PM Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which type hypersensitivity is asthma associated with?

A

Asthma is associated with type 1 hypersensitivity.

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2
Q

Legionella pneumophilia should be suspected where multiple people contract pneumonia in an air conditioned space.

A

Legionella pneumophilia should be suspected where multiple people contract pneumonia in an air conditioned space.

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3
Q

What pathogen is responsible for the majority of cases of bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

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4
Q

Emphysema summary:

A

The residual volume is the volume of air left in the lungs after full expiration (in other words, what is left in the lungs at the end of testing the vital capacity). Emphysema is a form of chronic obstructive airways disease in which damage to the alveolar walls causes many alveoli to fuse forming large air sacks called bullae.

In emphysema there is loss of compliance in the lungs so on breathing out they do not fully spring back to normal and air becomes trapped in the bullae causing an increase in the residual volume. This loss of elasticity means that the total volume that can be blown out becomes reduced and there is a corresponding reduction in vital capacity.

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5
Q

Respiratory centres of the brain:

Medulla

Apneustic

Pneumotaxic

A
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6
Q

What appears on chest x-ray in someone with COPD?

A

Patients with COPD typically have a flattened diaphragm on CXR.

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7
Q

Presentation of bronchiolitis:

A

This is a classic presentation of bronchiolitis: coryzal symptoms and increased work of breathing causing feeding difficulty in a child <1 year. Respiratory syncytial virus is the most common cause of bronchiolitis.

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup.

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9
Q

Trismus (difficulty opening the mouth) is a feature of peritonsillar abscess (quinsy).

A

Trismus (difficulty opening the mouth) is a feature of peritonsillar abscess (quinsy).

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10
Q

Sarcoidosis is associated with increased concentrations of what enzyme?

A

Elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels are associated with sarcoidosis.

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11
Q

‘Red-currant jelly’ sputum is a feature of what pathogenic pneumonia?

A

‘Red-currant jelly’ sputum is a feature of Klebsiella pneumoniae

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12
Q

A 70-year-old man is admitted to the respiratory ward following an infective exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He is being treated with amoxicillin and prednisolone. This is his fourth exacerbation and second hospital admission in the last 12 months. He has previously given up smoking 10 years ago after receiving his diagnosis and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation courses which have offered minimal improvement to his symptoms.

Which antibiotic can be started as prophylaxis for this patient?

A

Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in COPD patients who meet certain criteria and who continue to have exacerbations.

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13
Q

A 45-year-old woman presents to the GP with a new rash on her face. On examination, there is a raised purple lesion covering the nose, cheeks and lips. At first, this was diagnosed as rosacea however it has rapidly progressed. The GP also notes axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy. On further questioning, she notes some fatigue as well as some dyspnoea over the last 6 months. She has smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 8 months and drinks 10 units of alcohol a week.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Sarcoidosis - Facial rash plus lymphadenopathy think sarcoidosis.

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14
Q

Mesothelioma

A

Mesothelioma is a malignant tumor that is caused by inhaled asbestos fibers and forms in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. Symptoms can include shortness of breath and chest pain. The life expectancy for most mesothelioma patients is approximately 12 months after diagnosis.

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15
Q

Transudate vs Exudate pleural effusions

A

Pleural effusions may be classified as being either a transudate or exudate according to the protein concentration.

Transudate (< 30g/L protein)

  • heart failure (most common transudate cause)
  • hypoalbuminaemia (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption)
  • hypothyroidism
  • Meigs’ syndrome

Exudate (> 30g/L protein)

  • infection: pneumonia (most common exudate cause), TB, subphrenic abscess
  • connective tissue disease: RA, SLE
  • neoplasia: lung cancer, mesothelioma, metastases
  • pancreatitis
  • pulmonary embolism
  • Dressler’s syndrome
  • yellow nail syndrome
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16
Q

A 64-year-old woman presents to ED with productive cough, haemoptysis, and vague abdominal pain for the past 2 weeks. She has no past medical history of note. Chest X-ray shows multiple large, round, well-circumscribed masses in both lungs.

