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FinGTFO Flashcards

1
Q

A Schilling’s test gives the following results: Part I: 2.1% excretion of radioactive Vitamin B12
PartII: 3.3% excretion of radioactive B12 after intrinsic factor was given.
PartIII: 3.2% excretion of Radioactive B12 after antibiotics was given

A

Pernicious anemia

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2
Q

A patient has 30% hemoglobin F. Which of the following can be eliminated?

A

Four missing genes for alpha chain production

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3
Q

which of the following is an expected finding in Beta thalassemia minor?

A

basophilic stippling

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4
Q

In ______, Reed-Sternberg cells and Reed-Sternberg variants predominate and lymphocytes are sparse

A

Lymphocyte depletion Hodgkins lymphoma

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5
Q

Which of the following is an expected finding in Beta-thalassemia minor?

A

Basophilic stippling

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6
Q

On monday a patients hemoglobin determination was 11.3g/dL and on tuesday it measured 11.8 g/dL. the standard deviation of the method used is +/- 0.2 g/dL. what can be concluded about the hemoglobin values given?

A

there is no significant change in the patient’s hemoglobin concentration

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7
Q

A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was obtained. the platelets appeared adequate when estimated from the stained blood film. the best explanation for this discrepancy is:

A

many platelets are abnormally large or platelet clumps

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8
Q 
A 14 year old boy is seen in the ER complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and fatigue. the CBC results are
WBC: 16.0x 10^9/L
RBC:4.37 x 10^12
Hgb: 12.8 g/dL
Hct:38.4%
Platelets:390x10^9/L 
differential: 
segs 30%
bands 2%
lymphs 50% 
monos 3% 
Reactive lymphs 15%
what is the most likely diagnosis?
A
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9
Q

A 50-year old man was admitted into the hospital with acute leukemia. Laboratory findings included the following:
Myeloperoxidase ————– Blast cell negative
PAS stain ———————— Blast cells demonstrate a blocking pattern
TdT ——————————– Blast cells positive
Surface immunoglobulin —– Blast cells negative
CD2 ——————————– Blasts cells negative
Philadelphia chromosome —– Positive
These results are most consistent with:

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia in lymphoblastic transformation

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10
Q

Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with hemophilia A?

A

Normal platelet aggregation

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11
Q

Blood donor and recipient samples used in cross matching must be stored for a minimum of:

A

7 days

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12
Q

Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the lest amount of H substance?

A

A1B

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13
Q

Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in blood banks after ABO and Rh antibodies ?

A

Anti-K

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14
Q

Select the appropriate strategy if the results of red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions.

A

Incubate tubes at room temperature or 4 degrees celsius with an autocontrol

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15
Q

Given the following ABO phenotyping data:

FORWARD
Anti-A 2+ mf
Anti-B 0

REVERSE
A1 Cells 0
B Cells 3+

What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy?

A

group O blood products given to group A

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16
Q

The correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets are:

A

20-24 degrees celsius, 4 hours

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17
Q

A patient has anemia, decreased RBC indices, and targets on the peripheral smear. serum iron is normal and electrophoresis shows thin bands that migrates faster than A on cellulose acetate. which of the following is true concerning this patient.

A

sickle/beta thalassemia minor

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18
Q

To prevent graft-versus-host disease, blood components prepared for a fetus that needs an intrauterine transfusion should be:

A

irradiated

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19
Q

A Kleihauer-Betke test indicates 10 fetal cells per 1000 adult cells. For a woman with 5000 mL blood volume, the proper dose of RhIg (Rhogam) is:

A

two regular dose vials, +1

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20
Q

Why is an enzyme treatment used in antibody identification?

A

enzymes aid in the separation and identification of multiple antibodies

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21
Q

Each unit of cryoprecipitate, prepared from whole blood, should contain approximately how many units of AHF activity?

A

80 IU

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22
Q

What is the most critical step in blood transfusion?

A

checking patient identification and compatibility of donor unit

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23
Q

Indicate the required storage temperature of Platelet concentrate

A

20-24 degrees celsius

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24
Q

Which genotype would most likely show dosage effect for both E and e antigens?

