PMBOK Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.

A

Acceptance Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Products, results, or capabilities produced by a project and validated by the project customer or sponsors as meeting their specified acceptance criteria.

A

Accepted Deliverables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Within the quality management system, accuracy is an assessment of correctness.

A

Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The process of obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.

A

Acquire Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Obtaining human and material resources necessary to perform project activities. It implies a cost of resources, and is not necessarily financial.

A

Acquisition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during the course of a project.

A

Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Multiple attributes associated with each schedule activity that can be included within the activity list. These include activity codes, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions.

A

Activity Attributes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity.

A

Activity Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The quantitative assessments of the likely number of time periods that are required to complete and activity.

A

Activity Duration Estimates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

A

Activity List

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Another name of precedence diagramming method.

A

Activity-on-Node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period.

A

Actual Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The time in calendar units between the actual start date of the schedule activity and either the data date of the project schedule if the schedule activity is in progress or the actual finish date if the schedule activity is complete.

A

Actual Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A project life cycle that is iterative or incremental.

A

Adaptive Life Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

A

Affinity Diagrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Any document or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. This can take the form of a contract, memorandum of understanding, letters of agreement, verbal agreements, email, etc.

A

Agreements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A technique used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approached to use to execute and perform the work of the project.

A

Alternative Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using historical data from a similar activity or project.

A

Analogous Estimating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Various techniques used to evaluate, analyze, or forecast potential outcomes based on possible variations of project or environmental variables and their relationships with other variables.

A

Analytical Techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration.

A

Assumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle.

A

Assumption Log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Method of measuring quality that consists of noting the presence (or absence) of some characteristic (attribute) in each of the units under consideration.

A

Attribute Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals.

A

Authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A critical path method technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates by working backward through the schedule model from the project end date.

A

Backward Pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A graphic display of schedule related information. In the typical example, schedule activities or work breakdown structure components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity durations are shown as date-placed horizontal bars.

A

Bar Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The approved version of a work product that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

A

Baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels.

A

Basis of Estimates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

A

Benchmarking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The documented explanation defining the processes for crating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program.

A

Benefits Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers.

A

Bid Documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid of proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement.

A

Bidder Conference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the work breakdown structure.

A

Bottom-Up Estimating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The approved estimate for the project or any work breakdown structure component or any schedule activity.

A

Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed.

A

Budget at Completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TBD

A

Buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities.

A

Business Case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor. The benefit my be tangible, intangible, or both.

A

Business Value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause.

A

Cause and Effect Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A modification to any formally controlled deliverable, project management plan component, or project document.

A

Change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected.

A

Change Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

A

Change Control Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled.

A

Change Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Manual or automated tools to assist with change and/or configuration management. At a minimum, the tools should support the activities of the Change Control Board.

A

Change Control Tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A comprehensive list of changes submitted during the project and their current state.

A

Change Log

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

A

Change Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline.

A

Change Request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.

A

Checklist Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data.

A

Check Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed charge.

A

Claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The process of processing, adjudicating, and communicating contract claims.

A

Claims Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract.

A

Close Project or Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract.

A

Closing Process Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

A

Code of Accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.

A

Collect Requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

An organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically loaded close to one another in order to improve communication, working relationships, and productivity.

A

Colocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A systematic procedure, technique, or process used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

A

Communication Methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A description, analogy, or schematic used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.

A

Communication Models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.

A

Communication Requirements Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.

A

Communication Styles Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Specific tools, systems, computer programs, etc. used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

A

Communication Technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.

A

Conduct Procurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control, and how to record and report changes to them.

A

Configuration Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts.

A

Configuration Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Within the quality management system, conformance is a general concept of delivering results that fall within the limits that define acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

A

Conformance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process.

A

Constraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.) and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

A

Context Diagrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project that may be accounted for with a reserve.

A

Contingency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

A

Contingency Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Responses provided which may be used in the event that a specific trigger occurs.

