PM Lecture 10 Feb 25 Ketamine And Etomidate Flashcards

1
Q

What are the properties of ketamine?

A

Rapid onset, minimal cardiovascular effects, profound analgesia

Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that binds to NMDA receptors, inhibiting glutamate activation.

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2
Q

What is etomidate primarily known for?

A

Adrenal cortical suppression and minimal cardiovascular impact

Etomidate is a hypnotic agent used in anesthesia.

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

A

Binding to NMDA receptors

This action leads to dissociative amnesia and analgesia.

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4
Q

List some side effects of etomidate.

A
  • Myoclonic movements
  • Adrenal cortical suppression

Monitoring for adrenal suppression is crucial.

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5
Q

What is the significance of lipid solubility in anesthetic drugs?

A

Influences drug onset and action

More lipid-soluble drugs have faster onset due to better ability to cross cellular membranes.

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6
Q

What is the primary site of action for anesthetic drugs?

A

The brain

Drugs need to reach the brain to produce anesthesia.

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7
Q

How does albumin binding affect drug availability?

A

Reduces drug availability for action

Drugs bound to albumin cannot exert their effects until they are released.

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8
Q

True or False: Ketamine has a high potential for abuse.

A

True

Monitoring for emergence delirium is important.

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9
Q

What technique can reduce venous irritation when administering propofol?

A

Flushing the line after administration

Using lidocaine prior to propofol can also help.

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10
Q

What is the elimination route for etomidate?

A

Urine and bile

Elimination involves both renal and biliary pathways.

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: Ketamine produces _______ due to its pharmacological properties.

A

dissociative amnesia

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12
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of ketamine?

A
  • Sympathetic stimulation
  • Impact on blood pressure and heart rate

Ketamine can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system.

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13
Q

What is the importance of understanding drug pharmacokinetics?

A

Avoid complications like emergence delirium and myoclonic movements

Proper dosing and administration techniques are critical.

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14
Q

What is the role of plasma esterases in drug metabolism?

A

Metabolizes drugs like etomidate

Plasma esterases help in the hydrolysis of certain anesthetic agents.

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15
Q

What are the clinical uses of ketamine?

A
  • Pediatric patients
  • Burn patients

Ketamine is favored for its analgesic properties and minimal pain at injection.

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16
Q

What is the half-life of etomidate?

A

2 to 5 hours

The half-life can vary based on individual pharmacokinetics.

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17
Q

What is the impact of etomidate on cerebral blood flow?

A

Minimal changes

Etomidate maintains hemodynamic stability.

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18
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving etomidate?

A

Adrenal cortical suppression

Cortisol support may be necessary during prolonged use.

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19
Q

What is the primary advantage of using propofol?

A

Versatility in various procedures

Propofol is commonly used in endoscopy and dental outpatient procedures.

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20
Q

Fill in the blank: The mechanism of action of most induction agents involves the opening of _______ channels.

A

chloride

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21
Q

What are the risks of mixing propofol with other drugs?

A

Potential for lipid embolism

Following facility protocols is crucial to ensure safety.

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22
Q

What is the significance of the pharmacologic care plan?

A

Guides medication administration and patient monitoring

It includes options like Plan A and Plan B for various scenarios.

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23
Q

What percentage of drug elimination occurs through the urinary system?

A

Approximately 85%

This percentage is contrasted with 10-13% elimination through the GI system.

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24
Q

What is the elimination half-life range of the discussed drugs?

A

Two to five hours.

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25
Q

What effect does high albumin binding have on a drug’s duration of action?

A

Longer duration of action.

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26
Q

What is the typical dose of the drug discussed for induction?

A

0.3 mg/kg.

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27
Q

What are the alternatives to propofol for IV induction of anesthesia?

A

Barbiturates.

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28
Q

What kind of effects does etomidate have on the adrenal cortex?

A

Adrenal cortical suppression.

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29
Q

True or False: Etomidate has analgesic effects.

A

False.

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30
Q

What can be administered prior to etomidate to reduce myoclonic movements?

A

Opioids or benzodiazepines.

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31
Q

What is the relationship between etomidate and cerebral blood flow?

A

It decreases cerebral blood flow.

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32
Q

Fill in the blank: The peak effect of etomidate occurs within _______.

A

One minute.

