PMHNP certificate study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Best Interview Technique for identifying antisocial disorder

A

The Stress Interview: You confront inconsistencies in the patient history.

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2
Q

Classical Conditioning is learning by

A

association

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3
Q

Operant conditioning is learning by

A

consequences

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4
Q

Autonomy

A

The right to self-govern free from external control or influnece

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5
Q

Beneificence

A

Doing good, promoting well being

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6
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Do no harm

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7
Q

Veracity

A

Conformity to facts, truthfulness and accuracy

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8
Q

Justice

A

equitable and reasonable

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9
Q

Respect

A

regard for the feelings, wishes, rights, and traditions of others

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10
Q

Deontological Theory

A

An action is judged as good or bad based on its merits REGARDLESS of the consequence

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11
Q

Teleolgical Theory

A

The goodness or badness of an action is based on its foreseeable consequences

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12
Q

Virtue ethics

A

Actions are based on moral principles

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13
Q

Dependent Variable

A

The factor that changes as a result of the independent variable

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14
Q

Independent Variable

A

The intervention intended to cause the change

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15
Q

Internal Validity

A

The degree to which an experiment avoids confounding independent variables

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16
Q

The more causative the factors are controlled the higher the

A

internal validity

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17
Q

A high internal validity indicates

A

a stronger cause and effect relationship

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18
Q

External Validity

A

Degree to which findings from one study can be applied to real world situations

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19
Q

The more controls exerted to enhance internal validity the…

A

weaker the external validity

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20
Q

Reliability

A

Accuracy over time, items, and researchers

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21
Q

Descriptive Statistics

A

Identifies basic features of a data set

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22
Q

Inferential statistics

A

allows samples to be generalizable to the population

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23
Q

Leading cause of death for 1-44

A

unintentional injuries

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24
Q

Leading cause of death for 45-64

A

Cancer

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25
Q

Leading cause of death for 65 and older

A

heart disease

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26
Q

Specificity

A

Looks for true negatives

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27
Q

Sensitivity

A

Looks for true positives

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28
Q

Perceived susceptibility

A

One’s belief regarding the chance of getting a condition

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29
Q

Perceived Severity

A

One’s belief of how dangerous a condition and its sequelae would be if contracted

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30
Q

Name some of the key concepts of the Health Belief Model

A

Perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, perceived barriers, cues to action, self-efficacy

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31
Q

Name some key concepts of the Transtheoretical Model (TTM)

A

Stages of change, Decisional Balance, Self-efficacy, process of change

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32
Q

precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance are all part of…

A

The stages of Change from the Transtheoretical Model

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33
Q

Considering pros and cons are part of what part of what health care model?

A

Decisional Balance from the Transtheoretical Model

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34
Q

Confidence, temptation, importance ruler, confidence ruler are what part of what health care model?

A

Self-Efficacy from the transtheoretical model

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35
Q

Consciousness raising, dramatic relief, self re-evaluation, environmental re-evaluation, self-liberation, helping relationships, counter conditioning, reinforcement management, stimulus control, social liberation are all part of what part of what health care model?

A

Process of Change from transtheoretical model

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36
Q

Five parts of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs from base to top

A

physiologic needs, safety needs, love and belonging, self-esteem, self-actualization

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37
Q

What part of Maslow’s hierarchy does a hospital general provide?

A

physiological and safety

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38
Q

What part of Maslow’s hierarchy can a partial hospitalization address?

A

Needs of belonging and eventually self-esteem

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39
Q

What part of Maslow’s hierarchy can vocational rehab, psychodynamic therapy and psychoanaylsis address?

A

helps work through self-actualization

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40
Q

High risk situations with immediate precipitant to relapse…there are four

A

Negative emotional states, interpersonal conflict, social pressure, positive emotional states

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41
Q

Leaving a high-risk situation, positive self-talk, calling a friend, planning another activity, contingency planning, avoidance of high-risk situations are all examples of…

A

effective coping in the relapse prevention theory

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42
Q

Using the vice as the coping strategy, lingering in a high-risk environment, minimizing potential harms are all examples of

A

ineffective coping in the relapse prevention theory

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43
Q

Belief in one’s ability to effectively cope and the expectation about the outcome

A

self-efficacy

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44
Q

Cognitive restructuring in which the lapse is distinguished from a relapse and seen as an isolated mistake, the client resumes abstinence behavior despite negative feelings of failure, OR the client decides to negate sobriety and attempts to quell negative emotional state by further lapses.

A

Abstinence violation effect (AVE)

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45
Q

Learned behaviors occur in a social context, expectations and outcomes reinforce the behavior and increase sustainability

A

Social Learning Theory

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46
Q

The patient learns a healthy behavior and likes the result, increases likelihood of continuing the behavior

A

Direct experience

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47
Q

Freebie skip

A

Freebie skip

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48
Q

The patient observes a negative consequence to a behavior, which reduces the likelihood that the behavior will be adopted. Patient has learned not to do the potentially harmful behavior.

A

Vicarious learning

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49
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 0-1

A

Trust vs. Mistrust

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50
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 1.5-3

A

Autonomy vs. Shame

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51
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 4-6

A

Initiative vs. Guilt

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52
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 7-12

A

Industry vs. inferiority

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53
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 13-20

A

identity vs. role confusion

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54
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 21-35

A

intimacy vs. isolation

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55
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage 36-65

A

Generativity vs. stagnation

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56
Q

Erik Erikson’s developmental stage >66

A

Ego integrity vs. despair

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57
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with mistrust?