A

Contingent Response Strategies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

A

Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

A

Contract Change Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

A

Control Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and management changes to the cost baseline.

A

Control Costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The area composed of three standard deviations on either side of the centerline or mean of a normal distribution of data plotted on a control chart, which reflects the expected variation in the data.

A

Control Limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.

A

Control Procurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations.

A

Control Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The process of ensuring that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring the planned versus actual utilization of resources and performing corrective action as necessary.

A

Control Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and manage changes to the schedule baseline.

A

Control Schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing. changes to the scope baseline.

A

Control Scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

A

Corrective Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Summing the lower-level cost estimates associated with the various work packages for a given level within the projects WBS or for a given cost control account.

A

Cost Aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

A

Cost Baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A financial analysis tool used to determine the benefits provided by a project or against its costs.

A

Cost-Benefit Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

A

Cost Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

All costs incorrect over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

A

Cost of Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

A

Cost Performance Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

A

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

A

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

A

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

A

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

A

Cost Variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.

A

Crashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The process of subdividing deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

A

Create WBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Standards, rules, or tests on which a judgment or decision can be based or by which a product, service, result, or process can be evaluated.

A

Criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

A

Critical Path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule.

A

Critical Path Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.

A

Critical Path Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Discrete, unorganized, unprocessed measurements or raw observations.

A

Data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Techniques used to organize, assess, and evaluate data and information.

A

Data Analysis Techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A point in time when the status of the project is recorded.

A

Data Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Techniques used to collect data and information from a variety of sources.

A

Data Gathering Techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Techniques used to select a course of action from different alternatives.

A

Decision-Making Techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

A

Decision Tree Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more management parts.

A

Decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

An imperfection or deficiency in a project component where that component does not meet its requirements or specifications and needs to be either repaired or replaced.

A

Defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

An intentional activity to modify a project component or product component.

A

Defect Repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.

A

Define Activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product.

A

Define Scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to completed a process, phase, or project.

A

Deliverable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

TBD

A

Dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.

A

Determine Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

The method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during he project life cycle, such as predictive, iterative, agile, or a hybrid method.

A

Development Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides that project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

A

Develop Project Charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components and consolidating them into an integrated project management plan.

A

Develop Project Management Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model for project execution and monitoring and controlling.

A

Develop Schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The process of improving competences, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance the project performance.

A

Develop Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Approaches to presenting information with logical linkages that aid in understanding.

A

Diagramming Techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the projects objectives.

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

An activity that can be planned and measured and that yields a specific output.

A

Discrete Effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of the best practices within a particular application are or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

A

Discretionary Dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The process of gathering a corpus of information and reviewing it to determine accuracy and completeness.

A

Documentation Reviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The total number of work periods required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component, expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

A

Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can be finished based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

A

Early Finish Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

A

Early Start Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

A

Earned Value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress.

A

Earned Value Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

A

Effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

A

Emotional Intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio.

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome of a variable, such as project costs, resources, effort, or durations.

A

Estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The process of estimating team resources and the type and quantities of material, equipment, and supplies necessary to perform project work.

A

Estimate Activity Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

A

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work.

A

Estimate Costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.

A

Estimate to Complete (ETC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing project work; providing the deliverables; and providing work performance information.

A

Execute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Those processes performed to compete the work defined in the project management plan to justify the project requirements.

A

Executing Process Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Judgement provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, experience, or training.

A

Expert Judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures.

A

Explicit Knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities.

A

External Dependency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

An alternative set of actions and tasks available in the event that the primary plan needs to be abandoned because of issues, risks, or other causes.

A

Fallback Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least portion of their duration.

A

Fast Tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Represents profit as a component of compensation to a seller.

A

Fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

A point in time associated with a schedule activity’s completion. Usually qualified by one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled, early, late, baseline, target, or current.