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33
Q

What is the significance of the peak effect timing in relation to surgical interventions?

A

It informs when to manipulate the airway.

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34
Q

What side effect is associated with the use of etomidate?

A

Myoclonic movements.

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35
Q

What is the consequence of adrenal cortical suppression during anesthesia?

A

Hypotension and reduced stress response.

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36
Q

What is the typical dose range for etomidate during induction?

A

0.2 to 0.4 mg/kg.

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37
Q

How does etomidate affect the amplitude of somatosensory evoked potentials?

A

It may increase the amplitude, leading to false positives.

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38
Q

What is the effect of etomidate on mean arterial pressure?

A

Mild decrease.

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39
Q

True or False: Etomidate can cause intra-arterial damage.

A

False.

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40
Q

What is the primary concern with myoclonic movements in patients under etomidate?

A

Patient safety and risk of injury.

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41
Q

What impact does etomidate have on the respiratory system?

A

It depresses ventilation but to a lesser extent.

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42
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving opioids to prevent CO2 narcosis?

A

End-tidal CO2 levels.

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43
Q

What is a common dose of fentanyl for a patient weighing 75 kg?

A

75 mcg.

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44
Q

What is the potential effect of prolonged CO2 elevation in patients?

A

Longer recovery time and narcosis.

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45
Q

What is the main advantage of etomidate in unstable cardiovascular patients?

A

It is the most stable drug.

46
Q

Fill in the blank: The duration of action for highly protein-bound drugs is typically _______.

47
Q

What is the effect of etomidate on the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen?

A

Decreases it.

48
Q

What is the typical range for minute ventilation or respiratory rate when managing opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

35 to 45

Breathing may start to improve around 50.

49
Q

What should be done if opioids are administered and the patient is still not breathing?

A

Bring them back down by altering minute ventilation or respiratory rate.

50
Q

What is the main component that helps with pain management in ketamine?

A

N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor blocking

This is crucial for its analgesic properties.

51
Q

What type of drug is lidocaine categorized as?

A

Weak base

It is highly albumin-bound.

52
Q

What is the relationship between ketamine and PCP?

A

Ketamine is related to PCP, also known as phencyclidine or Angel Dust.

53
Q

What is a notable side effect of ketamine, particularly during emergence?

A

Emergence delirium.

54
Q

What is the duration of action for ketamine?

A

10 to 20 minutes for short duration, 60 to 90 minutes to return to full consciousness.

55
Q

What are the three types of ketamine available?

A
  • S(+)-ketamine
  • R(-)-ketamine
  • Racemic ketamine
56
Q

What is the main difference between S(+)-ketamine and racemic ketamine?

A

S(+)-ketamine has more intense analgesia, being two times greater than racemic.

57
Q

What is the mechanism of action for ketamine?

A

It binds competitively to NMDA receptors and inhibits activation by glutamate.

58
Q

What is the onset time for IV administration of ketamine?

A

Rapid onset within 30 seconds to 1 minute.

59
Q

What can be used to counteract the muscarinic effects of ketamine?

A

Antimuscarinic agents such as glycopyrrolate.

60
Q

True or False: Ketamine is not plasma bound and can traverse directly into the brain.

61
Q

Fill in the blank: Ketamine is extensively cleared through the _______.

62
Q

What is the active metabolite of ketamine responsible for prolonged analgesia?

A

An active metabolite produced during hepatic metabolism.

63
Q

What is the effect of ketamine on catecholamines?

A

Inhibits uptake of catecholamines back into post ganglionic sympathetic nerve endings.

64
Q

What is the half-life of ketamine?

A

Up to 2 to 3 hours.

65
Q

What is the clearance rate of ketamine from the brain?

A

High hepatic clearance of one liter per minute.

66
Q

What is the recommended induction dose for IV ketamine?

A

Varies based on clinical application.

67
Q

What can cause increased toxicity risk in renal and hepatic impaired patients when using certain drugs?

A

Prolonged clearance time.

68
Q

What is the commonality in weak bases and weak acids concerning drug nomenclature?

A

Weak bases usually have a name that precedes the chemical formula.

69
Q

What can occur if a patient experiences hypertonic reactions during ketamine administration?

A

It can lead to complications such as rhabdomyolysis.

70
Q

What is a common side effect of ketamine that requires monitoring?