A

Dysthymia, Schizotypal personality, Addictive predisposition

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58
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with shame?

A

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder, Paranoid personality

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59
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with inferiority?

A

Dependent personality

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60
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with guilt?

A

Inhibition Fear, timidity Somatization

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61
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with role confusion?

A

Antisocial personality, Borderline personality

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62
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with isolation?

A

Schizoid personality disorder, Avoidant personality

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63
Q

What mental health disorders are associated with stagnation?

A

Narcissistic, Avoidance

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64
Q

What mental health states are associated with despair?

A

Isolation and desperation

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65
Q

Building blocks of knowledge. The child develops a mental representation of the world (units of information relating to aspects of the physical world).

A

Schemas by Jean PIaget

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66
Q

A process that enables the transition from one stage to another

A

Jean Piaget’s adaptation

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67
Q

Three components of Jean Piaget’s adapatation?

A

Equilibrium, assimilation, accommodation

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68
Q

A force that moves the development along, happens when a child’s schema can deal with the new information by assimilation

A

Jean Piaget’s equilibrium

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69
Q

Uses an existing schema to deal with a new object or situation (e.g., an 18-month-old child sees a bald-headed man with a bowtie, and immediately starts crying saying “no doctor, no doctor”).

A

Jean Piaget’s assimilation

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70
Q

When the child is unable to assimilate the new information into an existing schema, they form a new one (e.g., the 18-month-old child’s mother explains that even though the man is wearing a bowtie and is bald, he is not a doctor because he is not giving the child a shot. The child then learns not every bald-headed man with a bowtie is going to give him an injection).

A

Jean Piaget, accomodation

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71
Q

What are Jean Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A

sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations

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72
Q

What developmental stage is sensorimotor in Jean Piaget’s theory?

A

Sensorimotor (birth to 2 years): The child learns that an object still exists even if he cannot see it.

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73
Q

What developmental stage is preoperational in Jean Piaget’s theory?

A

Preoperational (2–7 years): The child learns a symbolic representation of either pictures or words. A child cries if, when he says cookie, he receives a picture of the cookie rather than the cookie. Egocentricity with difficulty taking the viewpoint of another.

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74
Q

What developmental stage is concrete operations in Jean Piaget’s theory?

A

Concrete operations (7–11 years): Children start to work things out in their heads, develop number conservation (four quarters is the same as $1.00, is the same as 100 pennies).

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75
Q

Sullivan’s Stages of Interpersonal Development Birth-18 months

A

Developmental task oral gratification

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76
Q

Sullivan’s Stages of Interpersonal Development 18 months to 6 years

A

Delayed gratification (toilet training)

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77
Q

Sullivan’s Stages of Interpersonal Development 6-9 years

A

Social skills/peer realtionships

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78
Q

Sullivan’s Stages of Interpersonal Development 9-12 years

A

Same-sex relationships

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79
Q

Sullivan’s Stages of Interpersonal Development 12-14 years

A

Opposite Sex relationships

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80
Q

Sullivan’s Stages of Interpersonal Development 14-21 years

A

Developed self-identity

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81
Q

Freud stages 0-18 months

A

Oral gratification

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82
Q

Freud Stages 18 months - 3years

A

Anal/ toilet training/delayed gratification

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83
Q

Freud Stages 3-6 years

A

Phallic/Sexual exhibitionism

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84
Q

Freud Stages 6-16 years

A

Latency/socialization and identity development

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85
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Denial

A

Refusal to believe a painful reality

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86
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Displacement

A

Shifting an impulse toward a more acceptable object

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87
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Rationalization

A

Self-Justifying explanation instead of reality which is perceived as threatening

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88
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Projection

A

Disguising one’s impulse by attributing it to others

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89
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Reaction Formation

A

Switching unacceptable impulses into the opposite impulse

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90
Q

Defense Mechanisms: Regression

A

Retreating to a previously mastered developmental stage

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91
Q

Defense Mechanism: Conversion

A

Psychological angst manifested as a physical symptom

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92
Q

Defense Mechanism: Dissociation

A

Out of body experience, disconnected from the physical world

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93
Q

Defense Mechanism: Humor

A

Seeking a funny aspect in a stressful situation to reduce associated anxiety

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94
Q

Defense Mechanism: intellectualization

A

Considering an emotional issue in intellectual terms

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95
Q

Defense Mechanism: Undoing

A

Behavior in an attempt to correct a past unacceptable behavior

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96
Q

Defense Mechanism: Sublimation

A

Substituting a socially acceptable constructive activity for a robust contrasting impulse

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97
Q

Super Ego

A

Morality, right versus wrong, guilt versus shame, moral obligations versus fantasies. The therapist attempts to function in the role of an external superego.

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98
Q

Clinical caritas guide the practice of nursing and are essential in creating a therapeutic relationship and alliance for healing.

A

Jean Watson

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99
Q

Cultural care, patients have the same basic needs regardless of culture, but culture provides context for care and meaning for suffering.

A

Madeline Leininger

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100
Q

Theory of interpersonal relationships. Emphasis on the give and take of the nurse-client relationship, asking open ended questions, reflective listening, affirming, validation, etc..

A

Hildegard Peplau

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101
Q

A psychodynamic phenomenon characterizing the perceived bond between the patient and therapist. It is the most predictive factor of a successful outcome.

A

Therapeutic alliance

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102
Q

What are the three phases of therapy?