A

Finish Date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

A

Finish-to-Finish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

A

Finish-to-Start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

A type of fixed price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

A

Firm Fixed Price Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

TBD

A

Fishbone Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

A

Fixed-Price Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

A

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Also called slack.

A

Float

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

A

Flowchart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

An elicitation technique that brings together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.

A

Focus Groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at that time.

A

Forecast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

A critical path method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule model from the project start date or a given point in time.

A

Forward Pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early state date of any successor or violating a scheduling restraint.

A

Free Float

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.

A

Functional Organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The process of comparing the planned expenditure of project funding limits and the planned expenditures.

A

Funding Limit Reconciliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

A

Gantt Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but do not share the same requirements for quality.

A

Grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

A

Ground Rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

A bar chart that shows the graphical representation of numerical data.

A

Histogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Documents and data on prior projects including project files, records, correspondence, closed contracts, and closed projects.

A

Historical Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

The process of identifying individual risks as well as sources of overall risk and documenting their characteristics.

A

Identify Risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

The process of identifying project stakeholders regularly and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.

A

Identify Stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

The process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans.

A

Implement Risk Response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

A fixed date imposed on a schedule activity or schedule, or technical performance of the seller.

A

Incentive Fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

An adaptive project life cycle in which the deliverable is produced through a series of iterations that successfully add functionality within a predetermined time frame. the deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete only after the final iteration.

A

Incremental Life Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

A process of using a third party to obtain and analyze information to support prediction of cost, schedule, or other items.

A

Independent Estimates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

A graphical estimate of situations showing purpose to make it meaningful, valuable, and useful in specific contexts.

A

Influence Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Organized or structured data, processed for a specific purpose to make it meaningful variable, and useful in specific contexts.

A

Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format.

A

Information Management Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

A

Initiating Process Group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Any item, whether internal or external to the project, which is required by a process before that process proceeds. May be an output from a predecessor process.

A

Input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Examination of a work product to determine whether it confirms to documented standards.

A

Inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Skills used to effectively lead and interact with team members and other stakeholders.

A

Interpersonal and Team Skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people.

A

Interpersonal Skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

A formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly.

A

Interviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Generally, this term is equivalent to request for proposal.

A

Invitation for Bid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

A

Issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

A project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored.

A

Issue Log

182
Q

A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team’s understanding of the product increases. Iterations develop the product through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add to the functionality of the product.

A

Iterative Life Cycle

183
Q

A mixture of experience, values, and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

A

Knowledge

184
Q

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

A

Lag

185
Q

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

A

Late Finish Date

186
Q

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

A

Late Start Date

187
Q

The amount time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

A

Lead

188
Q

The knowledge gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future for the purpose of improving future performance.

A

Lessons Learned

189
Q

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository.

A

Lessons Learned Register

190
Q

A store of historical information about lessons learned in projects.

A

Lessons Learned Repository

191
Q

An activity that does not produce definitive end products and is measured by the passage of time.

A

Level of Effort

192
Q

A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified during execution of a process or activity. Usually used with a modifier, such as issue, change, or assumption.

A

Log

193
Q

A dependency between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone.

A

Logical Relationship

194
Q

The process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product.

A

Make-or-Buy Analysis

195
Q

Decisions made regarding the external purchase or internal manufacture of a product.

A

Make-or-Buy Decisions

196
Q

The process of ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.

A

Manage Communications

197
Q

An amount of the project budget or project schedule held outside of the performance measurement baseline for management control purposes, that is reserved for unforeseen work that is within scope of the project.

A

Management Reserve

198
Q

The ability to plan, organize, direct, and control individuals or groups of people to achieve specific goals.

A

Management Skills

199
Q

The process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project’s objectives and contribute to organizational learning.

A

Manage Project Knowledge

200
Q

The process of translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization’s quality policies into the project.

A

Manage Project Knowledge

201
Q

The process of translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organizations quality policies into the project.

A

Manage Quality

202
Q

The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement.

A

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

203
Q

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and management team changes to optimize project performance.