What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Renal cell carcinoma can metastasise to the lungs, causing ‘cannonball metastases’.

The multiple large, round, well-circumscribed masses in both lungs seen on Chest X-ray here are a characteristic description for ‘cannonball metastases’. Metastases with this appearance are often due to renal cell carcinoma, although they can also be seen with other malignancies such as choriocarcinoma or endometrial cancer.

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17
Q

What is Kartagener’s syndrome?

A

Kartagener’s syndrome is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic ciliary disorder comprising the triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. The basic problem lies in the defective movement of cilia, leading to recurrent chest infections, ear/nose/throat symptoms, and infertility.

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18
Q

What is the cardinal triad of Meig’s syndrome?

A

Meig’s syndrome: Benign ovarian tumour, ascites, and pleural effusion.

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of an exudative pleural effusion?

A

Pneumonia is the most common cause of an exudative pleural effusion.

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20
Q

What is meant by an exudative pleural effusion?

A

>30g of protein in the pleural effusion

Note: Transudate = <30g of protein

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21
Q

Causes of a transudate pleural effusion:

A

Transudate (< 30g/L protein)

  • heart failure (most common transudate cause)
  • hypoalbuminaemia (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption)
  • hypothyroidism
  • Meigs’ syndrome
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22
Q

Causes of an exudate pleural effusion:

A

Exudate (> 30g/L protein)

  • infection: pneumonia (most common exudate cause), TB, subphrenic abscess
  • connective tissue disease: RA, SLE
  • neoplasia: lung cancer, mesothelioma, metastases
  • pancreatitis
  • pulmonary embolism
  • Dressler’s syndrome
  • yellow nail syndrome
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23
Q

Oscar is a 59-year-old man who presents to his general practitioner with a 4-month history of a persistent cough, dyspnoea, unintentional weight loss of 4kg and anorexia. Oscar has no significant past medical history and has never been admitted to hospital. He is a lifelong non-smoker and works as a receptionist.

On examination, his observations are blood pressure 125/90mmHg, respiratory rate 14/minute, heart rate 85/minute, afebrile and oxygen saturation 94% on room air. There is notable bilateral gynaecomastia with watery nipple discharge, hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy.

Given the likely diagnosis of lung carcinoma, which is the most likely type given the history and examination findings?

A

Gynaecomastia - associated with adenocarcinoma of the lung.

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24
Q

In patients suffering with severe asthma what is the order in which you escalate treatment?

A

The SIGN guidelines give clear instructions on how to escalate care.

  1. Oxygen
  2. Salbutamol nebulisers
  3. Ipratropium bromide nebulisers
  4. Hydrocortisone IV OR Oral Prednisolone
  5. Magnesium Sulfate IV
  6. Aminophylline/ IV salbutamol
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25
Q

In sarcoidosis what are the indications for corticosteroid treatment?

A

Indications are PUNCH

  • Parenchymal Lung Disease
  • Uveitis
  • Neurological involvement or
  • Cardiac involvement
  • HyperCa
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26
Q

A 76-year-old man presented with dyspnoea, mild haemoptysis, decreased appetite and his clothing looks loose.

His past medical history includes atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension. He used to work as a heating engineer fixing boilers and is a smoker.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

The history of dyspnoea with haemoptysis and weight loss suggests the most likely diagnosis is malignancy. Given the history of fixing boilers and the unilateral pleural effusion, a very likely diagnosis is mesothelioma.

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27
Q

What are the features of small cell lung cancer?

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

  • usually central
  • arise from APUD* cells
  • associated with ectopic ADH, ACTH secretion
  • ADH → hyponatraemia
  • ACTH → Cushing’s syndrome
  • ACTH secretion can cause bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, the high levels of cortisol can lead to hypokalaemic alkalosis
  • Lambert-Eaton syndrome: antibodies to voltage gated calcium channels causing myasthenic like syndrome
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28
Q

Upper zone pulmonary fibrosis is typically caused by what?

