AM Lecture 27 Jan Pharmacology and Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main concepts discussed in the context of anesthesia?

A

Pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics

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2
Q

What is the primary goal regarding drug onset and offset in anesthesia?

A

To produce a quick onset and offset of drugs

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3
Q

What are the severe consequences of underdosing anesthesia drugs?

A

Bronchospasm and ineffective anesthesia

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4
Q

What can happen if anesthesia drugs are overdosed?

A

Potentially lethal effects

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5
Q

What does the term ‘therapeutic index’ refer to?

A

The range between effective and lethal doses of a drug

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6
Q

What is the significance of receptor binding in drug effects?

A

The effect depends on the number of receptors a drug binds to

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7
Q

What are the three types of bonds through which drugs bind to receptors?

A
  • Ionic
  • Hydrogen
  • Van der Waals
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8
Q

What is the difference between agonists and antagonists?

A

Agonists activate receptors; antagonists block receptors

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9
Q

What is the concept of ‘tolerance’ in pharmacology?

A

Decreased response to a drug after repeated use

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10
Q

What are the four main processes of pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Absorption
  • Distribution
  • Metabolism
  • Excretion
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11
Q

What is the elimination half-life (EHL) of a drug?

A

The time it takes for the plasma concentration to reduce by half

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12
Q

What does context-sensitive half-life (CSHL) refer to?

A

The half-life of a drug when administered as an infusion

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13
Q

How does ionization affect drug effectiveness?

A

It influences drug distribution and efficacy in different tissues

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14
Q

What is the relationship between pH and drug ionization?

A

pH affects the ionization state of weak acids and bases

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15
Q

What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A

Potency refers to the amount needed for effect; efficacy is the maximum effect achievable

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16
Q

What are enantiomers in the context of pharmacology?

A

Chiral compounds that can have different effects in the body

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of measuring plasma concentration levels helps determine _______.

A

[drug effects]

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18
Q

True or False: Antagonists can activate receptors.

A

False

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19
Q

What factors can affect drug response?

A
  • Age
  • Enzyme activity
  • Genetic disorders
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20
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

A rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated doses

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21
Q

What role do liver enzymes like CYP450 play in pharmacokinetics?

A

They are crucial for drug metabolism

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22
Q

What impact does renal function have on drug elimination?

A

It affects the clearance of drugs from the body

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23
Q

What is the importance of understanding receptor types in anesthesia?

A

It helps achieve desired effects based on how drugs bind

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24
Q

What is the potential benefit of genetic testing in anesthesia?

A

To personalize anesthesia plans based on individual responses

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25
Q

What is the significance of a low therapeutic index?

A

There is a small margin between effective and harmful doses

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26
Q

What are the implications of drug accumulation due to repeated dosing?

A

Increased potential for side effects

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27
Q

What should be considered when adjusting multiple drugs during anesthesia?

A

The potential for instability and unclear effects

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28
Q

What happens to albuterol effectiveness with frequent use?

A

It gets less and less effective due to tolerance.

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29
Q

What is ephedrine primarily used for in anesthesia?

A

It is used for low blood pressure.

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30
Q

How does ephedrine function as a beta agonist?

A

It increases norepinephrine to act as a beta agonist.

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31
Q

What is a common dosage of ephedrine for low blood pressure?

A

Five milligrams.

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32
Q

What condition is associated with constant catecholamine release and receptor tolerance?

A

Pheochromocytoma.

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33
Q

What does the acronym A, D, M, E stand for?

A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

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34
Q

What does ‘volume of distribution’ refer to?

A

The extent to which a drug disperses throughout body compartments.

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35
Q

What is the first group a drug goes to after injection?

A

Vessel-rich group (heart, lungs, liver, kidneys).

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36
Q

What type of drugs typically have a larger volume of distribution?

A

Fat-soluble drugs.

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37
Q

What factors can affect the volume of distribution?

A
  • Blood volume
  • Protein binding
  • Lipophilicity or hydrophilicity
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38
Q

What happens to the free drug concentration when plasma protein levels decrease?

A

The free drug concentration increases.

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39
Q

What is the significance of free drug in pharmacology?