A

Orientation, working/treatment, and termination

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103
Q

Based on the premise that unconscious motivations and instinctual drives cause the implementation of defense mechanisms. Change happens by promoting greater insight and awareness regarding defense mechanisms. Based on speculation of psychodynamic development factors that may have occurred earlier in life.

A

Psychoanalytic therapy

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104
Q

Focuses on present events and maladaptive responses/behaviors. Helps the client to view reality more objectively by examining cognitive distortions and automatic thought patterns.

A

CBT

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105
Q

Most common and effective therapy for clients with borderline and narcissistic traits. Aims to regulate emotions, increase distress tolerance, develop self-management and interpersonal skills, and promote mindfulness.

A

DBT

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106
Q

Socratic questioning to enhance reflection and self-confrontation. Based on the premise of finding purpose in one’s life and circumstances. Emphasizes accepting reality and responsible decision-making.

A

Existential therapy

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107
Q

Sometimes called patient-centered therapy. Assumes man is good. Specific aims include facilitating self-directed growth toward self-actualization and finding meaning in life and circumstances. Gratitude Journals. Encourages socialization behaviors, loving, kindness, meditation, altruism, savoring.

A

Humanistic Therapy

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108
Q

Socratic questioning to examine interpersonal issues that are creating current distress. Manualized and time limited. Focuses on the present and interpersonal distress. Specially developed for symptoms of depression, effective in adolescents and adults.

A

Interpersonal therapy

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109
Q

Distraction by bilateral stimulation of both cerebral hemispheres by moving eyes back and forth between two point, or alternating tapping between hands, or stereo sounds alternating between ears. Commonly used in PTSD to achieve adaptive resolution. Patient must be able to tolerate and narrate their trauma.

A

Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing.

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110
Q

Developed by Irvin Yalom and builds on CBT and psychoanalytic constructs and involves 10 therapeutic curative factors.

A

Group Therapy

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111
Q

Universality

A

Participants discover others with similar circumstances, thoughts, feelings, behaviors.

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112
Q

Altruism

A

Provides an opportunity to help participants progress in something.

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113
Q

Interpersonal learning

A

Interactions with other people provide opportunities to learn about relationship dynamics and intimacy.

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114
Q

Imitative behaviors

A

Allows participants to copy the behaviors of others. The behavior may be adaptive or maladaptive.

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115
Q

Group Cohesiveness

A

Participants develop an attractive to other group members and a sense of belonging is enhanced

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116
Q

Catharsis

A

The opportunity to openly express previously suppressed feelings, thoughts, and insights

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117
Q

Existential factors

A

Participants learn to find meaning in loss and suffering, and learn to deal with the frustrations of reality rather than reverting to a previous pattern of avoidance

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118
Q

Corrective Refocusing

A

Participants can visit issues related to the family of origin through the recapitualtion of family dynamics as they arise within the group. The group serves as a substitute family where group members are siblings and the facilitator is the parental figure.

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119
Q

Installation of Hope

A

Participants can witness changes in other group members, allowing them to actualize the possibility of social skills.

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120
Q

Increased development of social skills

A

Group provides a natural laboratory for immediate feedback regarding the effectiveness of an individual’s adaptive or maladaptive behavior

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121
Q

The Five phases of group dynamics

A

Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

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122
Q

What is the Forming stage?

A

Feeling guarded and anxious and fearful. The leader should identify goals, expectations, and boundaries in this phase.

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123
Q

What is the Storming stage?

A

Participants will demonstrate resistance, sabotaging, and clique formation. Leader should allow for expression of both positive and negative feelings and help the group to examine nonproductive behaviors and underlying conflicts.

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124
Q

What is the Norming stage?

A

Group members overcome initial resistance and begin to develop cohesion. Open and spontaneous communication occurs and the group norms are solidified.

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125
Q

What is the performing stage?

A

The primary objective and work of the group become more focused, members begin to engage in creative problem-solving, interpersonal learning takes place in the group, and the group is unified toward goal achievement.

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126
Q

What is the Adjourning stage?

A

Active termination process. Leaders and members express feelings about each other in regard to termination, review achieved goals and outcomes, and identify future work remaining.

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127
Q

Protective mechanisms that maintain the functional integrity of the family unit, individuals, and subsystems within the family.

A

Boundaries

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128
Q

This type of boundary causes estrangement in the long-term or disengagement in the short term.

A

Rigid Boundaries

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129
Q

This type of boundary causes enmeshment and parentification of children.

A

Diffuse boundaries

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130
Q

This type of boundary allows individuals to maintain their unique identities while communicating love and belonging to all members of the system.

A

Clearly defined boundaries.

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131
Q

circular causality

A

a feedback loop characterized by a series of actions and reaction that pereptuate a problem.

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132
Q

Familial tendency to resist change in order to maintain a steady state, even if the state is one of dysfunction.

A

Homeostasis

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133
Q

The family’s tendency adn ability to change when necessary or remain the same in the midst of change.

A

Adaptability

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134
Q

This assumes an individual’s behavior serves a role or function with in the family unit perpetuating or protecting against dysfunction.

A

Family systems therapy

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135
Q

Perceiving one’s intrinsic value rather than depending on external relationships and circumstances to derive self-worth.

A

Self-differentation

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136
Q

A dyadic relationship that extends to a triad in order to reduce stress within the dyad more commonly occurs in morphostatic (less adaptable) families

A

Triangles

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137
Q

Characterized in families where parental units, levels of differentiation are reflective of familial differentiation (e.g. if parents perceive their intrinsic self-worth, those in their care will also perceive their self-worth).