A

Tuberculosis typically causes upper zone pulmonary fibrosis.

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29
Q

Sudden deterioration upon ventilation is suggestive of what?

A

Tension pneumothorax.

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30
Q

Recurrent chest infections + subfertility - think primary ciliary dyskinesia syndrome (Kartagener’s syndrome)

A

Recurrent chest infections + subfertility - think primary ciliary dyskinesia syndrome (Kartagener’s syndrome)

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31
Q

A 40-year-old female presents with painful, red bumps over her shins. Her GP suspects erythema nodosum. On further questioning she admits to having a non-productive cough and some recent joint pains. The GP requests a chest x-ray, which shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

What’s the diagnosis?

A

Sarcoidosis

The likely diagnosis here is sarcoidosis, given by the presence of erythema nodosum, a non-productive cough, arthralgia and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest x-ray. Sarcoidosis is known to cause hypercalcaemia due to macrophages inside the granulomas causing an increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form.

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32
Q

Obstructive vs Restrictive Lung Conditions

HIGH YIELD

A

Ø Obstructive

→ Causes
• Asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis
→ Results
• ↓↓↓↓↓ FEV1, ↓ FVC, ↓ FEV1/FVC ratio of<70%
• Reversibility after bronchodilators is seen in asthma

Ø Restrictive

→ Causes
• Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pneumoconiosis
• Extrinsic restrictive (restrictive due to out of lung) - anka sp, scoliosis
→ Results
• ↓ FEV1, ↓↓↓↓↓ FVC, ↑ FEV1/FVC ratio of>70%

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33
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma secreting ACTH can cause Cushing’s syndrome

A

Small cell lung carcinoma secreting ACTH can cause Cushing’s syndrome

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34
Q

Adult with asthma not controlled by a SABA - add a low-dose ICS

(then you add LABA)

A

Adult with asthma not controlled by a SABA - add a low-dose ICS

(then you add LABA)

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35
Q

Connective tissue disorders e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus can cause exudative pleural effusion

A

Connective tissue disorders e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus can cause exudative pleural effusion

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36
Q

What is the treatment for patients having a severe asthma attack?

A

Nebulised salbutamol, nebulised ipatropium bromide, oral prednisolone.

According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), as a baseline all patients presenting with severe or life-threatening asthma should be given a nebulised short acting β2 agonist (e.g. salbutamol), a corticosteroid - either oral or IV, and nebulised ipratropium bromide. For milder exacerbations ipratropium bromide is not required as a first line agent but may be considered if the patient does not respond to initial therapy.

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37
Q

ABG interpretation ROME

A

Respiratory = Opposite

low pH + high PaCO2 i.e. acidosis, or

high pH + low PaCO2 i.e. alkalosis

Metabolic = Equal

low pH + low bicarbonate i.e. acidosis, or

high pH + high bicarbonate i.e. akalosis

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38
Q

What is the CURB65 score and what is it used for?

A

The CURB-65 calculator can be used in the emergency department setting to risk stratify a patient’s community acquired pneumonia.

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39
Q

A 55-year-old man is seen in the respiratory clinic. He describes progressively worse shortness of breath, that is worse when walking, and a dry cough. On examination he has bibasal crackles and there is evidence of finger clubbing. Spirometry is done, which shows a clearly restrictive pattern. He is previously fit and well, and has worked as a gardener all his life.

What is the diagnosis and what is best investigation for your most likely diagnosis?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - high resolution CT is the investigation of choice.

This is a typical history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis- a man 50-70, progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, finger clubbing, bilateral basal crackles, and a restrictive lung pattern. A chest x-ray will show interstitial shadowing, and a high resolution CT will show ‘honeycomb’ lungs.