A

Manage Team

204
Q

A relationship that is contractually required or inherit in the nature of the work.

A

Mandatory Dependency

205
Q

A summary-level project schedule that identifies the major deliverables and work breakdown structure components and key schedule milestones.

A

Master Schedule

206
Q

A quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.

A

Matrix Diagrams

207
Q

Any organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and for directing the work of persons assigned to the project.

A

Matrix Organization

208
Q

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

A

Methodology

209
Q

A significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio.

A

Milestone

210
Q

A type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates.

A

Milestone Schedule

211
Q

A technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

A

Mind-Mapping

212
Q

Collect project performance data, produce performance measures, and report and disseminate performance information.

A

Monitor

213
Q

The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.

A

Monitor and Control Project Work

214
Q

The process of ensuring that the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met.

A

Monitor Communications

215
Q

The process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.

A

Monitor Risks

216
Q

The process of monitoring project stakeholder relationships, and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through the medication of engagement strategies and plans.

A

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

217
Q

An analysis technique where a computer model is iterated many times, with the input values chosen at random for each iteration driven by the input data, including probability distributions and probabilistic branches. Outputs are generated to represent the range of possible outcomes from the project.

A

Monte Carlo Simulation

218
Q

This technique utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas.

A

Multicriteria Decision Analysis

219
Q

All activity dependencies in a project schedule network diagram.

A

Network Logic

220
Q

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

A

Network Path

221
Q

Establishing connections and relationships with other people from the same or other organizations.

A

Networking

222
Q

A point at which dependency lines connect on a schedule network diagram.

A

Node

223
Q

A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.

A

Nominal Group Technique

224
Q

Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

A

Objective

225
Q

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives.

A

Opportunity

226
Q

A hierarchical representation of the project organization, which illustrates the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perform those activities.

A

Organizational Breakdown Structure

227
Q

A discipline concerned with the way individuals, groups, and organizations develop knowledge.

A

Organizational Learning

228
Q

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by the performing organization.

A

Organizational Process Assets

229
Q

A product, result, or service generated by a process. May be an input to a successor process.

A

Output

230
Q

the effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty including individual risks, representing the exposure of stakeholders to the implications of variations in project outcome, both positive and negative.

A

Overall Project Risk

231
Q

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters.

A

Parametric Estimating

232
Q

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor.

A

Path Convergence

233
Q

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one successor.

A

Path Divergence

234
Q

An estimate expressed as a percent of the amount of work that has been completed on an activity or a work breakdown structure component.

A

Percent Complete

235
Q

Integrated scope, schedule, and cost baselines used for comparison to manage, measure, and control project execution.

A

Performance Measurement Baseline

236
Q

A technique that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance of work in progress on the project against the baseline.

A

Performance Reviews

237
Q

The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating the decisions.

A

Perform Integrated Change Control

238
Q

The process of prioritizing individual project risks for future analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics.

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

239
Q

The process of numerically analyzing the combined effect of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives.

A

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

240
Q

A review at the enter of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

A

Phase Gate

241
Q

The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities based on the information needs of each stakeholder or group, available organizational assets, and the needs of the project.

A

Plan Communication Management

242
Q

The process of defining how the project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.

A

Plan Cost Management

243
Q

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

A

Planned Value

244
Q

A work breakdown structure component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.

A

Planning Package

245
Q

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

A

Planning Process Group

246
Q

The process of documenting quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards.

A

Plan Quality Management

247
Q

The process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage, and utilize physical team sources.

A

Plan Resource Management

248
Q

The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project.

A

Plan Risk Management

249
Q

The process of developing options, selecting strategies, and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as to treat individual project risks.

A

Plan Risk Responses

250
Q

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.

A

Plan Schedule Management

251
Q

The process of developing options, selecting strategies, and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as to treat individual project risks.

A

Plan RiskResponses

252
Q

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling project schedule.