A

DCe/DcE

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25
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning turbidimetry is not correct?

A

in a turbidimetric procedure, the measurement of light is made at right angles to the incident light

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26
Q

Given the following lab results, what is the most likely cause of this patient’s BUN?

BUN
45 mg/dL

Creatinine
1.8 mg/dL

Uric Acid
7 mg/dL

pH
7.22

pCO 2
74.4 mm Hg

pO 2
32.8 mm Hg

O 2 sat.
51.3%

A

congestive heart failure

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27
Q

How does the net charge of the proteins in a sample affect the electrophoretic mobility of protein fractions?

A

it is directly proportional to electrophoretic mobility

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28
Q

The major causes of decreased plasma urea concentration include:

A

low protein intake and severe liver disease

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29
Q

An adult patient has a white blood count of 80x 10^9/L. The differential has 92% Sudan black positive blasts and 8% lymphocytes. which of the following is most likely.

A

AML without maturation or AML-M1

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30
Q

Certain immunoassays require separation of bound reactant from free labeled reactant for determination of analyte concentration. Which one of the following immunoassays is a heterogeneous and requires a separation step?

A

ELISA

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31
Q

Incorporation of ______________, a neutral antibiotic, into a polyvinyl chloride membrane allows for the manufacture of an ion-selective electrode that is highly selective for potassium.

A

valinomycin

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32
Q

Select the order of processes in the polymerase chain reaction cycle. (Steps are listed in the order performed with the first step listed first.)

A

denaturation, primer annealing, polymerase extension

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33
Q

A hospital patient is receiving amikacin for her Enterobacter infection that seems to be resistant to all other antibiotics. Her physician is somewhat unfamiliar with the antibiotic and wants to know what laboratory analyses can be performed to assess antibiotic concentration and the effects it has on the patient’s physiology. You suggest

A

peak and trough amikacin concentration assessment and creatinine clearance

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34
Q

Secondary acquired lactose intolerance can occur from reduced lactase activity following diffuse intestinal damage caused by, for example, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Which one of the following IBDs affects the large bowel in particular?

A

ulcerative colitis

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35
Q

For the specimen collection tubes listed below, select the proper order of use during specimen collection.

A

tube for coagulation testing, tube with no anticoagulant, heparin-containing tube, EDTA- containing tube

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36
Q

A 23-year-old man visits his physician with symptoms of abdominal discomfort and diarrhea. The man states that the diarrhea has been present off and on for approximately 6 weeks. He especially notes symptoms after a breakfast of wheat cereal and milk. His physician considers the possibility of two disorders, celiac disease and lactose intolerance. Which of the following pairs of laboratory tests would provide a definitive answer?

A

analysis of tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies and breath hydrogen testing

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37
Q

Upon examination of the morning’s run of free thyroxine tests, you notice that four consecutive normal control values are +1 standard deviation from the mean. In your QC report, you note that Westgard multirule _____ has been broken and realize that this rejection rule is sensitive to _____ error.

A

41s; systematic

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38
Q

Violation of which of the following Westgard control rules would be associated with the greatest degree of imprecision?

A

R4S

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39
Q

The biuret reaction is the most common technique for measuring total serum protein. The biuret reaction is directed toward what part of the protein complex?

A

the peptide linkage

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40
Q

The following pattern of serum protein electrophoresis is obtained:
albumin: decreased
α1- and α2-globulins: increased
γ-globulins: normal
This pattern is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A

acute inflammation (primary response)

41
Q

Which one of the following is most specific for cardiac muscle destruction?

A

cardiac troponin 1

42
Q

The predominant bacterial species that colonizes the human skin is

A

staphylococcus epidermidis

43
Q

A 57-year-old man complains of fever, headache, confusion, aversion to light, and neck rigidity. A presumptive diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made. Antimicrobial therapy should be initiated after which one of the following occurrences?

A

samples of blood and cerebrospinal fluid have been taken

44
Q

The order of reagents used in the Gram stain are

A

crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin

45
Q

Which of the following tests should be formed for initial differentiation of Listeria monocytogenes from group B streptococci?