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40
Q

What are the landmarks for a chest drain insertion?

A

The triangle of safety for chest drain insertion involves the base of the axilla, lateral edge pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space and the anterior border of latissimus dorsi.

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41
Q

What are the features of COPD on chest x-ray?

A
  • hyperinflation
  • flattened hemidiaphragms
  • hyperlucent lung fields

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease requires spirometry to confirm the diagnosis but a chest x-ray can be highly suggestive.

42
Q

A 55-year-old man is admitted to the wards with acute pancreatitis for which he is receiving supportive care and prophylactic dalteparin injections. He becomes breathless on day 3 of his stay. A chest X-ray is performed which shows bilateral alveolar shadowing with a normal cardiothoracic index. His observations are taken, and while his temperature is found to be 36.5ºC his respiratory rate is 24/min.

Given this man’s presentation what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Acute respiratory distress syndrome is a complication of acute pancreatitis.

43
Q

How do you identify type 1 vs type 2 respiratory failure from an ABG?

A

Type 1 respiratory failure: Low pO2, no CO2 retention
Type 2 respiratory failure: Low pO2, high pCO2

44
Q

COPD symptoms in a young person - think what?

A

COPD symptoms in a young person - think alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency

45
Q

What should patients who have pneumonia and are diagnosed with COPD be given in addition to antibiotics?

A

Patients diagnosed with pneumonia who have COPD should be given corticosteroids even if no evidence of the COPD being exacerbated.

46
Q

What are the indications for corticosteroid treatment for sarcoidosis?

A

Indications for corticosteroid treatment for sarcoidosis are: parenchymal lung disease, uveitis, hypercalcaemia and neurological or cardiac involvement.

47
Q

How can you differentiate a tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax?

A

You can help to differentiate a tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax due to the deviated trachea and the systemic features such as low blood pressure and worsening shortness of breath.

48
Q

PUNCH

A

Indications for sarcoidosis treatment with corticosteroids:

Parenchymal lung disease

Uveitis

Neurological involvement

Cardiac involvement

Hypercalcemia

49
Q

RISK FACTORS: SOME OCCUPATIONAL CAUSES OF LUNG DISEASE

A
50
Q

Prophylaxis for COPD?

A

Azithromycin is the standard antibiotic prophylaxis in patients with COPD. According to the most recent NICE guidelines, you should consider azithromycin (usually 250 mg 3 times a week) for people with COPD if they do not smoke, have optimised non-pharmacological management and inhaled therapies, relevant vaccinations and (if appropriate) have been referred for pulmonary rehabilitation and experience frequent (typically 4 or more per year) exacerbations with sputum production.

51
Q

On aspiration of a pleural effusion what features would suggest an empyema.

pH of…

Glucose high/low

LDH high/low

A

Empyema: Turbid effusion with pH<7.2, Low glucose, High LDH

52
Q

Important drug side effects:

A

Infliximab - reactivation of TB, HBV, and demyelinating disease.
Hydroxychloroquine - Corneal deposits and retinopathy.
Sulphasalazine - oligospermia, rash, folate deficiency and megaloblastic/ Heinz body anaemia.
Azothiaprine - Skin cancer (SCC), lymphoma, gout.
Methotrexate - Myelosuppression, ILD/ pneumonitis and liver toxicity.

53
Q

WHatis the next important investigation following this chest x-ray?

A

CT Abdomen

The chest x-ray shows cannonball metastases which are most commonly caused by renal cell cancer. A CT abdomen is the most appropriate test to investigate this possibility.

Other tests should of course be considered including a prostate specific antigen.

54
Q

Interpreting FEV1/FVC ratio

A

FEV1/FVC: The FEV1/FVC of a normal healthy lung is 70-80%. A result of 65% indicates that this condition is an obstructive lung condition, which narrows the options down to asthma or emphysema. You would expect a raised FEV1/FVC with pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary oedema. A left to right cardiac shunt does not affect lung compliance and hence you would expect a normal FEV1/FVC with this.