A

Plan Schedule Management

253
Q

The process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.

A

Plan Scope Management

254
Q

The process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders, based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.

A

Plan Stateholder Engagement

255
Q

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

A

Plurality

256
Q

A structured pattern of actions adopted by an organization such that the organization’s policy can be explained as a set of basic principles that govern the organization’s conduct.

A

Policy

257
Q

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as group to achieve strategic objectives.

A

Portfolio

258
Q

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

A

Portfolio Management

259
Q

A specific type of professional or management activity that contributes to the execution of a process and that may imply one or more techniques and tools.

A

Practice

260
Q

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

A

Precedence Diagramming Method

261
Q

A logical dependency used in the precedence diagramming method.

A

Precedence Relationship

262
Q

An activity that logically comes before a dependent activity in a schedule.

A

Predecessor Activity

263
Q

A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle.

A

Predictive Life Cycle

264
Q

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.

A

Preventive Action

265
Q

An established method of accomplishing a consistent performance or result, it can typically can be described as the sequence of steps that will be used to execute a process.

A

Procedure

266
Q

A systematic series of activities directed towards causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

A

Process

267
Q

The review of contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness.

A

Procurement Audits

268
Q

All documents used in signing, executing, and closing an agreement. Procurement documentation may include documents predating the project.

A

Procurement Documentation

269
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization.

A

Procurement Management Plan

270
Q

Describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.

A

Procurement Statement of Work

271
Q

The approach by the buyer to determine the project delivery method and the type of legally binding agreements that should be used to deliver the desired results.

A

Procurement Strategy

272
Q

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end its in itself or a component item.

A

Product

273
Q

For projects that have a product as a deliverable, it is a tool to define scope that generally means asking questions about a product and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be manufactured.

A

Product Analysis

274
Q

The series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, service, or result.

A

Product Scope

275
Q

The documented narrative description or the product scope.

A

Product Scope Description

276
Q

Related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

A

Program

277
Q

The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually.

A

Program Management

278
Q

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

A

Progressive Elaboration

279
Q

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a quince product, service, or result.

A

Project

280
Q

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for scheduled activities.

A

Project Calendar

281
Q

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

A

Project Charter

282
Q

Includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of project information.

A

Project Communications Management

283
Q

The processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and controlling cost so the project can be completed within the approved budget.

A

Project Cost Management

284
Q

Forecast project costs to be paid that are derived from the cost baseline for total or periodic requirements, including projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.

A

Project Funding Requirements

285
Q

The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.

A

Project Governance

286
Q

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project.

A

Project Initiation

287
Q

Includes the processes and activities to identify, combine, unify, and coordinate various processes and project management activities within the Project Management Process Groups.

A

Projects Integration Management

288
Q

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion.

A

Project Life Cycle

289
Q

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

A

Project Management

290
Q

A term that describes the knowledge within the profession of project management. It includes proven traditional practices that are widely applied as well as innovative practices that are emerging in the profession.

A

Project Management Body of Knowledge

291
Q

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes.

A

Project Management Knowledge Area

292
Q

A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

A

Project Management Office

293
Q

The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.

A

Project Management Plan

294
Q

A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. These include initiating processes, planning processes, executing processes, monitoring and controlling processes, and closing processes. These are not project phases.

A

Project Management Process Group

295
Q

The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project.

A

Project Management System

296
Q

The members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities.

A

Project Management Team

297
Q

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.

A

Project Manager

298
Q

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

A

Project Organization Chart

299
Q

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

A

Project Phase

300
Q

Includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team.

A

Project Procurement Management

301
Q

Includes the processes for incorporating the organization’s quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements, in order to meet stakeholder’s expectations.

A

Project Quality Management

302
Q

Includes the processes to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project.

A

Project Resource Management

303
Q

Includes the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation, and monitoring risk on a project.