A

gram stain, motility at room temp, catalase

46
Q

A 50 year old man was admitted into the hospital with acute leukemia. laboratory findings included the following:
myeloperoxidase—– blast cell negative
PAS stain—— blast cells demonstrate a blocking pattern
TdT—— blast cells positive
Surface Immunoglobulin—-blast cells negative
CD2—–blast cells negative
philadelphia chromosome—- Positive
these results are most consistent with:

A

Philadelphia chromosome is present in CML

47
Q

which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with hemophilia A?

A

normal platelet aggregation

48
Q

The optochin test is most valuable in the identification of :

A

alpha-hemolytic streptococci

49
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests are important in the diagnosis of group A streptococci (GAS) disease?

A

culture

50
Q

Haemophilus species that require the V factor (NAD) are easily recovered on which agar plate?

A

chocolate agar

51
Q

An isolate of E.coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for which sugar before sending it to the reference laboratory for serotyping?

A

sorbitol (fermentation)

52
Q

A lactose fermenter, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative rod isolated from a previously healthy child with blood diarrhea is most likely to be:

A

escherichia coli

53
Q

On TSI agar a gram-negative bacillus produced a yellow slant and a yellow butt. Select the organism from the list below that would produce this reaction

A

escherichia coli

54
Q

A 25-year old sexually active woman presents with purulent discharge and dysuria after having unprotected sexual intercourse with a new partner. Of the choices below, what is the most sensitive diagnostic method for determining the likely etiologic agent?

A

a nucleic acid amplification test

55
Q

Which of the following specimens would be unacceptable for anaerobic culture?

A

urethral swab

56
Q

Which of the following specimens would be unacceptable for anaerobic culture?

A

serological analysis

57
Q

Which of the following specimens would be unacceptable for anaerobic culture?

A

skin

58
Q

The mycelial form of which dimorphic mold produces thick-walled, rectangular, barrel-shaped alternate arthroconidia?

A

coccidiodes immitis

59
Q

The trichrome stain is used to identify

A

intestinal protozoa

60
Q

Patient Presents with bleeding 48 hours post tooth extraction. results are as follows:
Test: PT, 11.5 sec, ref 10-13 sec
Test: aPTT 32.5 sec, ref 23-35
Test: Fibrinogen, 345 mg/dL, REF 20-400 mg/dL
Test: platelets, 324x10^3/mL, ref 140-450 x10^3/ml
Possible causes are a deficiency in

A

XIII

61
Q

A nonpigmented mycobacterium is isolated that reduces nitrate to nitrite and is niacin positive. You should suspect:

A

m. tuberculosis

62
Q

In addition to T cells, which of the following cell types is required for initiation of the cell mediated immune response?

A

dendritic cells

63
Q

After maturation, which of the following types of lymphocytes emerge from the thymus?

A

naive t cells

64
Q

In the RAST assay for ragweed pollen:

A

only IgE anti-ragweed antibodies are detected

65
Q

Which of the following EBV markers would be most likely positive for an individual who had infectious mononucleosis 10 years ago?

A

anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-EBNA

66
Q

To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for:

A

microalbuminuria

67
Q

Ammonium sulfate is added to red colored urine. The urine had a positive reaction for blood, but there were no red blood cells in the sediment. After centrifugation, the reagent strip is positive for blood. The abnormal color is caused by:

A

hemoglobin

68
Q

Results of a specific gravity reading obtained by refractometer in the urology clinic do not agree with those obtained by the laboratory’s automated reagent strip reader. The laboratory should:

A

report the results from the reagent strip reader

69
Q

What is the most probable cause of the discrepancies in the chemical and microscopic results?

A

increased ascorbic acid

70
Q

ficin treatment of red blood cells will destroy which of the following antigens?

A

MNS or Duffy

71
Q

The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to:

A

detect the presence of casts

72
Q

The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a urine specimen is:

A

pH

73
Q

if a person inherits the B,H, se and Le, what is the red cell phenotype ?