A

Nuclear Family

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138
Q

Passing along dysfunctional behaviors throughout generations of the family unit.

A

Transmission process

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139
Q

Parental differentiation is transmitted to the most susceptible child. (Parent derives their self-worth from the relationship with a child, creates an enmeshed dyad).

A

Projection Process

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140
Q

The breaking of contact with the family of origin

A

Cutoffs

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141
Q

An influencing factor in familial interactions and individual personality characteristics.

A

Birth order

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142
Q

Drawing from a family systems therapy in which the therapist’s role is to gain an understanding of familial transactions in order to implement a change of organization to manage problems more effectively. Symptoms are a product of dysfunctional transaction patterns within the family. The family structure is a frame created by functional demands that articulate the transactional processes.

A

Structural family therapy

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143
Q

Problem focused therapy that focuses on changing the sequence of interactions that is causing the problem. This therapy aims to help family members behave in a manner that will not perpetuate problem behaviors and thereby reduce symptoms.

A

Strategic Family therapy

144
Q

A therapist capitalizes on solutions that previously worked while enhancing individual and familial self-efficacy. This strength based approach uses Socratic questioning to elicit necessary information and to probe for possible solutions.

A

Solution focused therapy.

145
Q

If a miracle were to happen tonight while you are asleep, and tomorrow morning you awoke to find that the problem no longer existed, what would be different? How would you know if the miracle took place? How would others know if the miracle took place?

A

Miracle Question

146
Q

Inquiring about a time in life when the problem did not exist helps the family move toward solutions by noting exception to the problem pattern of behavior.

A

Exception finding questions

147
Q

On a 1 to 10 scale with 1 being the worst and 10 being the best how woul dyou rate your feelings now…or how important is it to you to make this change now?

A

Scaling questions

148
Q

These therapies include guided imagery, meditation, yoga, and biofeedback.

A

Mind-body interventions

149
Q

These interventions include acupressure, acupuncture, massage, and reflexology

A

Manipulative physical interventions

150
Q

Tryptophan as an alt therapy

A

Commonly used for pain, depression HA, obesity. INCREASES risk of serotonin syndrome when used with SSRI, MAOI, and St. John’s Wart

151
Q

Sam-e as an alt therapy

A

used for depression and pain. Adverse effects include manic symptoms, movement disorders and serotonin syndrome

152
Q

Omega 3 fatty acids as an alt therapy

A

used for ADHD, inflammatory conditions, and circulatory problems. Known to interact adversely with NSAIDS and anticoagulants. Risk compounded when used with SSRIs. Should be stopped before surgery.

153
Q

These organize life preserving reflexes, promote arousal or sleep, and process sensory input and motor output (hand to stove, pain withdraw), mediated by interneurons.

A

Brainstem and spinal cord

154
Q

This regulates eating, drinking, sexual behavior, aggression, temperature, and the endocrine system.

A

hypothalamus

155
Q

The hypothalamus regulates

A

eating, drinking, sexual behavior, aggression, temperature, and the endocrine system.

156
Q

The limbic system includes

A

amygdala, septal area, hippocampus, and the cingulate gyrus which control emotions.

157
Q

This system includes the amygdala, septal area, hippocampus, and the cingulate gyrus which control emotions.

A

limbic system

158
Q

The frontal lobe controls

A

reasoning, planning, parts of speech movement, emotions, problem-solving, and personality

159
Q

Reasoning, planning, parts of speech movement, emotions, problem-solving, and personality are controlled by

A

the frontal lobe

160
Q

The parietal lobe regulates

A

touch, pressure, temperature, pain and perception

161
Q

Touch, pressure, temperature, pain and perception are controlled by the

A

parietal lobe

162
Q

Recognition, hearing and memory are found in

A

the temporal lobe

163
Q

The temporal lobe is involved in

A

recognition, hearing, and memory

164
Q

The occipital lobe controls

A

vision

165
Q

The cerebellum involves

A

movement, balance, and posture

166
Q

movement, balance and posture are due to

A

cerebellum

167
Q

This controls respirations, heart rate, and blood pressure

A

the brainstem

168
Q

The brainstem controls

A

respirations, heart rate, and blood pressure

169
Q

Dysfunctions of the cerebral cortex include

A

Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, vascular dementia

170
Q

When does the frontal lobe reach full maturity and when might it began to atrophy?

A

mid to late 20’s and the 60’s

171
Q

This lobe controls voluntary movement and ability to project future consequences due to current behaviors, governs according to social cues, distinguishes similarities and differences

A

Frontal lobe

172
Q

This is IN the dominant hemisphere of the brain and is associated with SPEECH production (fluency)

A

Broca’s area

173
Q

A dysfunction in Broca’s area may result in

A

stuttering and expressive aphasia

174
Q

Incongruent affect, decreased motivation, impaired judgement and attention and confabulation may indicate a dysfunction where?

A

Frontal lobe

175
Q

This comprises 83% of the brain, both right and left hemispheres, separated by the central sulcus.

A

Cerebrum

176
Q

The brain is subdivided into 52 areas referred to as

A

Broadmann’s areas.