A

It is the active form that can cross lipid bilayers and exert effects.

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40
Q

What happens to the volume of distribution if a patient receives additional blood?

A

It increases due to greater blood volume.

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41
Q

What is the effect of dehydration on volume of distribution?

A

It decreases due to reduced intravascular volume.

42
Q

What does metabolism generally convert lipid-soluble drugs into?

A

Water-soluble metabolites.

43
Q

What is the benefit of having inactive metabolites?

A

They ensure predictability in drug effects.

44
Q

Name one active metabolite of Valium.

45
Q

What type of drugs become active only after ingestion?

46
Q

True or False: Most anesthesia drugs have inactive metabolites.

47
Q

What is the primary purpose of drug metabolism?

A

To prepare drugs for excretion.

48
Q

What is a pro drug?

A

A substance that is inactive until ingested, then becomes active

Pro drugs often have metabolites that are active after metabolism.

49
Q

How are most anesthesia drugs metabolized?

A

Predominantly by the cytochrome P450 system in the liver

A few drugs are metabolized by the kidneys or tissue esterases.

50
Q

What are the two phases of drug metabolism?

A

Phase I: oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis; Phase II: conjugation

Phase I prepares drugs for elimination, while Phase II adds a polar molecule for water solubility.

51
Q

What is the role of CYP450 enzymes?

A

They are a family of microsomal enzymes that metabolize various drugs

CYP3A4 is the most common enzyme for anesthetic drug metabolism.

52
Q

What happens when CYP450 enzymes are induced?

A

Metabolism of the drug is enhanced, leading to faster breakdown

This can affect the effectiveness of drugs like anticoagulants.

53
Q

What effect does grapefruit juice have on drug metabolism?

A

It inhibits CYP450 enzymes, leading to increased drug levels in the body

This can result in higher circulating levels of drugs like Coumadin.

54
Q

What is hepatic clearance?

A

The liver’s ability to clear drugs from the bloodstream

It can become limited in cases of liver disease or age.

55
Q

What is elimination half-time?

A

The time necessary to eliminate 50% of a drug from the plasma after a bolus dose

This differs from elimination half-life, which refers to the amount of time to eliminate 50% from the body.

56
Q

What is the difference between elimination half-time and elimination half-life?

A

Elimination half-time refers to plasma clearance; half-life refers to body clearance

Half-time is easier to measure through blood samples.

57
Q

What is context-sensitive half-time?

A

The time to 50% decrease in drug effect after discontinuation of an infusion

This applies to continuous drug administration like drips.

58
Q

What is the significance of distribution in pharmacology?

A

It involves how drugs reach effector sites and their ability to cross membranes

Lipophilicity and ionization are important factors in drug distribution.

59
Q

Fill in the blank: CYP3A4 is the most common enzyme for the metabolism of _______.

A

anesthetic drugs

60
Q

True or False: All anesthetic drugs are metabolized by the kidneys.

A

False

Most are metabolized by the liver; only a few are metabolized by the kidneys.

61
Q

What can happen if a patient has liver disease?

A

Drug metabolism may be impaired, leading to accumulation of drugs in the body

This can increase the risk of side effects and toxicity.

62
Q

What is the significance of lipophilicity in drug distribution?

A

Lipophilicity allows drugs to cross lipid membranes to reach effector sites.

63
Q

What happens when the pK and pH of a drug are identical?

A

About 50% of the drug is ionized and about 50% is non-ionized.

64
Q

What are most drugs categorized as in terms of acid-base properties?

A

Weak acids or weak bases.

65
Q

Fill in the blank: If an acid is placed in a base, it _______.

66
Q

What determines whether a drug is active in terms of ionization?

A

Non-ionized drugs are more likely to be active and lipid soluble.

67
Q

What occurs when a drug is ionized?

A

It remains in a water-soluble form and does not effectively cross lipid barriers.

68
Q

What is the formula for determining ionization of weak acids?

A

PK after the pH.

69
Q

What is the formula for determining ionization of weak bases?

A

PK before the pH.

70
Q

How does a weak acid behave in a basic pH?

A

It becomes ionized.