55
Q

What is meant by TLCO (total gas transfer)

A

The total gas transfer (TLCO) is an overall measure of gas transfer for the lungs from the alveoli into the capillaries and reflects how much oxygen is taken up into the red cells. You would only expect to find a raised TLCO in asthma or a left-to-right cardiac shunt. This is because in these conditions, the problem is not affecting the alveoli directly or gas exchange and so the lungs try to compensate for the problem by improving gas exchange.

56
Q

What are causes of a raised TLCO?

A

Causes of a raised TLCO

asthma

pulmonary haemorrhage (Wegener’s, Goodpasture’s)

left-to-right cardiac shunts

polycythaemia

hyperkinetic states

male gender, exercise

57
Q

What are causes of a low TLCO?

A

Causes of a lower TLCO

pulmonary fibrosis

pneumonia

pulmonary emboli

pulmonary oedema

emphysema

anaemia

low cardiac output

58
Q

Interpretting ABG’s

A

ROME

Respiratory = Opposite

low pH + high PaCO2 i.e. acidosis, or

high pH + low PaCO2 i.e. alkalosis

Metabolic = Equal

low pH + low bicarbonate i.e. acidosis, or

high pH + high bicarbonate i.e. akalosis

59
Q

A 71-year-old man is seen in the respiratory clinic with suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He is a smoker for 50 years, 20 cigarettes per day, and has a chronic cough and shortness of breath for the last 3 years. On post-bronchodilator spirometry testing, he has an FEV1 of 81% of predicted value, and his FEV1/FVC is 0.5.

How would grade this patients COPD?

A

This man is a smoker, over 35, symptomatic, with FEV1/FVC <0.7- all of these things mean that he has COPD. His FEV1 is normal (>80%), therefore his disease is mild. The severity of COPD is based upon FEV1 readings. Moderate is FEV1 50-79%, severe is 30-49%, and very severe is <30%.

Stage 1 COPD has normal FEV1 readings, but is symptomatic.

60
Q

A 25-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with a four-week history of a dry cough. She is otherwise well and takes no regular medication. Examination of her chest is unremarkable, but there are tender red nodules on her shins bilaterally.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Painful shin rash + cough → ?sarcoidosis

61
Q

A 79-year-old man with a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to their GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze for the past week. The cough is productive of white sputum. The only finding on examination is a widespread expiratory wheeze. His observations are heart rate 82/min, respiratory rate 22/min, blood pressure 134/79 mmHg, oxygen saturations 96% on air, and temperature 37.4ºC.

What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

A

This patient is presenting with an acute exacerbation of their COPD. As such, they should be prescribed a 5-day course of prednisolone (typically 30mg daily) to manage this. He does not require antibiotics as he does not have purulent sputum or any clinical signs of pneumonia.

62
Q

In a patients suffering with exacerbations of bronchiectasis what is the most likely organism causing this?

A

Given the diagnosis here of an acute exacerbation of bronchiectasis, the correct answer is Haemophilus influenzae, as this is the most commonly isolated organism in patients with this condition.

63
Q

A 24-year-old female presents with facial weakness, fever and painful red eyes. On examination you note a left sided facial palsy and tender swelling of the parotid glands. Laboratory results reveal a calcium level of 2.82 mmol/L.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Sarcoidosis is a multi-system disease involving abnormal collections of inflammatory cells known as granulomas. Sarcoidosis can cause facial palsies, parotid enlargement, hypercalcaemia and ocular problems, as seen in this case.