177
Q

Regulates the feedback system to stabilize the information transmitted from the CNS to skeletal muscles

A

Basal Ganglia AKA corpus striatum

178
Q

What are the three dopminergic pathways

A

mesocorticolimbic, nigrostriatal, and tuberoinfundibular

179
Q

Transmits dopamine to the prefrontal cortex and midbrain

A

Mesocorticolimbic

180
Q

ADHD is due to a disorder of which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Mesocorticolimbic

181
Q

Addiction is due to a disorder of which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Mesocorticolimbic

182
Q

Schizophrenia is due to a disorder of which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Mesocorticolimbic

183
Q

Aversion-related thoughts, reward-related thoughts (incentive, pleasure, positive reinforcement), and executive function are all part of which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Mesocorticolimbic

184
Q

Transmits dopamine from the substantia nigra, also in the midbrain, and to the putamen and caudate nucleus.

A

Nigrostriatal

185
Q

Chorea is due to which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Nigrostriatal

186
Q

Parkinson’s disease is due to which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Nigrostriatal

187
Q

Motor functioning and associate learning are all part of what dopaminergic pathways?

A

Nigrostriatal

188
Q

Transmits dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, and influences the secretion of prolactin-releasing hormone.

A

Tuberoinfundibular

189
Q

Hyperprolactinemia is the primary disorder in which dopaminergic pathway?

A

Tuberoinfundibular

190
Q

This dopaminergic pathway triggers the release of prolactin

A

Tuberoinfundibular

191
Q

Tourette’s syndrome, Parkinson’s, Cognitive Impairment, Inattention, Choreiform movements, ruminations, bradykinesia, hyperkinesia, and dsytonia are all a dysfunction of what brain structure.

A

Basal ganglia

192
Q

Contains the diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus. Contains components of the limbic system and Wernicke’s area.

A

Temporal lobe

193
Q

This area in the brain is associated with comprehension

A

Wernicke’s area

194
Q

Processes memory and emotional response (mood, fear, anxiety, aggression)

A

Amygdala

195
Q

Receives sensory inputs (touch, audio, visual), serves as the gateway to the cortex, provides a functional delay of impulses to keep from overwhelming the cortex.

A

Thalamus

196
Q

CVAs that alter the perception of inputs and lead to unresponsiveness, alterations in sleep-wake cycles and receptive aphasia are all dysfunctions of this brain structure

A

thalamus

197
Q

Directly above the brainstem, controls homeostasis and hormones, controls the pituitary gland by secreting releasing hormones, also creates oxytocin and vasopressin.

A

Hypothalamus

198
Q

This controls the autonomic nervous system such as emotional response, temperature, hunger, thirst, sexual behavior, sleep-wake cycle and memory

A

Hypothalamus.

199
Q

Master gland of the body; controlled by the hypothalamus to maintain homeostasis by the release of hormones.

A

Pituitary gland

200
Q

The anterior pituitary gland releases which hormones?
(Go Find Long Acting Tylenol Please)

A

Growth hormone, follicule stimulating hormone, leutinizing hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, thyroid simulating hormone, and prolactin

201
Q

The posterior pituitary gland releases which hormones?

A

oxytocin and vasopressin

202
Q

This part of the brain has sensory area integration, sense of touch, attentiveness, spatial awareness, conscious awareness of the opposite side of the body language

A

Parietal lobe

203
Q

Primary visual cortex, receives stimuli via optic tracts, interprets color, form, and movement if visually perceived objects.

A

Occipital lobe
What: temporal
Where: parietal

204
Q

Dysfunction of the cerebellum results in

A

loss of trunk control

205
Q

Automatic programmed reflexive behaviors, all cranial nerves come from here and integrate sensory input from the head, neck and face

A

brainstem

206
Q

Brainstem area: Dopaminergic cell bodies originate from within, associated with reward circuits cognition, motivation, and orgasms), and extends to the temporal lobe.

A

Ventral tegmental area

207
Q

This brainstem area receives input from cortex, innervates the thalamus and hypothalamus, regulates involuntary movement, reflexes, muscle tone, and vital signs.

A

Medulla oblongata

208
Q

This system regulates bodily functions to maintain homeostasis, conveys information from the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system, and regulates involuntary movements; emotions.

A

Autonomic Nervous System

209
Q

This system controls the excitatory, prepares the body for fight, flight, or freeze during stress.

A

Sympathetic nervous system

210
Q

This system is inhibitory; allows for resting, digesting, and orgasming.

A

Parasympathetic system.

211
Q

This system is comprised of spinal nerves and cranial nerves, responsible for voluntary movements, conducting impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery skeletal muscles.

A

Somatic nervous system

212
Q

Cranial Nerve I

A

Olfactory/smell

213
Q

Cranial Nerve II

A

Optic/Visual fields

214
Q

Cranial Nerve III

A

Oculomotor Coordinated eye movements, eye lid droop, pupil dilation

215
Q

Cranial Nerve IV

A

Trocheal downward medially

216
Q

Cranial V

A

Trigeminal Opthalmic, maxillary, mandibular to allow chewing

217
Q

Cranial VI

A

Abducens eye movement downward gaze

218
Q

Cranial VII

A

Facial Facial expression, touch sensation

219
Q

Cranial VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear hearing and balance

220
Q

Cranial IX

A

Glossopharyngeal gag reflex, taste, salivation

221
Q

Cranial X

A

Vagus vital signs, vocal tone swallowing

222
Q

Cranial XI

A

Accessory/spinal shoulder shrug head turn

223
Q

Cranial XII

A

Hypoglossal tongue movement

224
Q

What are the effects of acetylcholine

A

INCREASES heart rate, secretions, sweating, salivation, memory, muscle contractions

225
Q

What are the associated pathologies with acetylcholine

A

Increased: Parkinsonism Decreased: Dementia

226
Q

What are the effects of norepinephrine?

