Pinstripes

Question 1

An increase TSH and decreased t4 provide lab evidence of which disease

Answer 1

Hypothyroidism

Question 2

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out

Answer 2

patient serum does not react with a

cell known to carry the corresponding antigen

Question 3

WBC count: 230 x 20/ (4 x 0.1)

Answer 3

=11.5

Question 4

The specificity of the antibody in cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is most often directed toward

Answer 4

Ii system

Question 5

Detection of oxacillin/methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus in antimicrobial susceptibility may be enhanced by

Answer 5

incubating for 24 hrs with added salt

Question 6

All of the following are characteristic of abo hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn except

Answer 6

Mother is group A

Question 7

A permanent stained smear of a fecal specimen revealed the trophozoite in the image below… Trophozite 55 microns in diameter

Answer 7

Entamoeba coli trophozoite

Question 8

Serum protein electrophoresis pattern is consistent with:

Answer 8

monoclonal gammopathy

Question 9

What term describes the process to identify what factors contribute to the occurrence of a nonconformance

Answer 9

root cause analysis

Question 10

An OGTT was performed on a patient the 2 hour serum glucose level was 145 mg/do this should be interpreted as

Answer 10

pre-diabetes (impaired glucose tolerance)

1. Less than 140: normal
2. 140 - 199: pre-diabetes
3. 200+ : diabetes

Question 11

Which of the following biochemical parameters is found only in the myocardium and
therefore provides specific evidence of cardiac injury when increased 4-6 hours:

Answer 11

cardiac troponin I

Question 12

Select the order of processes in southern blot transfer technique:

Answer 12

DNA extraction/ Gel electrophoresis, Blotting, Probe labeling, Hybridization & washing, detection

Question 13

Which of the following set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis

Answer 13

ph 7.25; HCO3 15 mmol/L; pCO2 37 mm Hg

Question 14

Perls prussian blue stain increase

Answer 14

Iron

shows up = dont have anemia

Question 15

Smudge cells

Answer 15

CLL, trisomy 12 del 11q,13q, 17)

Question 16

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura deficiency

Answer 16

Adamts 13 Protease

Question 17

This abnormal hemoglobin can form as a result of chronic constipation constipation or medication and represents an irreversible change to the hemoglobin molecule which cannot carry oxygen and will persist until RBCs carrying this abnormal Hgb are removed from the circulation

Answer 17

Sulfhemoglobin

Question 18

Which of the following is a characteristic of indirect immunofluorescent assays is
correct

Answer 18

. The anti-immunoglobulin has fluorescent label

Question 19

Which of the following illnesses is not caused by streptococcus pyogenes directly but rather by destructive host defense response

Answer 19

acute rheumatic fever

Question 20

Patient serum is mixed with gel particles that have been sensitized with Treponema pallidum antigens as well as with unsensitized gel particles in a separate well. Agglutination was observed in the well with sensitized gel particles but not in the well with unsensitized gel particles. What is the interpretation of these results?

Answer 20

Positive for anti-T pallidum antibodies

Question 21

A patient’s hepatitis b profile is positive for hepatitis b surface antibody only. This patient

Answer 21

Was vaccinated against Hep B

Question 22

A newborn infant tests positive for anti-hbc IgG. This result is evidence that:

Answer 22

the mother was infected with hepatitis B

Question 23

Which of the following statements about cortisol in Cushing syndrome is true:

Answer 23

24 hour urinary free cortisol is a more sensitive test than plasma total cortisol

Question 24

When a therapeutic drug is suspected of causing toxicity which specimen is the most appropriate:

Answer 24

peak blood sample

Question 25

Which of the following sets of tests would be the most useful in diagnosing an acute myocardial infection

Answer 25

CK-MB, troponin, myoglobin

Question 26

A blood specimen is obtained from an individual who is known to have elevated lipids (triglycerides) and the serum appears milky. This individual's physician has ordered an estrogen immunoassay that your laboratory performs using a nephelometric technique. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the possible outcome of this assay?

Answer 26

the lipemic specimen will produce interferring background light intensity and excess light scatter in this type of assay

Question 27

How does the net charge of the proteins in a sample affect the electrophoretic mobility of protein:

Answer 27

it is directly proportional to electrophilic mobility

Question 28

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen

Answer 28

Z-E syndrome

Question 29

A 42 year old male presents with anorexia nausea fever and icterus of the skin and mucous membranes he noticed that his urine had appeared dark for the past several days. The physician orders a series of biochemical tests. Based on the following test results, what is the most likely diagnosis? Serum alkaline phosphatase—slightly elevated, Serum alanine aminotransferase—markedly elevated, Serum aspartate It is directly proportional to electrophoretic mobility. : Z-E syndrome aminotransferase—markedly elevated, Serum gamma-glutamyltransferase— markedly elevated, Serum total bilirubin—moderately elevated, Urine bilirubin—positive, Fecal urobilinogen—decreased

Answer 29

alcoholic cirrhosis

Question 30

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin

Answer 30

UDP-glucuronyl transferase

Question 31

Which of the following statements about thin layer chromatography (TLC) for drug screening is true

Answer 31

a drug is identified by comparing its Rf value and staining to standards notes: Sample components are identified by comparison with standards on the

Question 32

Anion gap reference range and calculation Ans: AG = (Na + K) - (Cl + HCO3) or Na - (Cl + HCO3) Normal Range: 16- 20 (12-16 if K not included)

Answer 32

increased and increased anion gap (gap is 38)?