64
Q

Obstructive sleep apnoea can cause hypertension

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea can cause hypertension

65
Q

Summary of BIPAP:

A

BIPAP (Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure) is a form of non-invasive ventilation that has been shown to be very effective in acute type two respiratory failure. It works by stenting alveoli open to increase the surface area available for ventilation and gas exchange. A BIPAP machine alternates between the IPAP (Inspiratory Positive Airway pressure) applied when a patient breathes in and the EPAP (Expiratory Positive Airway Pressure) which is applied between patient triggered breaths. A minimum respiratory rate can be set on the machine and the pressures up-titrated as tolerated. Regular arterial blood gas analysis in needed to asses the patient’s response to NIV

66
Q

The most common bacterial organisms that cause infective exacerbations of COPD are:

A

Haemophilus influenzae (most common cause)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Moraxella catarrhalis

67
Q

NICE only recommend giving oral antibiotics in an acute exacerbation of COPD in the presence of purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia otherwise give…

A

Oral prednisolone

68
Q

How does idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis present?

A

Key characteristics of this condition include; exertional dyspnoea and a dry cough. Weight loss can also be a feature. It is twice as common in men and typically presents between 50-70 years of age. Examination findings include ; bibasal inspiratory crackles on auscultation and finger clubbing.

69
Q

How do you treat someone still breathless with COPD on a SABA/SAMA if they have atopic/asthmatic features.

A

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and asthma/steroid responsive features → add a LABA + ICS

70
Q

How do you treat someone still breathless with COPD on a SABA/SAMA if they don’t have atopic/asthmatic features.

A

SABA/SAMA + add a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) and LABA.

71
Q

First line antibiotics in infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

Infective exacerbation of COPD: first-line antibiotics are amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline

72
Q

Painful shin rash + cough →

A

Sarcoidosis

73
Q

Which rash is commonly associated on the shins of someone with sarcoidosis?

A

Lymphoma can cause erythema nodosum, however it typically causes a pruritic rash, that sometimes ulcerates. It is a common differential of sarcoidosis as there are many overlapping symptoms such as unexplained weight loss, fatigue and sweating.

74
Q

Treatment of acute bronchitis

A

Management

analgesia

good fluid intake

consider antibiotic therapy if patients:

are systemically very unwell

have pre-existing co-morbidities

have a CRP of 20-100mg/L (offer delayed prescription) or a CRP >100mg/L (offer antibiotics immediately)

75
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the upper zones

A

Fibrosis predominately affecting the upper zones

hypersensitivity pneumonitis (also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitis)

coal worker’s pneumoconiosis/progressive massive fibrosis

silicosis

sarcoidosis

ankylosing spondylitis (rare)

histiocytosis

tuberculosis

76
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones

A

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE

drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate

asbestosis

77
Q

CHARTS - acronym for upper zone fibrosis

A

Acronym for causes of upper zone fibrosis:

CHARTS

C - Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A - Ankylosing spondylitis

R - Radiation

T - Tuberculosis

S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

78
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a risk factor for what cancer?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma.

Due to the deficiency, there is accumulation of the abnormal, mutant Z protein within hepatocytes. The accumulation of this mutant Z protein triggers apoptosis in some hepatocytes, while other hepatocytes can proliferate to preserve hepatic mass. The chronic, ongoing process of cell death and proliferation leads to liver cirrhosis and significantly increases the risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Therefore, once alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is diagnosed, ongoing surveillance to monitor for HCC development should be undertaken.

79
Q

79yr old with a history of recent weight loss what does this xray show?

A

Lung cancer - The x-ray shows a large right sided hilar mass with resultant collapse of the right upper lobe. As a consequence the hyperexpanded right middle and lower lobes are hyperlucent (‘blacker’).

80
Q

What are the general signs of lobar collapse on x-ray?

A

The general signs of lobar collapse on a chest x-ray are as follows:

Tracheal deviation towards the side of the collapse

Mediastinal shift towards the side of the collapse

Elevation of the hemidiaphragm

81
Q

Common causes of lobar collapse

A

Common causes of lobar collapse include:

lung cancer (the most common cause in older adults)

asthma (due to mucous plugging)

foreign body

82
Q

Gold standard investigation for a patient with suspected lung cancer:

A

NICE recommends that patients with known or suspected lung cancer are offered a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest, liver and adrenals.

