutamate

116
Q

What neurotransmitter?

Another excitatory neurotransmitter; works with glutamate

A

Aspartate

117
Q

What neurotransmitter?
Universal inhibitory neurotransmitter; site of action of benzodiazepines, alcohol, barbiturates, and other CNS depressants

A

GABA

118
Q

What neurotransmitter?

Another inhibitory neurotransmitter; works with GABA

A

Glycine

119
Q

What neurotransmitter?

Synthesized by the basal nucleus of meynert

A

Acetylcholine

120
Q

What neurotransmitter?

There is a nonopioid and opioid type, modulates pain, decreased levels of this is thought to cause substance abuse

A

Neuropeptides

121
Q

Enzymatic destruction occurs either in the blank or in the blank. The neurotransmitter can be destroyed by the enzymes monoamine oxidase in the blank or catechol-o-methyl transferase intracellularly or in the blank

A

cystosol, synapse

122
Q

Acetylcholine decreases causes

A

Alzheimer’s disease and impaired memory

123
Q

Aceytlcholine increase causes

A

Parkinsonian symptoms

124
Q

Dopamine Increase causes

A

Schizophrenia and psychosis

125
Q

Dopamine Decrease causes

A

Substance abuse, anhedonia (inability to feel happiness), Parkinson’s disease

126
Q

Norepinephrine Decrease causes

A

Depression

127
Q

Norepinephrine Increase causes

A

Anxiety

128
Q

Serotonin Decrease causes

A

Depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, anxiety disorders, and schizophrenia

129
Q

Gamma-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) Decrease causes

A

Anxiety Disorders

130
Q

Glutamate increase causes

A

Bipolar affective disorder, psychosis from ischemic neurotoxicity or excessive pruning

131
Q

Glutamate decrease causes

A

memory and learning difficulty, negative symptoms of schizophrenia

132
Q

Opioid neuropeptides decrease causes

A

substance abuse

133
Q

General function of what neurotransmitter?: Thinking, decision-making, reward-seeking behavior, fine muscle action, integrated cognition

A

Dopamine D1-like, D2-like

134
Q

Symptoms of Deficit of this neurotransmitter: mild: poor impulse control, poor spatiality, and lack of abstractive thought. severe: Parkinson’s disease, endocrine alterations, and movement disorders.

A

Dopamine D1-like, D2-like

135
Q

Symptoms of Excess of this neurotransmitter: Mild: improved creativity, improved ability for abstract thinking, improved executive functioning, and improved spatiality

A

Dopamine D1-like, D2-like

136
Q

General function of what neurotransmitter? Alertness, focused attention, orientation, primes “fight or flight, learning, and memory

A

norepinephrine alpha 1 and alpha 2

137
Q

Symptoms of Deficit of this neurotransmitter: dullness, low energy, and depressive affect

A

norepinephrine alpha 1 and alpha 2

138
Q

Symptoms of excess of this neurotransmitter: anxiety, hyper alertness, increased startle, paranoia, and decreased appetite

A

norepinephrine alpha 1 and alpha 2

139
Q

General function of what neurotransmitter? Regulation of sleep, pain perception, mood states, temperature, regulation of aggression, libido, precursor for melatonin

A

Serotonin, 5HT1a, 5HT1d, 5HT2, 5HT2a, 5hT3, 5HT4

140
Q

Symptoms of deficit of this neurotransmitter: irritability, hostility, depression, sleep dysregulation, loss of appetite, loss of libido

A

Serotonin, 5HT1a, 5HT1d, 5HT2, 5HT2a, 5hT3, 5HT4

141
Q

Symptoms of excess of this neurotransmitter: sedation, increased aggression, hallucinations (rare)

A

Serotonin, 5HT1a, 5HT1d, 5HT2, 5HT2a, 5hT3, 5HT4

142
Q

General function of what neurotransmitter? Attention, memory, thirst, mood regulation, REM sleep, sexual behavior, muscle tone

A

Acetylcholine, Nicotinic, Muscarinic

143
Q

Symptoms of deficit of this neurotransmitter: lack of inhibition, decreased memory, euphoria, antisocial action, speech decrease, dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation

A

Acetylcholine, Nicotinic, Muscarinic

144
Q

Symptoms of excess of this neurotransmitter: over-inhibition, anxiety, depression, somatic complaints, self-consciousness, drooling, and extrapyramidal movements

A

Acetylcholine, Nicotinic, Muscarinic

145
Q

General function of what neurotransmitter: Reduces arousal, reduces aggression, reduces anxiety, reduces excitation

A

GABA, GABAa, GABAb

146
Q

Symptoms of deficit of this neurotransmitter: irritability, hostility, tension and worry, anxiety, seizure activity

A

GABA, GABAa, GABAb

147
Q

Symptoms of excess of this neurotransmitter: reduced cellular excitability, sedation, impaired memory

A

GABA, GABAa, GABAb

148
Q

General function of this neurotransmitter: Memory, sustained automatic functions

A

Glutamate, AMPA, MNDA

149
Q

Symptoms of deficit of this neurotransmitter: poor memory, low energy, distractible

A

Glutamate, AMPA, MNDA

150
Q

Symptoms of excess of this neurotransmitter: kindling, seizures, anxiety of panic

A

Glutamate, AMPA, MNDA

151
Q

General function of this neurotransmitter: modulate emotions, reward-center function, consolidation of memory, modulate reactions to stress

A

Peptides: opioid type mu, kappa, epsilon, delta, and sigma

152
Q

Symptoms of deficit of this neurotransmitter: hypersensitivity to pain and stress, decreased pleasure sensation, dysphoria

A

Peptides: opioid type mu, kappa, epsilon, delta, and sigma

153
Q

Symptoms of excess of this neurotransmitter: catatonic like movement disturbance, auditory hallucinations, decreased memory

A

Peptides: opioid type mu, kappa, epsilon, delta, and sigma