A

Project Risk Management

304
Q

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

A

Project Schedule

305
Q

Includes the processes required to manage the timely completion of the project.

A

Project Schedule Management

306
Q

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

A

Project Schedule Network Diagram

307
Q

The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result within the specific features and functions.

A

Project Scope

308
Q

Includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

A

Project Scope Management

309
Q

Includes the processes required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate management strategies for effectively engaging stakeholders in project decisions and execution.

A

Project Stakeholder Management

310
Q

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives.

A

Project Team

311
Q

A documented list of project team members, their project roles, and communication information.

A

Project Team Directory

312
Q

The process of reviewing proposals provided by supplies to support contract award decisions.

A

Proposal Evaluation Techniques

313
Q

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it.

A

Prototypes

314
Q

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

A

Quality

315
Q

A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

A

Quality Audits

316
Q

A structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.

A

Quality Checklists

317
Q

The documented results of control quality activities.

A

Quality Control Measurements

318
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.

A

Quality Management Plan

319
Q

The organizational framework whose structure provides the policies, processes, procedures, and resources required to implement the quality management plan.

A

Quality Management System

320
Q

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

A

Quality Metrics

321
Q

A policy specific to the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area, it establishes the basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.

A

Quality Policy

322
Q

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

A

Quality Report

323
Q

A condition or capability that will be used to assess conformance by validating the acceptability of an attitude for the quality of a result.

A

Quality Requirement

324
Q

Written sets of questions designed to quickly accumulate information from a large number of respondents.

A

Questionnaires

325
Q

A common type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

A

RACI Chart

326
Q

An analytical technique where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship.

A

Regression Analysis

327
Q

Requirements imposed by a governmental body. These requirements can establish product, process or service characteristics, including applicable administrative provisions that have government-mandated compliance.

A

Regulations

328
Q

A type of procurement document whereby the buyer requests a potential seller to provide various pieces of information related to a product or service or seller capability.

A

Request for Information

329
Q

A type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. In some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

A

Request for Proposal

330
Q

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from prospective sellers of common or standard products or services. Sometimes used in place of a request for proposal and, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

A

Request for Quotation

331
Q

A condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy business need.

A

Requirement

332
Q

A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.

A

Requirements Documentation

333
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

A

Requirements Management Plan

334
Q

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

A

Requirements Traceability Matrix

335
Q

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. Ofter used with a modifier (e.g. management, contingency) to provide further detail on what types of risks are meant to be mitigated.

A

Reserve

336
Q

An analytical technique to determine the essential features and relationships of components in the project management plan to establish a reserve for the schedule duration, budget, estimated cost, or funds for a project.

A

Reserve Analysis

337
Q

The risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

A

Residual Risk

338
Q

A team member or any physical item needed to complete the project.

A

Resource

339
Q

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

A

Resource Breakdown Structure

340
Q

A calendar that identifies the working days and shifts upon which each specific resource is available.

A

Resource Calendar

341
Q

A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods

A

Resource Histogram

342
Q

A resource optimization technique in which adjustments are made to the project schedule to optimize the allocated of resources and which may affect critical path.

A

Resource Leveling

343
Q

A component of the project management plan that describes how project resources are acquired, allocated, and controlled.

A

Resource Management Plan

344
Q

An individual with management authority over one or more resources.

A

Resource Manager

345
Q

A technique in which activity start and finish dates are adjusted to balance demand for resources with the available supply.

A

Resource Optimization Technique

346
Q

The types of resources required for each activity in a work package.

A

Resource Requirements

347
Q

A resource optimization technique in which free and total float are used without affecting the critical path.

A

Resource Smoothing

348
Q

An assignment that can be deleted within a project management plan such that the assigned resource incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment.

A

Responsibility

349
Q

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

A

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

350
Q

An output from performing project management processes and activities. Results include outcomes (e.g. integrated systems, revised process, restricted organization, tests, trained personnel, etc.) and documents (e.g. policies, plans, studies, procedures, specifications, reports, etc.).

