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DSM V reviews > Pertinent information for Testing > Flashcards

Pertinent information for Testing Flashcards

1
Q

What TCA might be a first line for MDD if they also have OCD?

A

Clomipramine

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2
Q

What TCA might be a first line for MDD if they also have migraines?

A

Imipramine

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3
Q

What are the S/S saying for anticholinergic toxicity?

A

red as a beet, dry as a bone, blind as a bat (blind), mad as a hatter, hot as a hare (hyperthermia), and full as a flask (urinary retention)

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4
Q

STOMAS for TCAs and Atypical antipsychotics

A

Sedating, torsades, orthostatic hypotension, metabolic, anticholinergic, seizure

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5
Q

JPEGS for delusional Disorder

A

Jealous, persecutory, erotomaniac, grandiose, and somatic

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6
Q

What are the three main symptom sets belonging to PTSD?

A
  1. Reexperiencing (Nightmares, Intrusive thoughts, and flashbacks)
  2. Arousal (hypervigilance, irritability, difficulty sleeping, difficulty concentrating, reckless, exaggerated startle)
  3. Avoidance (Inability to remember, avoiding distressing memories or stimuli)
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7
Q

What is the role of the ID?

A

This is our taboo impulses and cannot come to conscious awareness

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8
Q

What is the role of the Super Ego?

A

To control and prevent the ID from coming to our consciousness.

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9
Q

What is the Ego?

A

This is the sense of self. All perceptions and all sense of self belong to the Ego.

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10
Q

What is sublimation?

A

This is when you take an unacceptable ID impulse and channel it into a socially acceptable way.

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11
Q

The patient presents with co-occurring mood and psychotic symptoms. (Mood symptoms can be either depressive or manic).

A

Schizoaffective

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12
Q

The patient presents with psychotic symptoms in the absence of mood disorder.

A

Schizophrenia

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13
Q

This disorder presents with suspicion, projection (blaming others for everything that happens), pervasive distrust (result of maladaptive projection).

A

Paranoid personality disorder

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14
Q

DIG FAST

A

An acronym for mania. Distractibility, Irritability/irresponsibility, Grandiosity, Flight of Ideas, Activity increased, Sleep decreased, and excessive Talkitiveness

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15
Q

Most effective therapy for borderline personality disorder?

A

DBT (dialectal behavioral therapy)

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16
Q

A psychotic episode that lasts less than one month.

A

Brief psychotic disorder

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17
Q

A psychotic episode that lasts one month to six months.

A

Schizophreniform.

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18
Q

A psychotic episode that lasts six months or longer

A

Schizophrenia

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19
Q

What five disorders do you have to rule out to diagnosis with schizophrenia (as it is a diagnosis of exclusion)?

A

Substance induced, medical condition, schizoaffective, primary mood disorder, and autism spectrum disorder

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20
Q

What is Capgras Syndrome?

A

Family or friend has been replaced by an intruder or a clone

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21
Q

What is Cotard Syndrome?

A

You or part of you is dying or is dead

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22
Q

What is the Fregoli Syndrome

A

Another person can shapeshift or take the guise of another person

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23
Q

the psychodynamic principle that assumes all behavior has a purpose

A

Psychic determinism

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24
Q

the psychodynamic principle that one understands that others have needs and that impulsive actions can cause self-harm

A

Ego development principle

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25
Q

the psychodynamic principle that seeks pleasure and gratification immediately

A

Id principle

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26
Q

the psychodynamic principle that imposes a moral framework and ethical restraint learned from the environment.

A

The Superego mediation principle

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27
Q

The miracle question is what kind of therapy?

A

Solution focused therapy

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28
Q

a skill-based approach that focuses on four main areas: emotional regulation, improving distress tolerance, mindfulness, and interpersonal effectiveness

A

DBT

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29
Q

a paradoxical directive would be what type of therapy?

A

Strategic

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30
Q

a technique that uses expressive tools and activities to recreate emotional situations from the past or present so they can be resolved in a less threatening manner

A

Experiential therapy

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31
Q

a treatment that addresses patterns of interaction that cause conflict within a family system

A

Structural Therapy

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32
Q

The process by which the body affects the drug is known as

A

Pharmacokinetics

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33
Q

the effect of the drug on the body and includes agonist and antagonist properties

A

Pharmacodynamics

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34
Q

Reduced protein binding is due to decreased nutritional absorption associated with

A

aging

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35
Q

Which medications are believed to cross the blood-brain barrier and lead to symptoms of depression

A

beta blockers

36
Q

Until rapport and therapeutic alliance are established, the PMHNP should not be

A

alone with the patient in a closed area

37
Q

Which neurotransmitter is excitatory?

A

Glutamate

38
Q

Which neurotransmitter is associated with fight or flight response?

A

norepinephrine

39
Q

Which neurotransmitter is associated to a reward response?

A

Dopamine

40
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain produces dopamine?

A

Substantia nigra

41
Q

Which two places in the brain produce serotonin?