Question 33

Which of the following cells can be found in a vaginal wet prep:

Answer 33

clue cells

Question 34

A patient presenting with polyuria nocturia polydipsia and high specific gravity is exhibiting symptoms of what disorder?

Answer 34

diabetes mellitus

Question 35

A clean catch urine is submitted to the lab for routine urinalysis and culture The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for the culture. The specimen should

Answer 35

be rejected due to the time delay

Question 36

eGFR calculated by the MDRD formula takes into account the age, BUN, race, albumin, and what else for its calculations

Answer 36

creatinine does not include body weight eGFR is estimated GFR calculated by the abbreviated MDRD equation : 186 x (Creatinine/88.4)-1.154 x (Age)-0.203 x (0.742 if female) x (1.210 if black).

Question 37

Are triphosphate Crystals pathologic

Answer 37

nonpathologic, highly alkaline urine and common in urinary tract infections (coffin lid shaped)

Question 38

The urinalysis result most closely associated with renal disease is a positive

Answer 38

protein

Question 39

A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in 2 large squares

Answer 39

5,000 UL (5 x 10^6) (50x20x5)

Question 40

What does RBC casts and WBC casts indicate:

Answer 40

???? notes: RBC casts indicate: glomerulonephritis b. WBC casts indicate: interstitial nephritis, pyelonephritis, pyelonephritis, infection, inflammation C. Hyaline Case indicate: stress, exercise, fever, heat exposure, dehydration, glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, chronic renal disease, congestive heart failure

Question 41

Test for the detection of occult blood rely on which chemical reaction:

Answer 41

guaiac reaction Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

Question 42

Polarizing microscope image:

Answer 42

calcium pyrophosphate crystal: blue pseudo-gout monosodium urate crystal: yellow gout image?

Question 43

A DAT result showed 3+ with anti-IgG, what is the first step to identify the antibody coating the red cells?

Answer 43

perform an elution

Question 44

possible causes of extra antigens appearing in the forward grouping include all of the following except:

Answer 44

ABO subgroup?

Question 45

A 60 year old man was transfused with 1 unit of packed red blood cells following knee surgery. His hematocrit was determined to be 27% before transfusion, what is his expected hematocrit after transfusion :

Answer 45

30% | 27+3

Question 46

What phenotypes will be expressed when the Le, Se and H genes are inherited:

Answer 46

Le(a-b+)

Question 47

What might a positive antibody screen and a negative auto control indicate: It may indicate that

Answer 47

an alloantibody has been detected

Question 48

What is tested in an antibody screen:

Answer 48

patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells why are screening cells group O, To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum

Question 49

During an antibody screen was 1+ reaction at AHG with donor cells with the antigen profile fya+fyb- when tested with patients serum. All other donor cells on the panel were negative, including those that were Fya(+), Fyb(+). Given these results, what might be the conclusion?

Answer 49

single antibody (showing dosage)

Question 50

A patient wants to donate his own blood for surgery scheduled in 1 weeks and has a hgb of 11g/dl. What is his eligibility status:

Answer 50

(He can’t donate his blood)? If the donation is autologous, his hemoglobin can be at least 11g/dL. He can donate if his surgery is a week before surgery

Question 51

Which of the following statements is true regarding igG sensitized cells:

Answer 51

they must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test

Question 52

A group B patient requires fresh frozen plasma (ffp). Group B ffp is not available the next component of choice is:

Answer 52

Group AB

Question 53

A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility:

Answer 53

immediate spin

Question 54

The purpose of the AHG crossmatch is to

Answer 54

detect clinically significant IgG antibodies to antigens on the donor cells.

Question 55

Immunization for measles vaccine would result in a temporary donor deferral for

Answer 55

4 weeks 4 weeks for varicella, measles[German Rubella], and standard MMR (measles)

Question 56

Which of the following is true about platelets:

Answer 56

transfused within 5 days

Question 57

Which of the following is necessary to prevent an anaphylactic allergic transfusion reaction due to a known IgA antibody:

Answer 57

RBC should be washed.

