Placental Development and Gestational Trophoblastic Disease Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main events in fertilization?

A
  1. acrosome reaction
  2. sperm binding to ZP3
  3. Sperm -egg fusion
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2
Q

The outer membrane of sperm binds to 1 receptor and allows for the 2 reaction to occur which releaes enzymes like neurmidase and acrosin from the acrosmal space of the sperm to break down the 3

A
  1. ZP3
  2. Acrosome
  3. zona pellucida
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3
Q

which immunoglobin superfamily protein is required for sperm to fuse with egg?

A

Izumo.

Protein CD9 is also required

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4
Q

what protein on the egg does izumo binds on the egg?

A

CD9

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5
Q

A mutation in izumo results in _

A

inability for the sperm to fuse with the gg and undergo acrosome reaction. renders a male infertile.

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6
Q

what are two components of the cortical reaction and what happens in each?

A

Fast component: change in resting oocyte plasma membrane potential to prevent further binding of sperm
Slow component: release cortical granules containing enzymes that destroy sperm receptors. (zp3)

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7
Q

around what day does te blastocyst hatch from its zona pellucida?

A

around 6 to 7 days

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8
Q

binding of what holds the sperm in place to allow time for the acrosal reaction to ahppen?

A

ZP3 with the ZP3-binding molecule.

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9
Q

what prevents the egg from binding to the uterine tube?

A

the ZP.

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10
Q

what is the decidual reaction?

A

the preparation of the maternal endometrial cells for implantation

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11
Q

On the apical surface of the endmetrial lining cells are _ that which seem to play a role in helping hold on to the implanting blastocyst

A

pinopodes.

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12
Q

during endovascular invation, how far do the syntiotrophoblast invade?

A

They invade into the wall of the arteries and they replace the smooth muscle cells. this way they displace the arteries ability to constrct and enchnces the maximal blood coming to the fetus at all times.

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13
Q

syntiotiotrophoblast begins the secretion of _ into the maternal lacunae after endometrial invasaion

A

hCG

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14
Q

production of which immunospressive subsyanes inhibit the activation of NK cells at the implantation site?

A

prostaglandins

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15
Q

Infiltrating leukocytes int he endometrial stoma that secret which IL prevent materanl tissue rejection of the iimplanting embryo?

A

IL2

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16
Q

syncytiotrophoblastic cells do not express which MHC class and thus cannot present ag to maternal _ cells?

A
MHC class II
CD4+ cells
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17
Q

how and by when is the primary villi formed?

A

By the end of the 2nd week, cytotrophoblastic cells proliferate and extend into the syncytiotorphoblast mass (trophoblastic lacunae) and forms primary villi.

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18
Q

layers of what makes up the chorion?

A

syntiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast and a layer of XE mesoderm.

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19
Q

by when and what forms the secondary villi?

A

by the early 3rd week, the XE mesoderm extends into the primary villi forming the secondary villi

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20
Q

what differentiates into the capillary and blood cells as seen in the tertiary villi?

A

Cells of the XE mesoderm differentiates into capillary and blood cell. By now you can carry things from the fetus to the mother vice versa

21
Q

The placenta has two parts: fetal part and moms part. what are they?

A

Fetal part: chorion frondosum

Mom = decidua basalis

22
Q

What are the functions of the placenta?

A
  • Exchange of gases
  • transfer of maternal Ig (mainly IgG) taken up by the syncytio and then transported to fetal caps for passive immunity
  • Rh (D antigen) isoimmunization
  • Steroid hormone production
23
Q

Maternal antibdoes against what antigen causes hemolytic disease (erythroblastosis fetalis)

A

Antigen D

24
Q

what is Rh isoimmunization?

A

Refers to the maternal exposure and sensitization to fetal rh rbc mainly during delivery. in subsequent pregnancy the ab to D ag (IgG) cross the placenta and cause hemolysis of fetal blood cells

25
Q

What is the decidua basllis?

A

portion underlying the implantation site and forms the maternal part of the placenta

26
Q

what is decidua capsularis

A

portion overlying the implanted embryo and separting it from the uterine cavity

27
Q

what is the decidua parietalis?

A

the remainder of the endometrium

28
Q

the basic structure involved in maternal-fetal exchanges is

A

the chorionic villus

29
Q

what are the layers of the barrier going form the mother to the baby?

A
  1. syncytiotrophoblast
  2. cytotrophoblast
  3. XE mesochyme
  4. fetal endothelium
30
Q

what i plaental abruption?

A
  • premature separation of the normally implanted placenta is called placental abruption
  • with the chorian pulled away, Hemorrhage into the decidua basalis leads to premature placenal separation and bleeding
  • separation of the placenta from the uterus impairs oxygenation of the fetus
31
Q

what is placenta previa?

A

implantation of the placenat over the cervical os

32
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

abnormal atrophoblastic invasion - into the myometrium (plascenta increta) or through the serosa and into the surrounding tissues (placenta percerta)

33
Q

the separation of the placenta from the uterus is determined by cleave of which cell layers during delivary

A

decidua basalis

34
Q

what is uterine atony?

A

The contraction of the uterine muscle are not strong enough to constrict blood flow and postpurtum bleeding occurs

35
Q

What are some predisposing factors of uterine atony

A
  • abnormal labor,
  • substantial enlargement of the uterus,
  • uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
36
Q

IV infusion of what can decrease the possibiity of uterine atony?

A

Oxytocin

37
Q

Placental calcification is a normal sign of _

A

placental aging. usualy past 40 years. probably due to cell death and diminisehd blood circulation in localized region of the placenta. smoking can increase risk

38
Q

what is lithopedion?

A

Fetal death with an ectopic pregnancy. the fetus is too large to be reabsroebd by the body and calcifies.

39
Q

What are gestational trophoblastic diseases?

A

A group of neoplasms, both benign and malgnant, that arises from the fetal tissue invading the maternal host (fetal part of the placenta). Tumors are composed of trophoblastic tissue. Maternal GTD is diagnosed on the basis of elevated tumor markers, primarily beta-hCG. Chmo is a therapy

40
Q

Both complete hydatidiform mole and partial hydatidirom mole are types of GTD that are _ (benign or malignant)?

A

benign

41
Q

Invasive mole (chorioadenoma destruens), placental-site trophoblastic tumors (PSST) and choriocarcinomas are all _ (benign or malignant)

A

Malignant

42
Q

Explain what you’d expect to find in the complete mole karyotype of hydatidofrom. what about in partial?

A
  • No fetus
  • diploid, but all chromosomes paternal. HAS NO maternal DNA. (46, XX).

In a partial one - fertilization of a haploid ovum and duplication of the paternal haploid chromosomes or form dispermy. Tripoidy

43
Q

In which mole are you likely to find fetal tissue?

A

In partial mole

44
Q

In a complete mole are you likely to see outer cell mass or inner cell mass?

A

You’d find outer cell mass, but no inner. No fetal tissues.

45
Q

In which mole would you find an extensive chorionic villi

A

Complete mole

46
Q

which sets of genes (maternal or paternal) complete the devleopment of the trophoblasts? embryoblast?

A

Trophoblast is dad

Embryoblast - mom

47
Q

In invasive mole (malignant GTDS) what uterine layer does it invade by what?

A

edematous chorionic villi invade the myometrium covered with layers of proliferative trophoblastic cells, beta-hCG moderaly elevated.

48
Q

in choriorcarcinoma, what are you likely to find: cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast, villi

A

Admixture of malignant cytotrophoblast and syncytiotropblast. No villi