A

Le(a+b-)

74
Q

blood donor and recipient samples used in cross-matching must be stored for a minimum of:

A

7 days

75
Q

which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H substance?

A

a1b

76
Q

RH phenotyping on mother D-, C+ E+ c+e+
Rh phenotyping on infant: D+C+E-c+e+
which of the following alleged fathers can be excluded

A

.

77
Q

acute intravascular hemolysis is MOST commonly with antibodies of which blood group system?

A

.

78
Q

which of the following is the most commonly seen in blood banks after ABO and RH antibodies?

A

.

79
Q

select the appropriate strategy in the results of the retyping procedure have negative agglutination red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions

A

incubate the tubes at room temperature or 4c with an autocontrol

80
Q

given the following ABO phenotyping data:
Forward Anti-A: 2+ mf Anti B:0
Reverse A1 cells:0 B cells: 3+
what could be the plausible explanation for this discrepancy.

A

group O blood products given to group A

81
Q

one unit of blood from a volunteer donor is tested for ABO group, Rh type, and unexpected antibodies. indicate the final disposition of the donated unit. assume additional FDA required testing is nonreactive unless noted
Anti-A:0 Anti-B:0 Anti-D: 0
A1 cells: 4+ A2 Cells 4+ B cells 4+
weak D test= 3+ DAT=0

A

.

82
Q

which treatment of red blood cells will destroy which of the following antigens?

A

.

83
Q

to prevent graft verus-host disease, blood components prepared for the fetus that needs an intrauterine transfusion should be:

A

irradiated

84
Q

each unit of cryoprecipitate, prepared from whole blood, should contain approximately how many units of AHF activity?

A

80 IU

85
Q

what is the most critical step in the blood transfusion

A

patient identification and abo compatibility

86
Q

indicate the required storage temperature of platelet concentrate

A

20-24 degrees celsius

87
Q

the physician orders to collect 250mL of whole blood from an autologous donor. how much anticoagulant will you need in the collection bag in order to collect 250mL Of whole blood?

A

35 mL

88
Q

which of the following antibodies would not be detected if the antibody panel cells are treated with papain before using

A

MNSs and Duffy

89
Q

which of the following statements concerning turbidmentry is not correct?

A

in a turbidimetric procedure, the measurement of light is made at right angles to the incident light

90
Q 
Given the following lab results, what is the most likely cause of this patients BUN? 
BUN: 45 mg/dL
Creatine 1.8mg/dL
Uric Acid 7mg/dL
PH 7.22 
pCO2 74.4 mmHg 
pO2 32.8 mm Hg
O2 Sat 51.3%
A

congestive heart failure

91
Q

how does the net charge of the protiens in a sample affect the electrophoretic mobility of protein fractions?

A

it is directly proportional to the electrophoretic mobility

92
Q

the major causes of decreased plasma urea concentration include:

A

low protein intake and severe liver disease

93
Q

incorporation of________ a neural antibiotic, into a polyvinl chloride membrane allows for the manufacture of an ion selective erode that is highly selective for potassium

A

valinomycin

94
Q

select the order of processes in the polymerase chain reaction cycle. (steps are listed in the order performed with the first step listed first.)

A

denaturation, annealing, extension

95
Q

A hospital patient is recieving amikacin for her enterobacter infection that seems to be resistant to all other antibiotics. her physician is somewhat unfamiliar with the antibiotic and wants to know what laboratory analyses can be preformed to asses antibiotic concentration and the effects it has on the patient’s physiology. you suggest.

A

peak and trough amikacin concentration assessment and creatinine clearance

96
Q

secondary acquired lactose intolerance can occur from reduced lactase activity following diffuse intestinal damage caused by, for example, inflamatory bowel disease (IBD). which one of the following IBD’S affects the large bowel in particular. n

A

ulcerative colitis

97
Q

For the specimen collection tubes listed below, select the proper order of use during specimen collection.

A

coagulation testing, anticoagulant, heparin-containing tube, EDTA-containing tube

98
Q

which of the following is an expected finding in the myelodysplastic dysplastic syndrome?

A

ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow and siderocytes

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