Question 58

The specificity of the antibody in cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is most often directed toward:

Answer 58

I, i

Question 59

A 30 year old woman is admitted to the hospital. She has truncal obesity, Buffalo humpback, moon face, purple striae, hypertension, hyperglycemia, increased facial hair, acne, amenorrhea. The physician orders endocrine testing. The results are as follows Urine free cortisol - increased, Serum cortisol (8AM) - increased, Plasma ACTH - decreased, Dexamethasone suppression test, Overnight low dose- no suppression of serum cortisol, High dose- no suppression of serum cortisol. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Answer 59

Adrenocortical carcinoma

Question 60

A request is received in the laboratory for assistance in selecting the appropriate test(s) for diagnosing Lyme disease. Which of the following is most reliable for diagnosis

Answer 60

Microhemagglutination test on serum, examination of a gram staining smear it is difficult to isolate B. burgdorferi from skin, blood, or other clinical samples. Therefore, laboratory detection of Lyme disease is based on serological assays such as EIA, I FA, and Western blot.

Question 61

. A gram positive coccus was isolated from blood cultures of a patient with endocarditis and presumptively identified as enterococcus faecalis. What should the technologist do

Answer 61

screen for high glycoside resistance?

Question 62

Characteristics necessary for the definitive identification of mycobacterium tuberculosis are

Answer 62

rough, nonpigmented colony, slow growth at 37C, niacin | production-positive, nitrate reduction-positive

Question 63

Acid fast coccobacilli received from an immunodeficient patient suggest infection by which mycobacterium

Answer 63

M.Avium complex

Question 64

Which of the following requires isolation on media enriched with blood incubated at 42°C, in an environment containing 5% oxygen...?

Answer 64

Campylobacter

Question 65

LDL calculation question

Answer 65

240

Question 66

Corrected wbc question

Answer 66

(14.87 x 100)/(100+47)

Question 67

A 27 year old arrives at the emergency department with acute bleeding and swollen gums

Answer 67

AML

Question 68

Five days after transfusion a patient returned to his physician for postsurgical blood tests. It was noted that the hemoglobin value decreased from 11 mg/dL to 9 mg/dL during that time. The patient had not experienced any symptoms. To rule out a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, what test should be performed?

Answer 68

all of the above dat on current sample, elution if + antibody screen on current sample blood smear to check for spherocytes

Question 69

All of the following are characteristics of abo hemolytic disease except

Answer 69

IgM

Question 70

An antibody to the E antigen was identified in a patient who received multiple transfusions. What is the most likely phenotype of the patient's red cells?

Answer 70

R1R1 | R1r

Question 71

While performing the quality control on a gram stain procedure using a control slide of Staphylococcus and E. coli, the laboratory professional noticed that all of the bacteria, rods, and cocci are staining pink. This may be due to:

Answer 71

using too much decolorizer solution: use less ethyl alcohol/acetone

Question 72

Negative results obtained in the nitrocefin beta lactamase test can be reported after 10 minutes: which organism needs to be incubated for 60 minutes?

Answer 72

Staphylococcus aureus?

Question 73

A 0.001 ml loop was used to inoculate a urine specimen to culture media after incubation the following colonies were observed: -MAC agar= 200 very pink colonies, -BAP agar= 210 large grey colonies. The tech should report:

Answer 73

>100,000 CFUs/mL GNR 10^5 lactose fermenting GNR

Question 74

Colonies growing on kvlb agar fluoresce during red when viewed under a wood lamp. The organism suggested is

Answer 74

prevotella and porphyrommonas species

Question 75

Specimens for viral culture should be collected:

Answer 75

Notes: within 4 days of symptoms | Quizlet: within 2-3 days

Question 76

Viral genomes and virus names are grouped below: Which group is wrong together (meaning one is DNA and the other is RNA)

Answer 76

RNA varicella zoster; RNA hepatitis A

Question 77

A 4-year-old boy present with bruising, fever, and coughing. His white blood cell count is 15x109 /L, his hematocrit is 23% and his platelet count is 53 x 109/L. A bone marrow aspirate is obtained that reveals sheets of immature cells. Cytochemical studies for peroxidase and NSE are negative; the TdT is positive. Surface marker studies are done on the following phenotype: HLA - ; DR + ; CD19 + ; CD10 + ; Cμ - ; sIg - ; CD7 -. A portion of the aspirate is sent for cytogenetics and molecular studies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer 77

Precursor B cell ALL with t(12;21) TEL-AML1

Question 78

Factor XI deficiency:

Answer 78

hemophilia C; rosentiak syndrome- epistaxis, hematuria. PT | and BT normal Rx- FFP.

Question 79

Factor IX deficiency:

Answer 79

Assay decreased here. Christmas/ Hemophilia B

Question 80

The principle demonstrable antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus are

Answer 80

Antinuclear antibodies

Question 81

Tertiary syphilis is characterized by the following: It affects various organs

Answer 81

a. Skin lesions

Question 82

Antibodies against streptolysin O, hyaluronidase and dnase B are measured in the diagnosis of

Answer 82

rheumatic fever

Question 83

A patient has a reactive RPR at a titer of 1:32 and a reactive tp-pa:

Answer 83

Positive for syphilis

Question 84

Mold thick round tuberculate

Answer 84

Histoplasma capsulatum

Question 85

The mycelial form of which dimorphic mold produces thick walled, rectangular, or barrel shaped alternate arthroconidia?

Answer 85

coccidioides immitis