71
Q

How does a weak base behave in an acidic pH?

A

It becomes ionized.

72
Q

True or False: Local anesthetics are more effective in normal pH tissue than in acidic tissue.

73
Q

What happens to local anesthetics and opioids when they reach an acidotic environment?

A

They become ionized and are trapped in the baby.

74
Q

What is the effect of drug concentration gradients in the placental circulation?

A

Drugs continue to move from mother to baby until equilibrium is reached.

75
Q

What is the primary reason a local anesthetic may not work in ischemic tissue?

A

The drug cannot cross the lipid bilayer due to acidotic conditions.

76
Q

What does pharmacodynamics refer to?

A

What the drug does to the body.

77
Q

What is measured to understand drug effects in pharmacodynamics?

A

Plasma concentration levels.

78
Q

What can affect the response to drugs in older patients?

A

Different amounts of protein, fat, and cardiac output.

79
Q

Define potency in pharmacology.

A

The concentration of drug required for a desired effect.

80
Q

What is efficacy in relation to drugs?

A

The full clinical effect achieved by the drug.

81
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

The ratio between effective dose (ED50) and lethal dose (LD50).

82
Q

What is the ideal therapeutic index for a drug?

A

A higher ratio indicates a safer drug with a wider margin of safety.

83
Q

What are enantiomers?

A

Chemically identical molecules that are mirror images of each other.

84
Q

Fill in the blank: The effective dose required to produce an effect in 50% of patients is known as _______.

85
Q

What is LD50?

A

The dose required to kill 50% of the population.

86
Q

Why is it important to know the ED95 rather than just the ED50?

A

ED95 provides a better indication of the drug’s effectiveness for a larger population.

87
Q

What is a common characteristic of drugs that have a rapid rise in plasma levels?

A

They may have a delay before their effects are felt.

88
Q

What are enantiomers?

A

Molecules that are chemically identical but are mirror images of each other

Enantiomers have asymmetric centers or chiral compounds.

89
Q

What is the significance of enantiomers in drug development?

A

Some enantiomers can have active effects while others have inactive effects or undesirable side effects

The goal is to create ideal molecules that minimize side effects.

90
Q

What does it mean if an enantiomer rotates light to the right?

A

It is called dextroretari

The left rotation is referred to as Levo.

91
Q

What is a racemic mixture?

A

A 50/50 mixture of enantiomers that rotate light in opposite directions

An example is racemic epinephrine.

92
Q

Which isomer of ketamine is more potent and has less delirium?

A

The S isomer

The R isomer is known for causing delirium.

93
Q

What is the advantage of Lbuvicaine over its CO isomer?

A

It has much less cardiac toxicity

This is particularly beneficial for patients with cardiac issues.

94
Q

What is the difference between cisatracurium and atracurium?

A

Cisatracurium does not release histamine, unlike atracurium

Atracurium can cause tachycardia and vasodilation due to histamine release.

95
Q

What is the isomer of albuterol mentioned in the text?

A

Open X

Open X does not cause tachycardia like albuterol.

96
Q

What is the future goal of drug administration mentioned?

A

Personalized anesthetic plans based on genetic testing

This would tailor dosages to individual patient needs.

97
Q

True or False: All inhalation agents have the same effects on the cardiovascular system.

A

False

Some inhalation agents may increase or decrease systemic vascular resistance (SVR).

98
Q

What is a potential study aid mentioned for learning inhalation agents?

A

Charts that list inhalation agents and their effects on various systems

These charts help identify similarities and differences among agents.

99
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ isomer of atracurium is known for its cleaner profile without histamine release.

A

cis

The cis isomer is also referred to as Nimbex.

100
Q

What is the benefit of grouping similar anesthetic drugs when studying?

A

It allows for understanding of patterns and exceptions rather than memorizing every detail

This approach can simplify the learning process.

101
Q

What common issue does ketamine cause when administered without benzodiazepines?

A

Delirium

Patients may exhibit confusion and repetitive questioning.

102
Q

What is the main focus of future drug development as stated in the text?

A

Creating drugs that are purely active with the desired effects and minimal side effects

The aim is to eliminate inactive components in drug formulations.