A

INCREASES heart rate, alertness, well being/ DECREASES: pain sensitivity, circulation

227
Q

What pathologies are associated with norepinephrine?

A

Increased: Anxiety Decreased: Depression

228
Q

What are the effects of dopamine?

A

INCREASES: sense of well-being satiety DECREASES hunger and cravings

229
Q

What medication categories are dopamine antagonists?

A

antipsychotics

230
Q

What are the associated pathologies for dopamine?

A

INCREASED: psychosis DECREAESED: Parkinson’s disease, anhedonia, addiction

231
Q

What are the effects of Serotonin (5-HT)?

A

INCREASES well being, satiety, reduces pain perception

232
Q

What medication categories are serotonin antagonists?

A

Atypical antipsychotics

233
Q

What are the associated pathologies of Serotonin (5-HT)?

A

INCREASED: serotonin syndrome DECREASED: Depression, OCD, Anxiety

234
Q

What are the effects of Glutamate?

A

Most common excitatory neurotransmitter, heightens perception (usually taste)

235
Q

What are the effects of GABA?

A

Inhibitory increases sleepiness, decreases anxiety, alertness, memory, muscle tension

236
Q

What are the associated pathologies of GABA?

A

Decreased: Anxiety

237
Q

What are the effects of Opioids (neuropeptides)?

A

INCREASES sedation; DECREASES anxiety and pain perception

238
Q

What are the effects of histamines?

A

INCREASES: alertness, stomach acid, skin sensitivity

239
Q

Altered alpha waves in an EEG are due to

A

coma and anoxic brain injury

240
Q

Altered beta waves in an EEG are due to

A

barbiturates, benzodiazepines, neuroleptics

241
Q

These EEG waves are considered abnormal in the awake adult

A

Theta waves

242
Q

These EEG waves are associated with deep sleep, abnormal ones indicate localized pathology, diffuse, and generalized dysfunction consistent with delirium.

A

Delta waves

243
Q

What scan is commonly used in psychiatry to distinguish dementia?

A

PET Scan

244
Q

A normal developed human as how many chromosomes?

A

46 total, 23 pairs from each parent.

245
Q

What is the risk for schizophrenia inheritability?

A

50%

246
Q

What is the risk for bipolar inheritability?

A

70%

247
Q

at is the risk for ADHD inheritability?

A

70%

248
Q

A 12 item tool with a 5 point rating scale for seven body areas where tardive dyskinesia commonly manifests

A

Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS)

249
Q

What is an abnormal AIMS score and what do you do?

A

2 body areas or three or greater in one body area. Discontinue or reduce offending medications.

250
Q

A clinician administered, four item scale to assess the objective and subjective symptoms of akathisia ( a syndrome of motor restlessness, subjective experience of mental unease) in patients receiving psychotropic medications.

A

BARS

251
Q

A two question survey administered to parents and teachers to quantify symptoms of ADHD. What score is markedly atypical?

A

Connors Rating Scales-Revised (CRS-R) >70

252
Q

Short clinician adminstered screening tool for alcohol use disorder.

A

CAGE-AID

253
Q

A screening test for cognitive function comparable to the mini mental status exam. Tests for orientation, memory, attention, and executive function.

A

Saint Louis University mental status (SLUMS)

254
Q

Developed to detect early mild cognitive impairment; better suited to those with higher educational attainment. What score is normal regardless of education?

A

Montreal Cognitive Assessment >26

255
Q

A 30 item binary questionnaire to measure depressive symptoms in older adults. The short form contains 15 questions.

A

Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)

256
Q

Self-report or clinician assisted measure of depressive symptoms comprised of 17-21 questions commonly used at baseline and to measure progress of treatment.

A

Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HAM-D)

257
Q

A self-administered depression screening tool commonly used in primary care settings as a reliable measure of the severity of depressive symptoms.

A

Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ 2/9)

258
Q

A 16 item self-report survey assessing the severity of depression. Best used in someone who is diagnosed rather than to diagnose depression.

A

Quick Inventory of Depressive Symptomatology (QIDS)

259
Q

A self-report, clinician administered 10 item scale to evaluate severity of obsessions or compulsions in previously diagnosed children with OCD. AGES 6-14.

A

Children’s Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (CY-BOCS)

260
Q

A self report 10 item scale for people older than 14 to measure progress of OCD in patients previously diagnosed.

A

Yale Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (YBOCS)

261
Q

A nine-item administered/observed rating scale to quantify the severity of alcohol withdrawal symptoms to guide medication dosing and monitor response to treatment over time.

A

CIWA

262
Q

A clinician administered/observed tool to quantify the severity of opioid withdrawal symptoms in order to guide medication management. Commonly used in MAT during induction of buprenorphine.

A

COWS

263
Q

Night Terrors (sleep cycle and memory)

A

Non REM sleep disorder therefore the patient will not remember the nightmare

264
Q

Nightmare disorder (sleep cycle and memory)

A

REM sleep and there fore the patient may recollect the nightmare.

265
Q

Legislation and enforcement to ban or control the use of hazardous products or to mandate safe and healthy practice are what type of prevention?

A

Primary

266
Q

Education about healthy and safe habits is what type of prevention?

A

Primary

267
Q

Immunizations against infectious disease are what type of prevention?

A

Primary

268
Q

This type of prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs.