A

Result

351
Q

Action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

A

Rework

352
Q

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

A

Risk

353
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take an action unless the risk occurs.

A

Risk Acceptance

354
Q

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.

A

Risk Appetite

355
Q

A type of audit used to consider the effectiveness of the risk management process.

A

Risk Audit

356
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.

A

Risk Avoidance

357
Q

A hierarchical representation of potential sources of risks.

A

Risk Breakdown Structure

358
Q

Organization by sources of risk (e.g. using the RBS), the area of the project affected (e.g. using the WBS), or other useful category (e.g. project phase) to determine the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.

A

Risk Categorization

359
Q

A group of potential causes of risk.

A

Risk Category

360
Q

Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management.

A

Risk Data Quality Assessment

361
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

A

Risk Enhancement

362
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the team acknowledge that a risk is outside of its sphere of influence and shifts the ownership of the risk to a higher level of the organization where it is more effectively managed.

A

Risk Escalation

363
Q

A risk response whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

A

Risk Exploiting

364
Q

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio.

A

Risk Exposure

365
Q

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed.

A

Risk Management Plan

366
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to decrease the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

A

Risk Mitigation

367
Q

The person responsible for monitoring the risks and for selecting and implementing an appropriate risk response strategy.

A

Risk Owner

368
Q

A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded.

A

Risk Register

369
Q

A project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management processes, which summarizes the information on individual project risk and the level of overall project risk.

A

Risk Report

370
Q

A meeting to examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with overall project risk and with identified individual project risks.

A

Risk Review

371
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity.

A

Risk Sharing

372
Q

The measure of acceptable variation around an objective that reflects the risk appetite of the organization and stakeholders.

A

Risk Threshold

373
Q

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.

A

Risk Transference

374
Q

A defined function to be performed by a project team member, such as testing, filing, inspecting, or coding.

A

Role

375
Q

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

A

Rolling Wave Planning

376
Q

An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that cause a variance or a defect or a risk.

A

Root Cause Analysis

377
Q

The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results.

A

Schedule Baseline

378
Q

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope.

A

Schedule Compression

379
Q

The collection of information for describing and controlling the schedule.

A

Schedule Data

380
Q

Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future based on formation and knowledge available at the time the schedule is calculated.

A

Schedule Forecasts

381
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

A

Schedule Management Plan

382
Q

A representation of the plan for executing the project’s activities including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce a project schedule along with other scheduling artifacts.

A

Schedule Model

383
Q

A technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project activities.

A

Schedule Network Analysis

384
Q

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

A

Schedule Performance Index

385
Q

A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

A

Schedule Variance

386
Q

A tool that provides schedule component names, definitions, structural relationships, and formats that support the application of a schedule method.

A

Scheduling Tool

387
Q

The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.

A

Scope

388
Q

The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure, and tis associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

A

Scope Baseline

389
Q

The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to the time, cost, and resources.

A

Scope Creep

390
Q

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

A

Scope Management Plan

391
Q

A risk that arises as a direct results of implementing a risk response.

A

Secondary Risk

392
Q

A team formation where the team functions with an absence of centralized control.

A

Self-Organizing Teams

393
Q

A provider or supplied of products, services, or results to an organization.

A

Seller

394
Q

Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement document specifying the price, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.

A

Seller Proposals

395
Q

An analysis technique to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project outcomes with variations in elements of quantitative risk analysis model.

A

Sensitivity Analysis

396
Q

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.

A

Sequence Activities

397
Q

A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service exited from the service provider.

A

Service Level Agreement

398
Q

An analytical technique that models the combined effect of uncertainties to evaluate their potential impact on objectives.

A

Source Selection Criteria

399
Q

A precise statement of the needs to be satisfied and the essential characteristic that are required.

A

Specification

400
Q

The area, on either side of the centerline, or mean, of data plotted on a control chart that meets the customer’s requirements for a product or service. This area may be greater than or less than the are defined by the control limits.