A

Raphe nuclei and the brainstem

42
Q

Which place in the brain produces norepinephrine?

A

Locus ceruleus, located in the pons

43
Q

a mature defense mechanism characterized by a conscious decision to delay paying attention to a thought or emotion to cope with the present reality

A

Suppression

44
Q

A patient who is not willing to discuss his involvement in a psychological trauma is using which of the following defense?

A

Denial

45
Q

a neurotic defense mechanism in which the person consciously expresses pleasurable emotions accompanied by unexplainable amnesia or lack of awareness of an ego-dystonic event.

A

Repression

46
Q

The purpose of defense mechanisms is to

A

resolve conflicts associated with Ego-dystonic stimuli

47
Q

According to the DSM-5, personality disorders are categorized according to

A

The primary psychiatric disorder

48
Q

In speaking with a 50-year-old man with a Cluster A personality disorder, which would be the best strategy?

A

Do not challenge his negative views or recollections of past events

49
Q

Heightened sensitivity, including paradoxical anxiety, is an adverse effect associated with the use of

A

THC

50
Q

is often used to reduce symptoms of withdrawal and anxiety associated with opioid use disorder

A

Clonidine

51
Q

A CIWA-A scale score >19 is consistent with

A

Severe withdrawal and hospitalization

52
Q

A CIWA-A score of 10-15 is consistent with

A

moderate withdrawal and benzodiazepines should be used to reduce the risk of seizures

53
Q

A CIWA-A score of <10 is consistent with

A

mild withdrawal and can be managed with supportive measures unless there is a history of seizures or delrium tremens

54
Q

Benzodiazepines cause memory problems and confusion in clients with

A

a history of TBI

55
Q

What kind of hallucinations are more common in substance induced and withdrawal delirium?

A

Tactile

56
Q

What kind of hallucinations congruent with delusions are more common in psychosis?

A

Auditory

57
Q

What kind of hallucinations are the least common and most associated with delirium, seizure, or dementia?

A

Visual

58
Q

What kind of hallucinations are most associated with substances or sleep disorders?

A

combined

59
Q

The patient is experiencing a feeling seemingly out of the blue, with transference and countertransference which describes how memories from past relationships can impact current relationships more specifically how perception can impact how one conducts current relationships and life scripts. This is consistent with?

A

Transactional analysis (TA)

60
Q

Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) therapy involves reconciling the tension to find the truth between:

A

Radical acceptance and change

61
Q

assessing the patient for the capacity to refuse care, which is a clinical determination within the scope of

A

PMHNP

62
Q

A mini-mental status exam score between 10 and 18 indicates

A

moderate cognitive impairment

63
Q

A mini-mental status exam score of 9 or less indicates

A

severe cognitive impairment

64
Q

A mini-mental status exam score of score between 19 and 23 indicates

A

mild cognitive impairment

65
Q

What is a normal exam score for a mini-mental exam?

A

24 or higher

66
Q

a delusion in which innocuous events are considered to have significant personal meaning

A

idea of reference

67
Q

Mindfulness, meditation, and emotional regulation are all elements of what type of therapy?

A

DBT

68
Q

Systematic desensitization is an element of what type of therapy?

A

CBT

69
Q

Attachment and reintegration are elements of what type of therapy?

A

Trauma focused therapy

70
Q

Aversion therapy is an element of what type of therapy?

A

relapse prevention strategy

71
Q

Which therapy often uses paradoxical directive?

A

Strategic therapy

72
Q

Which therapy seeks to clarify unconscious motivations responsible for current behaviors?

A

Psychoanalysis

73
Q

Which therapy is a technique that helps people see themselves separate from their problems by encouraging reliance on skills to minimize distress

A

Narrative therapy

74
Q

Which therapy is a derivative of psychoanalysis but focuses on the patient’s relationship to the external world

A

Psychodynamic

75
Q

Higher sensitivity tests are used to

A

Rule out disease

76
Q

Higher specificity tests are used to

A

Rule in disease

77
Q

What besides liver function should be evaluated while on lithium?

A

thyroid

78
Q

durable medical equipment, outpatient appointments, and ambulance services is covered by which part of Medicare?

A

B

79
Q

hospitalizations are covered by which part of medicare?

A

A

80
Q

The Sinclair method of treating alcohol use disorder involves taking naltrexone

A

1 hour before intended alcohol use

81
Q

The harm reduction method of treating alcohol use disorder involves taking naltrexone

A

daily naltrexone medication regardless of intended use OR monthly

82
Q

The aversive therapy method of treating alcohol use disorder involves taking

A

Antabuse

83
Q

when the null hypothesis is rejected when, in fact, it is true

A

Type I error

84
Q

when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

A

Type II error

85
Q

occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected for the wrong reason

A

Type III error

86
Q

Allows the PMHNP to summarize the data set (e.g., mean, median, mode, and range), but it does not allow for generalizing inferences, or validation

A

Descriptive statistics

DSM V reviews (8 decks)

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