A

Primary

269
Q

This type of prevention aims to reduce the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred.

A

Secondary

270
Q

Regular exams and screening tests to detect disease in its earliest stages are what type of prevention?

A

Secondary

271
Q

Daily low dose aspirin and/or diet and exercise programs to prevent further heart attacks or strokes are what type of prevention?

A

Secondary

272
Q

Suitably modified work so injured or ill workers can return safely to their jobs are what type of prevention?

A

Secondary

273
Q

This type of prevention aims to soften the impact of ongoing illness or injury that has lasting effects.

A

Tertiary

274
Q

Cardiac or stroke rehabilitation programs, chronic disease management programs are what type of prevention?

A

Tertiary

275
Q

Support groups that allow members to share strategies for living well are what type of prevention?

A

Tertiary

276
Q

Vocational rehabilitation programs to retrain workers for new jobs when they have recovered as much as possible are what type of prevention?

A

Tertiary

277
Q

Reframing beliefs in Strategic Family Therapy

A

Relabeling a problematic behavior to have a more positive family

278
Q

Creating family triangles to decrease stress is what type of therapy?

A

An intervention in family systems therapy

279
Q

Mapping relationships using symbols is also known as structural mapping is an intervention used in

A

Structural family therapy

280
Q

Giving family a task in expectation of their compliance is considered what type of intervention in what type of therapy?

A

Directive in Strategic family therapy

281
Q

Functionalism is what type of theory?

A

macro theory

282
Q

Family systems, social exchange, symbolic interaction are what types of theories?

A

micro theory

283
Q

What is a mesosystem?

A

It is when multiple influences in a child’s life interact such as parents’ relationship with school.

284
Q

What is a microsystem in therapy?

A

A child’s interaction with an influence (e.g. the child’s relationship with their family, child’s relationship with masa media, the impact of the school on the child)

285
Q

According to Erikson’s eight stages of development, egocentricity can come as an unsuccessful resolution of the psychosocial crisis called

A

Intimacy versus isolation

286
Q

Carol Gilligan’s concept supported Kohlberg’s with the idea

A

that the progression of moral development occurs in three major divisions

287
Q

The scientist who noted a discernible pattern in the difference in cognitive processing between young children and older children while scoring Binet Intelligence Tests is

A

Jean Piaget

288
Q

The process of self-reappraisal to assess the effect of a particular unhealthy behavior on others is

A

environmental re-evaluation

289
Q

self-liberation is a process found in the behavioral change stage of

A

preparation

290
Q

The process of concsiousness raising, dramatic belief, and re-evaluation is found in

A

contemplation

291
Q

The process of re-evaluation is found in

A

contemplation

292
Q

The process of counter-conditioning, stimulus control and helping relationship is found in

A

the action stage

293
Q

excessive dependcy, envy, and jealousy are found in which of Freuds stages?

A

oral

294
Q

Messiness, defiance, and rage are found in which of Freuds stages?

A

Anal

295
Q

Sexual identity issues are found in which of Freuds stages?

A

sexual identity

296
Q

Excessive inner control is found in which of Freud’s stages?

A

Latency stage

297
Q

According to Mahler differentiation phase is?

A

Child recognizes separation from the caretaker at 5-10 months

298
Q

According to Mahler the practicing phase is?

A

The child experiences increased independence and separateness of self

299
Q

According to Mahler the rapprochement phase is?

A

The child seeks emotional refueling from the caretaker

300
Q

According to Mahler the consolidation phase is?

A

The sense of separateness is established

301
Q

In the theory of change outcome, the pathway involving the cessation of monitoring in a project that has no responsibility for outcomes, met, or unmet is?

A

ceiling of accountability

302
Q

In the theory of change outcome the pathway involving the basic ideas behind one intermediate outcome being a prerequisite for the next is?

A

Rationales

303
Q

In the theory of change outcome the measurable things that are visible when a person is about to or has reached an intermediate result are?

A

Indicators

304
Q

In the theory of change outcome the strategy is also known as?

A

the intervention

305
Q

If in a case study a patient is suicidal or has a disorder like borderline the single best type of therapy is?

A

DBT

306
Q

If in a case study a patient is experiencing the continuation phase of depression and CBT is not an option the single best answer is?

A

psychotherapy

307
Q

Rational-emotive therapy was developed by

A

Albert Ellis

308
Q

The concept of behaviorism was developed by

A

John B. Watson

309
Q

Operant conditioning theory was developed by

A

B. F. Skinner

310
Q

Classical conditioning was developed by

A

Ivan Pavlov

311
Q

Interpersonal therapy is about how many sessions?

A

12-20

312
Q

Behavioral therapy is about how many sessions?

A

10 or fewer

313
Q

Psychodynamic therapy generally takes how many sessions?

A

more than 20

314
Q

CBT generally takes how many sessions?

A

5-20

315
Q

Providing a secure environment for the patient to recover is called

A

Milieu Therapy

316
Q

A natural medicine utilized to treat impaired cognition with convicing results, improving cognitive function, neuropsychiatric symptoms with age-related cognitive decline, mild impairment and mild to moderate dementia is?

A

Ginkgo biloba

317
Q

A natural medicine used to treat anxiety and insomnia is?