A

Specification Limits

401
Q

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.

A

Sponsor

402
Q

The entity responsible for providing the project’s sponsor and a conduit for project funding or other project resources.

A

Sponsoring Organization

403
Q

An individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio.

A

Stakeholder

404
Q

A technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project.

A

Stakeholder Analysis

405
Q

A matrix that compared current and desired stakeholder engagement levels.

A

Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

406
Q

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution.

A

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

407
Q

A project document including the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders.

A

Stakeholder Register

408
Q

A document established by an authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example.

A

Standard

409
Q

A point in time associated with a schedule activity’s start, suavely qualified by one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, early, late, target, baseline, or current.

A

Start Date

410
Q

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started.

A

Start-to-Finish

411
Q

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

A

Start-to-Start

412
Q

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered to a project.

A

Statement of Work

413
Q

Choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

A

Statistical Sampling

414
Q

A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule.

A

Successor Activity

415
Q

Analysis of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option.

A

SWOT Analysis

416
Q

Personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experience, and insights.

A

Tacit Knowledge

417
Q

Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.

A

Tailoring

418
Q

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

A

Team Charter

419
Q

A component of the resources management plan that describes when and how team members will be acquired and how long they’ll be needed.

A

Team Management Plan

420
Q

A defined systematic procedure employed by a human resource to perform an activity to produce a product or a result or deliver a service, and that may imply one or more tools.

A

Technique

421
Q

A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data.

A

Templates

422
Q

Project documents that describe the activities used to determine if the product meets the quality objectives stated in the quality management plan.

A

Test and Evaluation Documents

423
Q

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives.

A

Threat

424
Q

A technique used estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

A

Three-Point Estimating

425
Q

A predetermined value of a measurable project variable that represents a limit that requires action to be taken if reached.

A

Threshold

426
Q

A type of contract that is a hybrid contractural arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts.

A

Time and Material Contract

427
Q

A measure of the cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

A

To-Complete Performance Index

428
Q

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

A

Tolerance

429
Q

Something tangible, such as a template or software program, used in performing an activity to produce a product or result.

A

Tool

430
Q

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.

A

Tornado Diagram

431
Q

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint.

A

Total Float

432
Q

An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results.

A

Trend Analysis

433
Q

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur.

A

Trigger Condition

434
Q

Agreement by everyone in the group of a single course of action.

A

Unanimity

435
Q

A modification to any deliverable, project management plan component, or project document that is not under formal change control.

A

Update

436
Q

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

A

Validate Scope

437
Q

The assurance that a product, service, or result meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders.

A

Validation

438
Q

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance.

A

Variance Analysis

439
Q

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion.

A

Variance at Completion

440
Q

An actual condition that is different from the expected condition that is contained in the baseline plan.

A

Variation

441
Q

The evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or result complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition.

A

Verification

442
Q

Completed project deliverables that have been checked and confirmed for correctness through the Control Quality process.

A

Verified Deliverables

443
Q

Groups of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles with litter or not time spent meeting face to face.

A

Virtual Teams

444
Q

A planning technique used to provide products, services, and results that truly reflect customer requirements by translating those customer requirements into the appropriate technical requirements for each phase of the project product development.

A

Voice of the Customer

445
Q

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the work breakdown structure.

A

WBS Dictionary

446
Q

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project objectives.

A

What-If Scenario Analysis

447
Q

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

A

Work Breakdown Structure

448
Q

An entry in the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration are estimated and managed.

A

Work Package

449
Q

The raw observations and measurements identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work.

A

Work Performance Data

450
Q

The performance data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison with project management plan components, project documents, and other work performance information.

A

Work Performance Information

451
Q

The physical or electrical representation of work performance information compiled in project documents intended to generation decisions, actions, or awareness.

A

Work Performance Reports