A

Intense salivation.

71
Q

What is the typical duration for amnesia effects post-ketamine administration?

A

Amnesia persists for 60 to 90 minutes.

72
Q

What is the concentration of ketamine available?

A

25 milligrams per ml

73
Q

To achieve a concentration of five NAICS per ml, how much volume should be used?

A

Four or five ml

74
Q

What are the clinical uses of ketamine?

A
  • Acutely hypovolemic patients
  • Bronchodilator
  • Burn dressing changes
  • Debridement and skin grafting
  • Reversal of opioid tolerance
  • Treatment of psychiatric disorders
75
Q

What is the typical dosage range for continuous ketamine infusion?

A

15 to 30 mcg per kg per minute IV

76
Q

What routes can ketamine be administered in pediatric induction?

A
  • IV
  • IM
  • Intranasal
77
Q

What are the effects of ketamine on cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure?

A
  • Increases cerebral blood flow by 60%
  • Can increase intracranial pressure
78
Q

What is the recommended dose range for ketamine to avoid increasing intracranial pressure?

A

0.5 to 2 mg per kg IV

79
Q

True or False: Ketamine significantly depresses ventilation.

80
Q

What side effects can occur due to ketamine use?

A
  • Emergence delirium
  • Hallucinations
  • Vivid dreams
  • Proprioceptive disturbances
81
Q

What can be used to prevent emergence delirium associated with ketamine?

A
  • Dexamethasone
  • Alpha-2 agonists
82
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of ketamine?

A
  • Increases blood pressure
  • Increases heart rate
  • Increases cardiac output
83
Q

What is the mechanism of action for ketamine’s effects on the nervous system?

A

Depresses the inferior colliculus and medial geniculate nucleus

84
Q

Fill in the blank: Ketamine can inhibit ______ aggregation.

85
Q

What are the risks associated with using ketamine in patients with pulmonary hypertension?

A

It can cause pulmonary hypertension up to 44%

86
Q

What is the concern regarding mixing propofol with other drugs?

A

Can form lipid bubbles that may lead to pulmonary embolism

87
Q

What is the recommended practice regarding mixing ketamine with propofol?

A

Not recommended due to stability issues

88
Q

What should be done before drawing up drugs for administration?

A

Alcoholize the rubber stopper

89
Q

True or False: Ketamine has a significant histamine release.

90
Q

What is a common clinical setting for the use of ketamine in treating mental health issues?

A

Wellness clinics for depression and PTSD

91
Q

What is the impact of ketamine on upper airway reflexes?

A

Preserves upper airway reflexes

92
Q

What is the effect of ketamine on seizure threshold?

A

Does not alter the seizure threshold

93
Q

What is the significance of the black box warning associated with propofol?

A

Indicates risks such as bradycardia leading to asystole

94
Q

Fill in the blank: Ketamine is effective for patients with ______ sleep apnea.

A

obstructive

95
Q

What personal protective equipment is needed for drug preparation?

A

Hats, mask, and gloves

96
Q

What is the purpose of alcoholizing the rubber stopper?

A

To ensure sterility before injection

97
Q

How long should the alcohol stay on the rubber stopper?

A

15 seconds

98
Q

True or False: Sterility practices in pharmacology change when entering CRNA school.

99
Q

What serious consequence occurred due to improper sterilization practices by some practitioners?

A

Indictments for murder due to infections

100
Q

What outbreak occurred in Nevada related to syringe sharing?

A

Hep C outbreak

101
Q

Fill in the blank: ONE syringe, ______ person, ______ time.

102
Q

What should students refer to for drug information?

A

Drug index of the stocking book

103
Q

Which reading material is preferred by the speaker for pharmacology?

104
Q

What is a noted difficulty with the reading material ‘Bearish’?

A

It is difficult to read

105
Q

What should be avoided when injecting into a port?

A

Injecting without sterilizing the port

106
Q

What is the recommended practice when preparing medications?

A

Alcoholize the rubber stopper

107
Q

What does CRNA stand for?

A

Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist

108
Q

What did the speaker emphasize about nursing practices?

A

They should not change in CRNA school

109
Q

What does the speaker suggest for finding specific drugs?

A

Look them up in the drug index

110
Q

What type of table is compared to the setup for drug preparation?

A

Buffet table