83
Q

Pneumonia investigations

A

Investigations

chest x-ray

in intermediate or high-risk patients NICE recommend blood and sputum cultures, pneumococcal and legionella urinary antigen tests

CRP monitoring is recommend for admitted patients to help determine response to treatment

84
Q

CURB-65 - what is it used for and what’s it’s criteria.

A

CURB-65, also known as the CURB criteria, is a clinical prediction rule that has been validated for predicting mortality in community-acquired pneumonia and infection of any site.

NICE recommend, in conjunction with clinical judgement:

Consider home-based care for patients with a CURB65 score of 0 or 1 - low risk (less than 3% mortality risk)

Consider hospital-based care for patients with a CURB65 score of 2 or more - intermediate risk (3-15% mortality risk)

Consider intensive care assessment for patients with a CURB65 score of 3 or more - high risk (more than 15% mortality risk)

85
Q

Managment of low severity CAP

A

Management of low-severity community acquired pneumonia

amoxicillin is first-line

if penicillin allergic then use a macrolide or tetracycline

NICE now recommend a 5 day course of antibiotics for patients with low severity community acquired pneumonia

86
Q

Management of moderate and high-severity community acquired pneumonia

A

Management of moderate and high-severity community acquired pneumonia

dual antibiotic therapy is recommended with amoxicillin and a macrolide

a 7-10 day course is recommended

NICE recommend considering a beta-lactamase stable penicillin such as co-amoxiclav, ceftriaxone or piperacillin with tazobactam and a macrolide in high-severity community acquired pneumonia

87
Q

What treatment is first-line for acute bronchitis?

A

Oral doxycycline is first-line for acute bronchitis (unless pregnant/child)

88
Q

What are the key indications for NIV?

A

Non-invasive ventilation - key indications

COPD with respiratory acidosis pH 7.25-7.35*

Type II respiratory failure secondary to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea

Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP

Weaning from tracheal intubation

89
Q

What are the features of heart failure on x-ray?

ABCDE

A

Alveolar oedema (bat’s wings), Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema), Cardiomegaly, Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels, Effusion (pleural) are features of heart failure on a chest x-ray.

90
Q

What is the treatment of pneumothorax >2cm in someone with COPD?

A

If a secondary pneumothorax > 2cm and/or the patient is short of breath then patient should be treated with chest drain (not aspiration) as first-line.

91
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the lung causes what distinct feature?

A

Gynecomastia

92
Q

Which type of lung cancer can cause hyponatraemia?

A

Small cell lung cancer is associated with syndrome of inappropriate ADH production (SiADH) which can cause euvolaemic hyponatraemia.

93
Q

Red jelly like sputum in a diabetic who drinks alcohol = what bacteria?

A

Klebsiella pneumonia-> commonly due to aspiration

94
Q

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and asthma/steroid responsive features add what?

A

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and asthma/steroid responsive features → add a LABA + ICS

95
Q

Sarcoidosis treatment =

A

Prednisolone

96
Q

Target sats in COPD?

A

Target saturations in COPD are 94-98% if CO2 is normal on ABG.

88-92% is CO2 high as this indicates they are a retainer and rely on low oxygen to breathe.

97
Q

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and no asthma/steroid responsive features → add what?

A

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and no asthma/steroid responsive features → add a LABA + LAMA

98
Q

How do thiazide diuretics effect electrolyte?

A

Thiazide diuretics can cause hyponatraemia, hypokalemia, hypercalcaemia and hypocalciuria.

99
Q

Complete heart block following an MI, the lesion is most likely to be in what artery?

A

Complete heart block following a MI? - right coronary artery lesion

100
Q
A
101
Q

SLE what antibodies are positive?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies

Anti-ds DNA

102
Q

Lung cancer and low sodium = what type?

A

Small cell cancer

Small cell = small sodium