A

Valerian

318
Q

This natural medicine is thought to lower the risk of developing major depression, prenatal depression, and bipolar depression

A

omega-3 fatty acids

319
Q

The patient has short stature, ocular hypertelorism, and low-set ears. They have a lifelong symptoms of awkward social skills, including being overtalkative, inattentive, and hyperactive The differential diagnosis includes

A

Noonan

320
Q

Diazepam (Valium) is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorder and works by

A

binding to the benzodiazepine receptors which enhances the inhibitory effect of GABA

321
Q

Cultivating a spirit of inquiry is the

A

zero step

322
Q

Asking questions in a well-defined format is the

A

first step

323
Q

Collecting relevant evidence is the

A

second step

324
Q

Critically appraising to evaluate the validity, reliability, and applicability of the evidence is the

A

third step

325
Q

Those with intermittent explosive disorder differ from those with disruptive mood disregulation because

A

IED is likely to lead to property destruction or physical assault while disruptive mood dysregulation is more likely to be verbally abusive or physically but not usually property.

326
Q

the first action that should be taken by a psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner when faced with an aggressive patient who starts shouting is

A

to alert security

327
Q

When speaking with a talkative patient in a clinical interview, the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner should

A

show interest by interrogating further

328
Q

When determining an herbal supplement regimen for a patient, the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner would investigate specific ingredients based on the fact that

A

current regulatory requirements are not effective in management of supplements.

329
Q

a degenerative brain disorder attributed to thiamine deficiency and is often found in patients with alcohol use syndrome. Its signs include ataxia, confusion, and blurred vision resulting from nystagmus.

A

Wernicke encephalopathy

330
Q

The patient is exhibiting mild to moderate intoxication of lithium, which presents with symptoms of vomiting, abdominal pain, dry mouth, ataxia, dizziness, slurred speech, nystagmus, lethargy or excitement, and muscle weakness. Lithium levels will be…

A

1.5-2.0

331
Q

the patient reports persistent nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, syncope, and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The nurse practitioner orders a laboratory test, expecting to see a lithium value of:

A

2-2.5

332
Q

The process in which an electrical impulse is converted into a chemical impulse at the synapse is

A

excitation-secretion coupling

333
Q

The neurotransmitter that is responsible for the inhibition of wakefulness is

A

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

334
Q

Self-determination is based on

A

patient autonomy to make sound healthcare decisions

335
Q

The typical antipsychotic does not improve the condition of the patient. In such cases, the patient can be prescribed clozapine. The clozapine is chosen as the last resort in such cases because it

A

causes sedative side effects by blocking alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

336
Q

Suddenly the patient becomes agitated, is talking to himself, and begins pacing back and forth, moving closer and closer to the nurse practitioner. The nurse practitioner, feeling unsafe, will:

A

step away from the patient and call for security to be present for the remainder of the assessment

337
Q

the most effective way to address aggression and violent tendencies when the patient has demonstrated the ability to practice restraint

A

Prevention strategies that are developed with the patient’s input

338
Q

What two minerals are low in patients with alcohol use disorders due to poor eating habits and malabsorption of minerals

A

Thiamine and niacin

339
Q

Psychoeducational teaching is best received and implemented once the patient has had time for medication to begin working effectively. Typically, this is after

A

2 weeks

340
Q

When introducing a patient with mental health illness to new surroundings with new faces and personalities, it is important to include

A

milieu therapy

341
Q

Before providing the victim of domestic violence with any written material or information on resources, emergency plans, or documented telephone numbers for the children, the nurse practitioner will determine

A

what would happen if the perpetrator found the educational material in the home.

342
Q

In a situation where there is conflict in the family unit, the best treatment plan for optimal recovery is to treat the family as a whole with

A

functional family therapy

343
Q

What is a “closeness circle”

A

determining the people in the patient’s life that contribute to the depression and those the patient feels safe with

344
Q

a widely used tool to determine the severity of alcohol use and is especially beneficial when patients self-identify there may be a problem

A

AUDIT

345
Q

an excellent initial tool if the practitioner suspects alcohol use may be an issue, but it is brief and used to identify a patient’s alcohol use that the patient may not report.

A

CAGE

346
Q

screening tool is specific to patients who are pregnant and drinking

A

T-ACE

347
Q

a screening and intervention approach used to determine and treat high-risk behaviors that may lead to alcohol use disorder

A

SBIRT

348
Q

To determine which screening tool to use for substance use disorder in an young adult female, the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner needs to

A

determine if the patient is pregnant

349
Q

If the patient successfully quits smoking, the nurse practitioner anticipates that the necessary change to the patient’s olanzapine use will be

A

a decrease in dosage

350
Q

When transitioning from an MAOI to another medication such as a stimulant you should

A

stop the MAOI and wait 14 days

351
Q

universal excitatory neurotransmitter

A

glutamate

352
Q

Patients who use antipsychotic medications and are poor metabolizers of CYP2D6 are at risk for

A

antipsychotic-induced extrapyramidal symptoms

353
Q

Suffering within a cultural group is called

A

cultural idiom of distress.

354
Q

Overactivation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis resulting in glucocorticoid cortisol elevation is one consideration in the treatment of

A

MDD

355
Q

A patient presenting with severe hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, diaphoresis, and ocular clonus reports having taken an overdose of a prescribed psychiatric medication approximately 12 hours ago. The nurse practitioner suspects an overdose of:

A

MAOI

356
Q

Slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait, and impaired attention or memory, nystagmus and decreased reflexes. The nurse practitioner suspects an overdose of what medication?

A

Benzodiazepines

357
Q

flushing, dry mucous membranes and skin, fever, and altered mental status and cardiac arrest. The NP suspects an overdose of what medication?

A

TCA